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  • performSelector:withObject:afterDelay: not working from scrollViewDidZoom

    - by oldbeamer
    Hi all, I feel like I should know this but I've been stumped for hours now and I've run out of ideas. The theory is simple, the user manipulates the zoom and positioning in a scrollview using a pinch. If they hold that pinch for a short period of time then the scrollview records the zoom level and content offsets. So I thought I'd start a performSelector:withObject:withDelay on the scrollViewDidZoom delegate method. If it expires then I record the settings. I delete the scheduled call every time scrollViewDidZoom is called and when the pinch gesture finishes. This is what I have: - (void)scrollViewDidZoom:(UIScrollView *)scrollView{ NSLog(@"resetting timer"); [NSObject cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget:self selector:@selector(positionLock) object:nil]; [self performSelector:@selector(positionLock) withObject:nil afterDelay:0.4]; } -(void)positionLock{ NSLog(@"position locked "); } - (void)scrollViewDidEndZooming:(UIScrollView *)scrollView withView:(UIView *)view atScale:(float)scale{ NSLog(@"deleting timer"); [NSObject cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget:self selector:@selector(positionLock) object:nil]; } This is the output: 2010-05-19 22:43:01.931 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:01.964 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:02.231 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:02.253 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:02.269 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:02.298 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:05.399 deleting timer As you can see the delay between the last and second last events should have been more than enough for the delayed selector call to execute. If I replace performSelector:withObject:withDelay with plain old performSelector: I get this: 2010-05-19 23:08:30.333 resetting timer 2010-05-19 23:08:30.333 position locked 2010-05-19 23:08:30.366 resetting timer 2010-05-19 23:08:30.367 position locked 2010-05-19 23:08:30.688 deleting timer Which isn't what I want but serves to show that it's only the delay that's causing it to not function, not something to do with the selector not being declared in the header, being misspelt or any other reason. Any ideas as to why it's not working?

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  • Inconsistent behavior working with "Flex on Rails" example.

    - by kmontgom
    I'm experimenting with Flex and Rails right now (Rails is cool). I'm following the examples in the book "Flex on Rails", and I'm getting some puzzling and inconsistent behavior. Heres the Flex MXML: <mx:HTTPService id="index" url="http://localhost:3000/people.xml" resultFormat="e4x" /> <mx:DataGrid dataProvider="{index.lastResult.person}" width="100%" height="100%"> <mx:columns> <mx:DataGridColumn headerText="First Name" dataField="first-name"/> <mx:DataGridColumn headerText="Last Name" dataField="last-name"/> </mx:columns> </mx:DataGrid> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.controls.Alert; private function main():void { Alert.show( "In main()" ); } ]]> </mx:Script> When I run the app from my IDE (Amythyst beta, also cool), the DataGrid appears, but is not populated. The Alert.show() also triggers. When I go out to a web browser and manually enter the url (http://localhost:3000/people.xml), the Mongrel console shows the request coming through and the browser shows the web response. No exceptions or other error messages occur. Whats the difference? Do I need to alter some OS setting? I'm using Win7 on an x64 machine.

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  • Pairs from single list

    - by Apalala
    Often enough, I've found the need to process a list by pairs. I was wondering which would be the pythonic and efficient way to do it, and found this on Google: pairs = zip(t[::2], t[1::2]) I thought that was pythonic enough, but after a recent discussion involving idioms versus efficiency, I decided to do some tests: import time from itertools import islice, izip def pairs_1(t): return zip(t[::2], t[1::2]) def pairs_2(t): return izip(t[::2], t[1::2]) def pairs_3(t): return izip(islice(t,None,None,2), islice(t,1,None,2)) A = range(10000) B = xrange(len(A)) def pairs_4(t): # ignore value of t! t = B return izip(islice(t,None,None,2), islice(t,1,None,2)) for f in pairs_1, pairs_2, pairs_3, pairs_4: # time the pairing s = time.time() for i in range(1000): p = f(A) t1 = time.time() - s # time using the pairs s = time.time() for i in range(1000): p = f(A) for a, b in p: pass t2 = time.time() - s print t1, t2, t2-t1 These were the results on my computer: 1.48668909073 2.63187503815 1.14518594742 0.105381965637 1.35109519958 1.24571323395 0.00257992744446 1.46182489395 1.45924496651 0.00251388549805 1.70076990128 1.69825601578 If I'm interpreting them correctly, that should mean that the implementation of lists, list indexing, and list slicing in Python is very efficient. It's a result both comforting and unexpected. Is there another, "better" way of traversing a list in pairs? Note that if the list has an odd number of elements then the last one will not be in any of the pairs. Which would be the right way to ensure that all elements are included? I added these two suggestions from the answers to the tests: def pairwise(t): it = iter(t) return izip(it, it) def chunkwise(t, size=2): it = iter(t) return izip(*[it]*size) These are the results: 0.00159502029419 1.25745987892 1.25586485863 0.00222492218018 1.23795199394 1.23572707176 Results so far Most pythonic and very efficient: pairs = izip(t[::2], t[1::2]) Most efficient and very pythonic: pairs = izip(*[iter(t)]*2) It took me a moment to grok that the first answer uses two iterators while the second uses a single one. To deal with sequences with an odd number of elements, the suggestion has been to augment the original sequence adding one element (None) that gets paired with the previous last element, something that can be achieved with itertools.izip_longest().

