Search Results

Search found 39631 results on 1586 pages for 'object model'.

Page 135/1586 | < Previous Page | 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142  | Next Page >

  • Macro access to members of object where macro is defined

    - by Marc Grue
    Say I have a trait Foo that I instantiate with an initial value val foo = new Foo(6) // class Foo(i: Int) and I later call a second method that in turn calls myMacro foo.secondMethod(7) // def secondMethod(j: Int) = macro myMacro then, how can myMacro find out what my initial value of i (6) is? I didn't succeed with normal compilation reflection using c.prefix, c.eval(...) etc but instead found a 2-project solution: Project B: object CompilationB { def resultB(x: Int, y: Int) = macro resultB_impl def resultB_impl(c: Context)(x: c.Expr[Int], y: c.Expr[Int]) = c.universe.reify(x.splice * y.splice) } Project A (depends on project B): trait Foo { val i: Int // Pass through `i` to compilation B: def apply(y: Int) = CompilationB.resultB(i, y) } object CompilationA { def makeFoo(x: Int): Foo = macro makeFoo_impl def makeFoo_impl(c: Context)(x: c.Expr[Int]): c.Expr[Foo] = c.universe.reify(new Foo {val i = x.splice}) } We can create a Foo and set the i value either with normal instantiation or with a macro like makeFoo. The second approach allows us to customize a Foo at compile time in the first compilation and then in the second compilation further customize its response to input (i in this case)! In some way we get "meta-meta" capabilities (or "pataphysic"-capabilities ;-) Normally we would need to have foo in scope to introspect i (with for instance c.eval(...)). But by saving the i value inside the Foo object we can access it anytime and we could instantiate Foo anywhere: object Test extends App { import CompilationA._ // Normal instantiation val foo1 = new Foo {val i = 7} val r1 = foo1(6) // Macro instantiation val foo2 = makeFoo(7) val r2 = foo2(6) // "Curried" invocation val r3 = makeFoo(6)(7) println(s"Result 1 2 3: $r1 $r2 $r3") assert((r1, r2, r3) ==(42, 42, 42)) } My question Can I find i inside my example macros without this double compilation hackery?

    Read the article

  • How to prepopulate an Outlook MailItem and avoiding a com Exception from the object model guard

    - by torrente
    Hi, I work for a company that develops a CRM tool and offers integration with MS Office(2003 & 2007) from windows XP to 7. (I'm working using Win7) My task is to call an Outlook instance (using C#) from this CRM tool when the user wants to send an email and prepopulate with data of the CRM tool (email, recipient, etc..) All of this already works just fine. The problem I'm having is that Outlook's "object model guard" is throwing com Exception (Operation aborted (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80004004 (E_ABORT))) the moment I try to read a protected value from the mailItem (such as mail.bodyHTML). Example Snippet: using MSOutlook = Microsoft.Office.Interop.Outlook; //untrusted Instance _outlook = new MSOutlook.Application(); MSOutlook.MailItem mail = (MSOutlook.MailItem)_outlook.CreateItem(MSOutlook.OlItemType.olMailItem); //this where the Exception occurs string outlookStdHTMLBody = mail.HTMLBody; I've done quite a bit of reading and know that my Outlook Instance (derived by using new Application) is considered untrusted and therefore the "omg" kicks in. I do have a workaround for development: I'm running VS2010 as Administrator and if I run Outlook as Administrator as well - all is good. I suppose this is due to them having the same integrity levels(high) and the UAC(?) is not complaining. But that just ain't the way to go for deployment. Now the question is: Is there a way to obtain a trusted instance of Outlook so that I can avoid this exception? I've already read that when developing an Office Add-In using VSTO one can obtain a trusted Instance from the OnComplete event and/or using "ThisAddin" But I "merely" want to start an outlook instance and preopulate it, and do not want to develop an Add-In since this is not the requirement. And to make it clear - I have no problem with pop ups informing the user that outlook is being accessed - I just want to get rid of the exception! So how can I get around this problem using code? Any help is highly appreciated! Thomas