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  • [C#]Update Datatable and DatagridView with database Changes by Timer

    - by aleroot
    Scenario : i have a database table that is being apdated frequently bey some services. I have a c# Winform Application that load this table in a datagridview by binding a datatable as Datasource, then i whant to add a Timer that every 10 seconds update a the content of a datatable with the last changes in the database table ... I don't need to update a database with the datatable changes, but i need to update datatable with the last changes in the database table, that is the inverse of the usually.... Is there a way to do that ? What is the best way ? i've tried with this code : private void ServiceTimer_Tick(object state) { OdbcConnection oCon = new OdbcConnection(); oCon.ConnectionString = ConnectionStrings; OdbcDataAdapter dp = new OdbcDataAdapter("SELECT * FROM table", oCon); dsProva.Tables.Clear(); dp.Fill(dsProva,"table"); dataGridViewMessaggi.DataSource = dsProva.Tables["table"]; dataGridViewMessaggi.Refresh(); } But every Timer Tick i lost the selection in DatagridView and Current Row .... Is There a better solution ?

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  • Populate tableView with more than one array

    - by Ewoods
    The short version: Is there a way to populate one specific row in a tableView with one value from one array, then populate another row in that same tableView with one value from a different array? For example, cell 1 would have the first value from Array A, cell 2 would have the first value from Array B, cell 3 would have the first value from Array C, etc. The long version: I hope this isn't too confusing. I've got an array of names, and then three more arrays with actions associated with those people. For example, the names array has Jim, Bob, and Sue, and then there's an array for eating, reading, and sleeping that records every time each person does one of these things (all of these arrays are populated from a MySQL database). The names array is used to populate a root tableView. Tapping on one of the names brings up a detail view controller that has another tableView that only has three rows. This part is all working fine. What I want to happen is when I tap on a name, it moves to the detail view and the three cells would then show the last event for that person for each of the three activities. Tapping on one of those three events then moves to a new view controller with a tableView that shows every event for that category. For example, if I tapped on Bob, the second page would show the last time Bob ate, read, and slept. Tapping on the first row would bring up a table that showed every time Bob has eaten. So far I've only been able to populate the second tableView with all of the rows from one of the arrays. I need it the other way around (one row from all of the arrays).

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  • echo -e acts differently when run in a script by root on ubuntu

    - by ekrub
    When running a bash script on ubuntu 9.10, I get different behavior from bash echo's "-e" option depending on whether or not I'm running as root. Consider this script: $ cat echo-test if [ "`whoami`" = "root" ]; then echo "Running as root" fi echo Testing /bin/echo -e /bin/echo -e "foo\nbar" echo Testing bash echo -e echo -e "foo\nbar" When run as non-root user, I see this output: $ ./echo-test Testing /bin/echo -e foo bar Testing bash echo -e foo bar When run as root, I see this output: $ sudo ./echo-test Running as root Testing /bin/echo -e foo bar Testing bash echo -e -e foo bar Notice the "-e" being echoed in the last case ("-e foo" instead of "foo" on the second-to-last line). When running a script as root, the echo command runs as if "-e" was given and, if -e is given, the option itself is echoed. I can understand some subtle differences in behavior between /bin/echo and bash echo, but I would expect bash echo to behave the same no matter which user invokes it. Anyone know why this is the case? Is this a bug in bash echo? FYI -- I'm running GNU bash, version 4.0.33(1)-release (x86_64-pc-linux-gnu)

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  • How to have an iCalendar (RFC 2445) repeat YEARLY with duration

    - by Todd Brooks
    I have been unsuccessful in formulating a RRULE that would allow an event as shown below: Repeats YEARLY, from first Sunday of April to last day of May, occuring on Monday, Wednesday and Friday, until forever. FREQ=YEARLY;BYMONTH=4;BYDAY=SU (gives me the first Sunday of April repeating yearly) and FREQ=YEARLY;BYMONTH=5;BYMONTHDAY=-1 (gives me the last day of May repeating yearly) But I can't figure out how to have the event repeat yearly between those dates for Monday, Wednesday and Friday. Suggestions? Update: Comments don't have enough space to respond to Chris' answer, so I am editing the question with further information. Unfortunately, no. I don't know if it is the DDay.iCal library I'm using, or what, but that doesn't work either. I've found that the date start can't be an ordinal date (first Sunday, etc.)..it has to be a specific date, which makes it difficult for my requirements. Even using multiple RRULE's it doesn't seem to work: BEGIN:VCALENDAR VERSION:2.0 PRODID:-//DDay.iCal//NONSGML ddaysoftware.com//EN BEGIN:VEVENT CREATED:20090717T033307Z DTSTAMP:20090717T033307Z DTSTART:20090101T000000 RRULE:FREQ=YEARLY;WKST=SU;BYDAY=MO,WE,FR;BYMONTH=4,5 RRULE:FREQ=YEARLY;WKST=SU;BYDAY=1SU;BYMONTH=4 RRULE:FREQ=YEARLY;WKST=SU;BYMONTH=5;BYMONTHDAY=-1 SEQUENCE:0 UID:352ed9d4-04d0-4f06-a094-fab7165e5c74 END:VEVENT END:VCALENDAR That looks right on the face (I'm even starting the event on 1/1/2009), but when I start testing whether certain days are valid, I get incorrect results. For example, 4/1/2009 12:00:00 AM = True // Should be False 4/6/2009 12:00:00 AM = True 4/7/2009 12:00:00 AM = False 4/8/2009 12:00:00 AM = True 5/1/2009 12:00:00 AM = True 5/2/2009 12:00:00 AM = False 5/29/2009 12:00:00 AM = True 5/31/2009 12:00:00 AM = True // Should be False 6/1/2009 12:00:00 AM = False I'm using Douglas Day's DDay.iCal software, but I don't think it is a bug in that library. I think this might be a limitation in iCalendar (RFC 2445). Thoughts?

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  • Shared Memory and Process Sempahores (IPC)

    - by fsdfa
    This is an extract from Advanced Liniux Programming: Semaphores continue to exist even after all processes using them have terminated. The last process to use a semaphore set must explicitly remove it to ensure that the operating system does not run out of semaphores.To do so, invoke semctl with the semaphore identifier, the number of semaphores in the set, IPC_RMID as the third argument, and any union semun value as the fourth argument (which is ignored).The effective user ID of the calling process must match that of the semaphore’s allocator (or the caller must be root). Unlike shared memory segments, removing a semaphore set causes Linux to deallocate immediately. If a process allocate a shared memory, and many process use it and never set to delete it (with shmctl), if all them terminate, then the shared page continues being available. (We can see this with ipcs). If some process did the shmctl, then when the last process deattached, then the system will deallocate the shared memory. So far so good (I guess, if not, correct me). What I dont understand from that quote I did, is that first it say: "Semaphores continue to exist even after all processes using them have terminated." and then: "Unlike shared memory segments, removing a semaphore set causes Linux to deallocate immediately."

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  • function binding and the clone() function - Jquery

    - by Sam Vloeberghs
    Hi I have problems with my keyup binding when cloning an element. Here's the scenario: I have an html markup like this: <tr class="rijbasis"> <td> <input type="text" class="count" /> </td> <td> <span class="cost">10</span> </td> <td> <span class="total">10</span> </td> </tr> I'm binding an keyup function to the input element of my table row like this: $('.rijbasis input').keyup(function(){ var parent = $(this).parent().parent(); $('.total',parent).text(parseInt($('.cost',parent).text()) * parseInt($('.count',parent).val())); } I designed the function like this so I could clone the table row on a onclick event and append it to the tbody: $('.lineadd').click(function(){ $('.contract tbody').append($('.contract tbody tr:last').clone()); $('.contract tbody tr:last input').val("0"); }); This al works , but the keyup function doesnt work on the input elements of the cloned row.. Can anybody help or advice? I hope I was clear enough and I'll be surely adding details if needed to solve this problem. Greetings

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  • nginx 0.7.65 rewrite url with querystring problem?