    Read the article

  • How to implement two way binding between an ActiveX control and a WPF MVVM View Model

    - by Zamboni
    I have a WPF application implemented using the MVVM framework that uses an ActiveX control and I need to keep the WPF and ActiveX UI synchronised. So far I can update the ActiveX UI when I change the WPF UI using the code at the bottom of the question that I got from the article Hosting an ActiveX Control in WPF and this question. But I cannot update the WPF UI when I make a change in the ActiveX UI. I suspect that I need to fire the PropertyChanged event from my ActiveX control but I have no idea how to do this or if it is even possible. The ActiveX controls I have written are in VB6 and MFC as I am just prototying at this time for the eventual integration of VB6 ActiveX controls in a WPF contaner application. Here is a code snipet that indicates the work done so far: System.Windows.Forms.Integration.WindowsFormsHost host = new System.Windows.Forms.Integration.WindowsFormsHost(); // Create the ActiveX control. AxTEXTBOXActiveXLib.AxTEXTBOXActiveX axWmp = new AxTEXTBOXActiveXLib.AxTEXTBOXActiveX(); // Assign the ActiveX control as the host control's child. host.Child = axWmp; axWmp.DataBindings.Add(new System.Windows.Forms.Binding("ActiveXStatus", (MainWindowViewModel)this.DataContext, "ModelStatus", true, DataSourceUpdateMode.OnPropertyChanged )); // Add the interop host control to the Grid // control's collection of child controls. this.activexRow.Children.Add(host); How to implement two way binding between an ActiveX control and a WPF MVVM View Model?

    Read the article

  • Accessing a com object's vtable in c#

    - by Martin Booth
    I'm attempting to access a com object's vtable in memory and getting nowhere. From what I have read, the first 4 bytes in memory of a com object should be a pointer to the vtableptr, which in turn is a pointer to the vtable. Although I'm not sure I expect to find my test method at slot 7 in this com object I have tried them all and nothing looks like the address of my function. If anyone can make the necessary changes to this sample to get it to work (the aim is just to try and invoke the Test method on the Tester class by accessing the com object's vtable and locating the method in whichever row it turns up) I would be very grateful. I know it is rare that anyone would need to do this, but please accept I do need to do something quite similar and have considered the alternatives Thanks in advance [ComVisible(true)] public class Tester { public void Test() { MessageBox.Show("Here"); } } public delegate void TestDelegate(); private void main() { Tester t = new Tester(); GCHandle objectHandle = GCHandle.Alloc(t); IntPtr objectPtr = GCHandle.ToIntPtr(objectHandle); IntPtr vTable = (IntPtr)Marshal.ReadInt32(objectPtr); IntPtr vTablePtr = (IntPtr)Marshal.ReadInt32(vTable); IntPtr functionPtr = (IntPtr)Marshal.ReadInt32(vTablePtr, 7 * 4); // 7 may be incorrect but i have tried many different values TestDelegate func = (TestDelegate)Marshal.GetDelegateForFunctionPointer(functionPtr, typeof(TestDelegate)); func(); objectHandle.Free(); }

    Read the article

  • Adapting existing HTML/Javascript model to Titanium's latest release (v 0.9)

    - by Alan Neal
    In pre-0.9 versions of Titanium, one could simply specify an .html file (local or remote) in the tiapp.xml file and interact with it in the same manner as one would on a website. As of version 0.9, that is no the longer case. One creates their entire app dynamically. Unfortunately, this broke my previous implementation and, other than an updated Kitchen Sink, much of the new model and API calls are not covered in the documentation (e.g., createLabel). So, my question is this... What are the simplest steps for re-creating the previous effect (knowingly forgoing some of the advantages of the Titanium's latest approach if necessary)? My previous implementation was exactly as it functions on the website. The website has a single index.html file with no content other than links to JavaScript and style files. The document body's onload event called the first JavaScript function (located in the main script) and, from that point forth, the entire content was dynamically created. How can I set up the latest version of Titanium so that I am poised to do the exact same thing? BTW: Whereas I previously had the choice to keep the files local or remote, I don't believe that remote access (e.g., simply using the webView widget to point to the website) is viable. That's because pages displayed via the webView do not have access to most of the API. Since the iPhone and Safari browsers do not support the file input type, the only means for uploading files (something my app requires) is calling Titanium's function. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Objective-C memory model