    - by WisdomFusion
    Hi, all Recently, I altered my web server lighty to nginx. And now, Struggling with some problems. First, I have a site in nginx which only rewrites urls and redircts them to a new domain, and this site has exactly no file in its root directory. I put some rewrite rules (just string rules, no querystring) in my nginx.conf list 1 rewrite ^/index_([0-9]+)(.*)$ /forum-$1-1.html last; rewrite ^/dispbbs_([0-9]+)_([0-9]+)\.html$ /thread-$2-1-1.html last; Those rules work perfect till now. However, some rules that used to rewrite url with querystring do not work as hoped. list 2 location /index.asp { if ($arg_boardid ~ "^([0-9]+)") { rewrite ^ /forum-$arg_boardid-1.html break; } rewrite ^ /index.php break; } location /dispbbs.asp { rewrite ^ /thread-$arg_id-1-1.html break; } And, these rules are converted from rules under httpd server, list 3 ^/dispbbs\.asp\?boardID=([0-9]+)&ID=([0-9]+).*$ /thread-$2-1-1.html; ^/dispbbs\.asp\?(.*)&id=([0-9]+)(.*)$ /thread-$2-1-1.html; ^/index\.asp\?boardid=([0-9]+)(.*)$ /forum-$1-1.html; ^/index\.asp\?boardid=([0-9]+)$ /forum-$1-1.html; ^/index\.asp$ /index.php; So, what's the matter with rules listed in the list 2? and how could I make it woking. V/R, gavin

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  • MVVM: where is the best place to integrate an id counter, in ViewModel or Repository or... ?

    - by msfanboy
    Hello, I am using http://loungerepo.codeplex.com/ this library needs a unique id when I persist my entities to the repository. I decided for integer not Guid. The question is now where do I retrieve a new integer and how do I do it? This is my current approach in the SchoolclassAdministrationViewModel.cs: public SchoolclassAdministrationViewModel() { _schoolclassRepo = new SchoolclassRepository(); _pupilRepo = new PupilRepository(); _subjectRepo = new SubjectRepository(); _currentSchoolclass = new SchoolclassModel(); _currentPupil = new PupilModel(); _currentSubject = new SubjectModel(); ... } private void AddSchoolclass() { // get the last free id for a schoolclass entity _currentSchoolclass.SchoolclassID = _schoolclassRepo.LastID; // add the new schoolclass entity to the repository _schoolclassRepo.Add(SchoolclassModel.SchoolclassModelToSchoolclass(_currentSchoolclass)); // add the new schoolclass entity to the ObservableCollection bound to the View Schoolclasses.Add(_currentSchoolclass); // Create a new schoolclass entity and the bound UI controls content gets cleaned CurrentSchoolclass = new SchoolclassModel(); } public class SchoolclassRepository : IRepository<Schoolclass> { private int _lastID; public SchoolclassRepository() { _lastID = FetchLastId(); } public void Add(Schoolclass entity) { //repo.Store(entity); } private int FetchLastId() { return // repo.GetIDOfLastEntryAndDoInc++ } public int LastID { get { return _lastID; } } } Explanation: Every time the user switches to the SchoolclassAdministrationViewModel which is datatemplated with a UserControl the saVM Ctor is called and the schoolclass repository is created wherein the FetchLastId() is called and I am up to date with the last ID doing a inc++ on it to get the free one... Do you have any better ideas? What I do not like about my current apporach: -Having a private method in repositry class because a repositry is to fetch data only not "entity logic" like the counter - Having to access from the ViewModel a public property - located in the repository -, actually its not the ViewModel concern to get a entity id and assign it. Actually the ViewModel should ask for a schoolclass POCO and get a SchoolclassModel to bind to the UI. But then I have again to re-read the Schoolclass properties into the SchoolclassModel properties what I want to avoid.

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  • Update Datatable and DatagridView with database Changes by Timer

    - by aleroot
    Scenario : i have a database table that is being updated frequently by some services. I have a c# Winforms Application that load this table in a datagridview by binding a datatable as Datasource, then i whant to add a Timer that every 10 seconds update a the content of a datatable with the last changes in the database table ... I don't need to update a database with the datatable changes, but i need to update datatable with the last changes in the database table, that is the inverse of the usually.... Is there a way to do that ? What is the best way ? i've tried with this code : private void ServiceTimer_Tick(object state) { OdbcConnection oCon = new OdbcConnection(); oCon.ConnectionString = ConnectionStrings; OdbcDataAdapter dp = new OdbcDataAdapter("SELECT * FROM table", oCon); dsProva.Tables.Clear(); dp.Fill(dsProva,"table"); dataGridViewMessaggi.DataSource = dsProva.Tables["table"]; dataGridViewMessaggi.Refresh(); } But every Timer Tick i lost the selection in DatagridView and Current Row .... Is There a better solution ?

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  • Auto increment with a Unit Of Work

    - by Derick
    Context I'm building a persistence layer to abstract different types of databases that I'll be needing. On the relational part I have mySQL, Oracle and PostgreSQL. Let's take the following simplified MySQL tables: CREATE TABLE Contact ( ID varchar(15), NAME varchar(30) ); CREATE TABLE Address ( ID varchar(15), CONTACT_ID varchar(15), NAME varchar(50) ); I use code to generate system specific alpha numeric unique ID's fitting 15 chars in this case. Thus, if I insert a Contact record with it's Addresses I have my generated Contact.ID and Address.CONTACT_IDs before committing. I've created a Unit of Work (amongst others) as per Martin Fowler's patterns to add transaction support. I'm using a key based Identity Map in the UoW to track the changed records in memory. It works like a charm for the scenario above, all pretty standard stuff so far. The question scenario comes in when I have a database that is not under my control and the ID fields are auto-increment (or in Oracle sequences). In this case I do not have the db generated Contact.ID beforehand, so when I create my Address I do not have a value for Address.CONTACT_ID. The transaction has not been started on the DB session since all is kept in the Identity Map in memory. Question: What is a good approach to address this? (Avoiding unnecessary db round trips) Some ideas: Retrieve the last ID: I can do a call to the database to retrieve the last Id like: SELECT Auto_increment FROM information_schema.tables WHERE table_name='Contact'; But this is MySQL specific and probably something similar can be done for the other databases. If do this then would need to do the 1st insert, get the ID and then update the children (Address.CONTACT_IDs) – all in the current transaction context.

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  • Why is PHP discriminating between .php and .abc extensions for caching?

    - by Sam
    There seems to be a problem between how PHP engine handles identical files that differ only in their file extension. Problem: "An If-Modified-Since conditional request returned the full content unchanged." Also, I measured that the .php extension loads much faster than identitcal twin with .xxx extension even though the file contents are identical, and they differ only in their file extension. "HTTP allows clients to make conditional requests to see if a copy that they hold is still valid. Since this response has a Last-Modified header, clients should be able to use an If-Modified-Since request header for validation. RED has done this and found that the resource sends a full response even though it hadn't changed, indicating that it doesn't support Last-Modified validation." homepage ending with .php exact same file, but ending .ast Given: A home.php file is copied as home.xxx and this extension is added to htaccess to recognize it as a PHP file. The .php file listen to the php.ini where freshness is set to 3 hrs, the non .php files have to listen to htaccess where freshness is set to 2 hrs according to: AddType application/x-httpd-php .php .ast .abc .xxx .etc <IfModule mod_headers.c> ExpiresActive On ExpiresDefault M2419200 Header unset ETag FileETag None Header unset Pragma Header set Cache-Control "max-age=2419200" ##### DYNAMIC PAGES <FilesMatch "\\.(ast|php|abc|xxx)$"> ExpiresDefault M7200 Header set Cache-Control "public, max-age=7200" </FilesMatch> </IfModule> So far so good and everything loads, except, the non-php file doesn't cache properly, or it does cache well but doesn't validate well, to be more specific. See images enclosed. Only the non-php file extension causes the error and loads slower. The entire page.php loads faster as somehow all the elements in there then load properly from cache, while the page.abc has the full request returned while it ought to be cached, meaning the entire page is slower. Bottom line: What should be changed, in order eliminate the If-Modified-Since conditional request returning the full content unchanged?

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  • Storing Credit Card Numbers in SESSION - ways around it?

    - by JM4
    I am well aware of PCI Compliance so don't need an earful about storing CC numbers (and especially CVV nums) within our company database during checkout process. However, I want to be safe as possible when handling sensitive consumer information and am curious how to get around passing CC numbers from page to page WITHOUT using SESSION variables if at all possible. My site is built in this way: Step 1) collect Credit Card information from customer - when customer hits submit, the information is first run through JS validation, then run through PHP validation, if all passes he moves to step 2. Step 2) Information is displayed on a review page for customer to make sure the details of their upcoming transaction are shown. Only the first 6 and last 4 of the CC are shown on this page but card type, and exp date are shwon fully. If he clicks proceed, Step 3) The information is sent to another php page which runs one last validation, sends information through secure payment gateway, and string is returned with details. Step 4) If all is good and well, the consumer information (personal, not CC) is stored in DB and redirected to a completion page. If anything is bad, he is informed and told to revisit the CC processing page to try again (max of 3 times). Any suggestions?