    - by TofuBeer
    I am attempting to wrap my head around one part of the Objective-C memory model (specifically on the iPhone, so no GC). My background is C/C++/Java, and I am having an issue with the following bit of code (also wondering if I am doing this in an "Objective-C way" or not): - (NSSet *) retrieve { NSMutableSet *set; set = [NSMutableSet new]; // would normally fill the set in here with some data return ([set autorelease]); } - (void) test { NSSet *setA; NSSet *setB; setA = [self retrieve]; setB = [[self retrieve] retain]; [setA release]; [setB release]; } start EDIT Based on comments below, the updated retrieve method: - (NSSet *) retrieve { NSMutableSet *set; set = [[[NSMutableSet alloc] initWithCapacity:100] autorelease]; // would normally fill the set in here with some data return (set); } end EDIT The above code gives a warning for [setA release] "Incorrect decrement of the reference count of an object is not owned at this point by the caller". I though that the "new" set the reference count to 1. Then the "retain" call would add 1, and the "release" call would drop it by 1. Given that wouldn't setA have a reference count of 0 at the end and setB have a reference count of 1 at the end? From what I have figured out by trial and error, setB is correct, and there is no memory leak, but I'd like to understand why that is the case (what is wrong with my understanding of "new", "autorelease", "retain", and "release").

    Read the article

  • detecting double free object, release or not release ...

    - by mongeta
    Hello, If we have this code in our interface .h file: NSString *fieldNameToStoreModel; NSFetchedResultsController *fetchedResultsController; NSManagedObjectContext *managedObjectContext; DataEntered *dataEntered; In our implementation file .m we must have: - (void)dealloc { [fieldNameToStoreModel release]; [fetchedResultsController release]; [managedObjectContext release]; [dataEntered release]; [super dealloc]; } The 4 objects are assigned from a previous UIViewController, like this: UIViewController *detailViewController; detailViewController = [[CarModelSelectViewController alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewStylePlain]; ((CarModelSelectViewController *)detailViewController).dataEntered = self.dataEntered; ((CarModelSelectViewController *)detailViewController).managedObjectContext = self.managedObjectContext; ((CarModelSelectViewController *)detailViewController).fieldNameToStoreModel = self.fieldNameToStoreModel; [self.navigationController pushViewController:detailViewController animated:YES]; [detailViewController release]; The objects that now live in the new UIViewController, are the same as the previous UIViewController, and I can't release them in the new UIViewController ? The problems is that sometimes, my app crashes when I leave the new UIViewController and go to the previous one, not always. Normally the error that I'm getting is a double free object. I've used the malloc_error_break but I'm still not sure wich object is. Sometimes I can go from the previous UIViewController to the next one and come back 4 or 5 times, and the double free object appears. If I don't release any object, all is working and Instruments says that there are no memory leaks ... So, the final question, should I release those objects here or not ? Thanks, m.