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  • Five unique, random numbers from a subset

    - by tau
    I know similar questions come up a lot and there's probably no definitive answer, but I want to generate five unique random numbers from a subset of numbers that is potentially infinite (maybe 0-20, or 0-1,000,000). The only catch is that I don't want to have to run while loops or fill an array. My current method is to simply generate five random numbers from a subset minus the last five numbers. If any of the numbers match each other, then they go to their respective place at the end of the subset. So if the fourth number matches any other number, it will bet set to the 4th from the last number. Does anyone have a method that is "random enough" and doesn't involve costly loops or arrays? Please keep in mind this a curiosity, not some mission-critical problem. I would appreciate it if everyone didn't post "why are you having this problem?" answers. I am just looking for ideas. Thanks a lot!

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  • jQuery('body').text() gives different answers in different browsers

    - by Charles Anderson
    My HTML looks like this: <html> <head> <title>Test</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="jQuery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function init() { var text = jQuery('body').text(); alert('length = ' + text.length); } </script> </head> <body onload="init()">0123456789</body> </html> When I load this in Firefox, the length is reported as 10. However, in Chrome it's 11 because it thinks there's a linefeed after the '9'. In IE it's also 11, but the last character is an escape. Meanwhile, Opera thinks there are 12 characters, with the last two being CR LF. If I change the body element to include a span: <body onload="init()"><span>0123456789</span></body> and the jQuery call to: var text = jQuery('body span').text(); then all the browsers agree that the length is 10. Clearly it's the body element that's causing the issue, but can anyone explain exactly why this is happening? I'm particularly surprised because the excellent jQuery is normally browser-independent.

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  • CMD Prompt > FTP Size Command

    - by Samuel Baldus
    I'm developing a PHP App on IIS 7.5, which uses PHP FTP commands. These all work, apart from ftp_size(). I've tested: cmd.exe > ftp host > username > password > SIZE filename = Invalid Command However, if I access the FTP site through an Internet Browser, the filesize is displayed. Do I need to install FTP Extensions, and if so, which ones and where do I get them? Here is the PHP Code: <?php // FTP Credentials $ftpServer = "www.domain.com"; $ftpUser = "username"; $ftpPass = "password"; // Unlimited Time set_time_limit(0); // Connect to FTP Server $conn = @ftp_connect($ftpServer) or die("Couldn't connect to FTP server"); // Login to FTP Site $login = @ftp_login($conn, $ftpUser, $ftpPass) or die("Login credentials were rejected"); // Set FTP Passive Mode = True ftp_pasv ($conn, true); // Build the file list $ftp_nlist = ftp_nlist($conn, "."); // Alphabetical sorting sort($ftp_nlist); // Display Output foreach ($ftp_nlist as $raw_file) { // Get the last modified time $mod = ftp_mdtm($conn, $raw_file); // Get the file size $size = ftp_size($conn, $raw_file); // Size is not '-1' => file if (!(ftp_size($conn, $raw_file) == -1)) { //output as file echo "Filename: $raw_file<br />"; echo "FileSize: ".number_format($size, '')."Kb</br>"; echo "Last Modified: ".date("d/m/Y H:i", $mod)."</br>"; } } ?>

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  • OpenMeetings + Python + Suds

    - by user366774
    Trying to integrate openmeetings with django website, but can't understand how properly configure ImportDoctor: (here :// replaced with __ 'cause spam protection) print url http://sovershenstvo.com.ua:5080/openmeetings/services/UserService?wsdl imp = Import('http__schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/') imp.filter.add('http__services.axis.openmeetings.org') imp.filter.add('http__basic.beans.hibernate.app.openmeetings.org/xsd') imp.filter.add('http__basic.beans.data.app.openmeetings.org/xsd') imp.filter.add('http__services.axis.openmeetings.org') d = ImportDoctor(imp) client = Client(url, doctor = d) client.service.getSession() Traceback (most recent call last): File "", line 1, in File "/usr/lib/python2.6/site-packages/suds/client.py", line 539, in call return client.invoke(args, kwargs) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/site-packages/suds/client.py", line 598, in invoke result = self.send(msg) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/site-packages/suds/client.py", line 627, in send result = self.succeeded(binding, reply.message) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/site-packages/suds/client.py", line 659, in succeeded r, p = binding.get_reply(self.method, reply) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/site-packages/suds/bindings/binding.py", line 159, in get_reply resolved = rtypes[0].resolve(nobuiltin=True) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/site-packages/suds/xsd/sxbasic.py", line 63, in resolve raise TypeNotFound(qref) suds.TypeNotFound: Type not found: '(Sessiondata, http__basic.beans.hibernate.app.openmeetings.org/xsd, )' what i'm doing wrong? please help and sorry for my english, but you are my last chance to save position :( need webinars at morning (2.26 am now)

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  • How to calculate the normal of points on a 3D cubic Bézier curve given normals for its start and end points?

    - by Robert
    I'm trying to render a "3D ribbon" using a single 3D cubic Bézier curve to describe it (the width of the ribbon is some constant). The first and last control points have a normal vector associated with them (which are always perpendicular to the tangents at those points, and describe the surface normal of the ribbon at those points), and I'm trying to smoothly interpolate the normal vector over the course of the curve. For example, given a curve which forms the letter 'C', with the first and last control points both having surface normals pointing upwards, the ribbon should start flat, parallel to the ground, slowly turn, and then end flat again, facing the same way as the first control point. To do this "smoothly", it would have to face outwards half-way through the curve. At the moment (for this case), I've only been able to get all the surfaces facing upwards (and not outwards in the middle), which creates an ugly transition in the middle. It's quite hard to explain, I've attached some images below of this example with what it currently looks like (all surfaces facing upwards, sharp flip in the middle) and what it should look like (smooth transition, surfaces slowly rotate round). Silver faces represent the front, black faces the back. Incorrect, what it currently looks like: Correct, what it should look like: All I really need is to be able to calculate this "hybrid normal vector" for any point on the 3D cubic bézier curve, and I can generate the polygons no problem, but I can't work out how to get them to smoothly rotate round as depicted. Completely stuck as to how to proceed!

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  • How to resolve the only ImagePicker control view in landscap mode and whole application in portrait mode?

    - by Wolvorin
    I have tried almost all the answers during last two days provided by Google and SO but no luck :( What I want is my whole application is in portrait mode only. And it working fine in ios 6+. The only support required at now. But the problem is I need to launch UIImagePickerViewController with image source type camera in only landscap mode. What I tried till now is : (1) I try to create one category for UIImagePickerController for orientation. -(BOOL)shouldAutorotate { return NO; } -(NSUInteger)supportedInterfaceOrientations { return UIInterfaceOrientationMaskLandscape; } - (UIInterfaceOrientation)preferredInterfaceOrientationForPresentation { return UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeLeft; } Like this. But the camera view is not proper aligned. It just follows the orientation of device with some +/- 90 angle but not what I required. Even the button of the camera shown by camera view as camera control is also follows the camera view, ie. the view is rotated to 90 anti clock vise and stays to that way. Is there any way to use the camera with proper alignment? or have to use other framework to work with it? Please help me. I stuck with it for last two days.

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  • Entity Framework autoincrement key

    - by Tommy Ong
    I'm facing an issue of duplicated incremental field on a concurrency scenario. I'm using EF as the ORM tool, attempting to insert an entity with a field that acts as a incremental INT field. Basically this field is called "SequenceNumber", where each new record before insert, will read the database using MAX to get the last SequenceNumber, append +1 to it, and saves the changes. Between the getting of last SequenceNumber and Saving, that's where the concurrency is happening. I'm not using ID for SequenceNumber as it is not a unique constraint, and may reset on certain conditions such as monthly, yearly, etc. InvoiceNumber | SequenceNumber | DateCreated INV00001_08_14 | 1 | 25/08/2014 INV00001_08_14 | 1 | 25/08/2014 <= (concurrency is creating two SeqNo 1) INV00002_08_14 | 2 | 25/08/2014 INV00003_08_14 | 3 | 26/08/2014 INV00004_08_14 | 4 | 27/08/2014 INV00005_08_14 | 5 | 29/08/2014 INV00001_09_14 | 1 | 01/09/2014 <= (sequence number reset) Invoice number is formatted based on the SequenceNumber. After some research I've ended up with these possible solutions, but wanna know the best practice 1) Optimistic Concurrency, locking the table from any reads until the current transaction is completed (not fancy of this idea as I guess performance will be of a great impact?) 2) Create a Stored Procedure solely for this purpose, does select and insert on a single statement as such concurrency is at minimum (would prefer a EF based approach if possible)