    Read the article

  • Cannot return view model after POST

    - by Interfector
    HI, I am trying to return a model after a POST but I receive the following error: Exception Details: System.InvalidOperationException: Operation is not valid due to the current state of the object. Line 29: public UsersModel getUser(Int32 id) { Line 30: return ( Line 31: from users in db.NUsers Line 32: join userSettings in db.NUsersSettings The code in the controller looks like this: [AcceptVerbs( HttpVerbs.Post )] public ActionResult Edit( NUsers user ) { //Other code that doesn't affect the error :) UsersModel userDetails = this.usersObj.getUser( user.UserID ); return View( userDetails ); } The getUser method looks like this: public UsersModel getUser(Int32 id) { return ( from users in db.NUsers join userSettings in db.NUsersSettings on users.UserID equals userSettings.UserID where users.UserID == id select new UsersModel { UserId = Convert.ToInt32( users.UserID ), Email = Convert.ToString( users.Email ), FirstName = Convert.ToString( users.FirstName ), LastName = Convert.ToString( users.LastName ), Language = Convert.ToString( userSettings.Language ), Phone = Convert.ToString( users.Phone ) } ).First(); } and finally the UsersModel if you think it is relevant: public class UsersModel { public int UserId; public string Email; public string FirstName; public string LastName; public string Language; public string Phone; public List<NLanguages> Languages; public UsersModel() { Models.Languages languagesObj = new Models.Languages(); Languages = languagesObj.getLanguages(); } } Any thoughts on what might be causing the error and what can I do to fix it? Thx

    Read the article

  • Data Binding to an object in C#

    - by Allen
    Objective-c/cocoa offers a form of binding where a control's properties (ie text in a textbox) can be bound to the property of an object. I am trying to duplicate this functionality in C# w/ .Net 3.5. I have created the following very simple class in the file MyClass.cs: class MyClass { private string myName; public string MyName { get { return myName; } set { myName = value; } } public MyClass() { myName = "Allen"; } } I also created a simple form with 1 textbox and 1 button. I init'd one instance of Myclass inside the form code and built the project. Using the DataSource Wizard in Vs2008, i selected to create a data source based on object, and selected the MyClass assembly. This created a datasource entity. I changed the databinding of the textbox to this datasource; however, the expected result (that the textbox's contents would be "allen") was not achieved. Further, putting text into the textbox is not updating the name property of the object. I know i'm missing something fundamental here. At some point i should have to tie my instance of the MyClass class that i initialized inside the form code to the textbox, but that hasn't occurred. Everything i've looked at online seems to gloss over using DataBinding with an object (or i'm missing the mark entirely), so any help is great appreciated. ----Edit--- Utilizing what i learned by the answers, i looked at the code generated by Visual Studio, it had the following: this.myClassBindingSource.DataSource = typeof(BindingTest.MyClass); if i comment that out and substitute : this.myClassBindingSource.DataSource = new MyClass(); i get the expected behavior. Why is the default code generated by VS like it is? Assuming this is more correct than the method that works, how should i modify my code to work within the bounds of what VS generated?

    Read the article

  • Windows Media Encoder object not created in ASP.NET on MS Server 2003 64 bit

    - by Ron
    Hello, I created (and used) a Windows Media Encoder object in Microsoft Visual C# 2008 Express Edition on MS Server 2003 64 bit. This worked fine. However, when I attempted to create the equivalent Windows Media Encoder object using Microsoft Visual Web Developer 2008 on MS Server 2003 64 bit, the following exception was thrown: "Retrieving the COM class factory for component with CLSID {632B606A-BBC6-11D2-A329-006097C4E476} failed due to the following error: 80040154." It cannot be that the component isn’t registered, because both have a reference to the same WMEncEng.dll file. The Microsoft Visual Web Developer 2008 code also worked fine on XP 32 bit. Could it be a problem with permissions? Regardless, anyone have any ideas why this problem is occurring and, more importantly, how to resolve it? Thank you. Here are the two code snippets from MS Server 2003 64 bit: Microsoft Visual Web Developer 2008 (did not work): using System; using WMEncoderLib; namespace TestWMEnc { public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { WMEncoder encoder = new WMEncoder(); //exception thrown // ... } catch (Exception err) { string exception = err.Message; } } } } Microsoft Visual C# 2008 Express Edition (worked fine): using System; using System.Windows.Forms; using WMEncoderLib; namespace testWMEncoder { public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { WMEncoder encoder = new WMEncoder(); // ... } catch (Exception err) { string exception = err.Message; } } } }