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  • prolog recursion

    - by AhmadAssaf
    am making a function that will send me a list of all possible elemnts .. in each iteration its giving me the last answer .. but after the recursion am only getting the last answer back .. how can i make it give back every single answer .. thank you the problem is that am trying to find all possible distributions for a list into other lists .. the code test :- bp(3,12,[7, 3, 5, 4, 6, 4, 5, 2], Answer), format("Answer = ~w\n",[Answer]). bp(NB,C,OL,A):- addIn(C,OL,[[],[],[]],A); bp(NB,C,_,A). addIn(_,[],Result,Result). addIn(C,[Element|Rest],[F|R],Result):- member( Members , [F|R]), sumlist( Members, Sum), sumlist([Element],ElementLength), Cap is Sum + ElementLength, (Cap =< C, append([Element], Members,New), insert( Members, New, [F|R], PartialResult), addIn(C,Rest,PartialResult,Result)). by calling test .. am getting back all the list of possible answers .. now if i tried to do something that will fail like bp(3,11,[8,2,4,6,1,8,4],Answer). it will just enter a while loop .. more over if i changed the bp(NB,C,OL,A):- addIn(C,OL,[[],[],[]],A); bp(NB,C,_,A). to and instead of Or .. i get error : ERROR: is/2: Arguments are not sufficiently instantiated appreciate the help .. Thanks alot @hardmath

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  • Ruby syntax error: unexpected $end, expecting keyword_end

    - by user2839246
    I am supposed to: Capitalize the first letter of string. Capitalize every word except articles (the, a, an), conjunctions (and), and prepositions (in). Capitalize i (as in "I am male."). Specify the first word of a string (I actually have no idea what this means. I'm trying to run the spec file to test other functions). Here's my code: class Book def initialize(string) title(string) end def title(string) arts_conjs_preps = %w{ a an the and but or nor for yet so although because since unless despite in to } array = string.downcase.split array.each do |word| if (word == array[0] || word == "i") then word = word.capitalize if arts_conjs_preps !include?(word) then word = word.capitalize end puts array.join(' ') end end puts Book.new("inferno") Ruby says I'm messing up at: puts Book.new("inferno") <--(right after the last line of code) I get exactly the same error message with this test code: def title(string) array = string.downcase.split array.each do |word| if word == array[0] then word = word.capitalize end array.join(' ') end puts title("dante's inferno") The only other Stack Overflow thread regarding this particular syntax error that did not suggest trailing or missing ends or .s as the root of the problem is here. The last comment recommends deleting and recreating the gemset, Which sounds scary. And I'm not sure how to do. Any thoughts? Simple solution? Resources to help? Solution class Book def initialize(string) title(string) end def title(string) arts_conjs_preps = %w{ a an the and but or nor for yet so although because since unless despite of in to } array = string.downcase.split title = array.map do |word| if (word == array[0] || word == "i") || !arts_conjs_preps.include?(word) word = word.capitalize else word end end puts title.join(' ') end end Book.new("dante's the inferno")

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  • What can I do to get Mozilla Firefox to preload the eventual image result?

    - by Dalal
    I am attempting to preload images using JavaScript. I have declared an array as follows with image links from different places: var imageArray = new Array(); imageArray[0] = new Image(); imageArray[1] = new Image(); imageArray[2] = new Image(); imageArray[3] = new Image(); imageArray[0].src = "http://www.bollywoodhott.com/wp-content/uploads/2008/12/arjun-rampal.jpg"; imageArray[1].src = "http://labelleetleblog.files.wordpress.com/2009/06/josie-maran.jpg"; imageArray[2].src = "http://1.bp.blogspot.com/_22EXDJCJp3s/SxbIcZHTHTI/AAAAAAAAIXc/fkaDiOKjd-I/s400/black-male-model.jpg"; imageArray[3].src = "http://www.iill.net/wp-content/uploads/images/hot-chick.jpg"; The image fade and transformation effects that I am doing using this array work properly for the first 3 images, but for the last one, imageArray[3], the actual image data of the image does not get preloaded and it completely ruins the effect, since the actual image data loads AFTERWARDS, only at the time it needs to be displayed, it seems. This happens because the last link http://www.iill.net/wp-content/uploads/images/hot-chick.jpg is not a direct link to the image. If you go to that link, your browser will redirect you to the ACTUAL location. Now, my image preloading code in Chrome works perfectly well, and the effects look great. Because it seems that Chrome preloads the actual data - the EVENTUAL image that is to be shown. This means that in Chrome if I preloaded an image that will redirect to 'stop stealing my bandwidth', then the image that gets preloaded is 'stop stealing my bandwidth'. How can I modify my code to get Firefox to behave the same way?

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