    Read the article

  • Magento resource model for table with compound primary key

    - by sdek
    I am creating a custom module for a Magento ecommerce site, and the module will center around a new (ie, custom) table that has a compound/composite primary key, or rather the table has two columns that make up the primary key. Does anybody know how to create your models/resource models based on a table with a compound key? To give a few more details, I have looked up several tutorials and also used the excellent moduleCreator script. But it seems like all the tutorials revolve around the table having a PK with just one column in it. Something like this: class <Namespace>_<Module>_Model_Mysql4_<Module> extends Mage_Core_Model_Mysql4_Abstract { public function _construct(){ $this->_init('<module_alias>/<table_alias>', '<table_primary_key_id>'); } } Also, I just noticed that looking at the database model almost all tables have a single primary key. I understand this has much to do with the EAV-style db structure, but still is it possible to use a table with a compound PK? I want to stick with the Magento framework/conventions if possible. Is it discouraged? Should I just change the structure of my custom table to have some dummy id column? I do have the ability to do that, but geez! (Another side note that I thought I would mention is that it looks like the Zend Framework provides a way to base a class on a table with compound primary key (see Example #20 on this page - about half-way down), so it seems that the Magento framework should also provide for it... I just don't see how.)

    Read the article

  • Correct way to trigger object clone/memento when property changes

    - by Jay
    Hi, I have a big doubt about the correct way to save an object state (clone object), if necessary to rollback the changes, when a property has changed. I know that the IEditableObject interface exists for those cases but during some tests the BeginEdit would just fire like crazy (I have a DataGrid whose values can be edited but I won't need to keep the state of the object in these cases). I'm following the MVP design pattern in my project and the view's DataContext is a wrapper of my presenter.Let's say I have a CheckBox/TextBox in my UI and when that textbox's value changes, the property bound in the wrapper gets set.Currently, before setting the new value i'm raising an event to the presenter (something like PropertyChanging) that clones my wrapper. I'm doing this because I don't think that job should be done by the wrapper itself but by the presenter.Is this a correct approach? Raising the event is an acceptable solution? I thought of other possible ideas: Interface between presenter and wrapper; Use explicit binding and trigger the binding after saving object's state; What is your opinion about the best way to do this? Should I just keep IEditableObject, is this the best way? Best Regards

    Read the article

  • C#/.Net Error: MySql.Data Object reference not set to an instance of an object.

    - by Simon
    Hello, I get this exception on my Windows 7 64bit in application running in VS 2008 express. I am using Connector/Net 6.2.2.0: Message: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Source: MySql.Data in MySql.Data.MySqlClient.NativeDriver.GetResult(Int32& affectedRow, Int32& insertedId) Stack trace: in MySql.Data.MySqlClient.Driver.GetResult(Int32 statementId, Int32& affectedRows, Int32& insertedId) in MySql.Data.MySqlClient.Driver.NextResult(Int32 statementId) in MySql.Data.MySqlClient.MySqlDataReader.NextResult() in MySql.Data.MySqlClient.MySqlDataReader.Close() in MySql.Data.MySqlClient.MySqlConnection.Close() in MySql.Data.MySqlClient.MySqlConnection.Dispose(Boolean disposing) in System.ComponentModel.Component.Finalize() No inner exception. This exception is unhalted and the debugger dont point on any code line. It just say "Object reference not set to an instance of an object. MySql.Data" This error is really hard to repeat. On my Windows XP 32bit is all ok. Could it be error in 64bit Windows 7? Thank you very much for your answers. Regards, simon

    Read the article

  • Using "Object.create" instead of "new"

    - by Graham King
    Javascript 1.9.3 / ECMAScript 5 introduces Object.create, which Douglas Crockford amongst others has been advocating for a long time. How do I replace new in the code below with Object.create? var UserA = function(nameParam) { this.id = MY_GLOBAL.nextId(); this.name = nameParam; } UserA.prototype.sayHello = function() { console.log('Hello '+ this.name); } var bob = new UserA('bob'); bob.sayHello(); (Assume MY_GLOBAL.nextId exists). The best I can come up with is: var userB = { init: function(nameParam) { this.id = MY_GLOBAL.nextId(); this.name = nameParam; }, sayHello: function() { console.log('Hello '+ this.name); } }; var bob = Object.create(userB); bob.init('Bob'); bob.sayHello(); There doesn't seem to be any advantage, so I think I'm not getting it. I'm probably being too neo-classical. How should I use Object.create to create user 'bob'?

    Read the article

  • Sweave/R - Automatically generating an appendix that contains all the model summaries/plots/data pro

    - by John Horton
    I like the idea of making research available at multiple levels of detail i.e., abstract for the casually curious, full text for the more interested, and finally the data and code for those working in the same area/trying to reproduce your results. In between the actual text and the data/code level, I'd like to insert another layer. Namely, I'd like to create a kind of automatically generated appendix that contains the full regression output, diagnostic plots, exploratory graphs data profiles etc. from the analysis, regardless of whether those plots/regressions etc. made it into the final paper. One idea I had was to write a script that would examine the .Rnw file and automatically: Profile all data sets that are loaded (sort of like the Hmisc(?) package) Summarize all regressions - i.e., run summary(model) for all models Present all plots (regardless of whether they made it in the final version) The idea is to make this kind of a low-effort, push-button sort of thing as opposed to a formal appendix written like the rest of a paper. What I'm looking for is some ideas on how to do this in R in a relatively simple way. My hunch is that there is some way of going through the namespace, figuring out what something is and then dumping into a PDF. Thoughts? Does something like this already exist?

    Read the article

  • Mimic remote API or extend existing django model

    - by drozzy
    I am in a process of designing a client for a REST-ful web-service. What is the best way to go about representing the remote resource locally in my django application? For example if the API exposes resources such as: List of Cars Car Detail Car Search Dealership summary So far I have thought of two different approaches to take: Try to wrangle the django's models.Model to mimic the native feel of it. So I could try to get some class called Car to have methods like Car.objects.all() and such. This kind of breaks down on Car Search resources. Implement a Data Access Layer class, with custom methods like: Car.get_all() Car.get(id) CarSearch.search("blah") So I will be creating some custom looking classes. Has anyone encoutered a similar problem? Perhaps working with some external API's (i.e. twitter?) Any advice is welcome. PS: Please let me know if some part of question is confusing, as I had trouble putting it in precise terms.

    Read the article

  • Why isn't my new object being seen? C#

    - by Dan
    I am getting ready to take a class at a college on C#. I have been reading up on it a lot and decided to start a fun project. Here is what my project consists of: Main Control Form Configuration Form Arduino Program.cs calls Configuration.cs at start. This is where pin modes for the Arduino are set and where a timer is set. When I set these values, they get sent to MainControl.cs. When I hit the "Save" button in Configuration.cs, a MainControl.cs object is created [[I am correct in that?]] All of those values that were sent by Configuration.cs had corresponding setters that set private static variables in MainControl.cs [[ I don't really know if that is the preferred way, I am most definetly open to any suggestion anyone has]] MainControl.cs uses its default constructor, and this constructor calls a method that creates an arduino object from one of the private variables (serialPort) [[ Using this Arduino class Firmata.NET ]] When the arduino object is created, I know (I guess I do) because the form takes a few seconds to come up (As opposed to not using serial port) My problem is this: I do not understand why nothing can see the object I have been very wordy, I apologize if I wasn't concise. Here is the code: public partial class CMainControl : Form { private static string serialPort; public CMainControl() { InitializeComponent(); createArduino(); updateConfig(); // Change label values to values set in configuration } private void createArduino() { Arduino arduino = new Arduino(serialPort); } In Configuration.cs, when I set the serial port through a combobox, the value is sent to MainControl.cs just fine. Here is the error I get: Error 1 The name 'arduino' does not exist in the current context C:\Programming\Visual Studio\Workhead Demo\Workhead Demo\CMainControl.cs 94 13 Workhead Demo Please let me know if anyone can help and/or offer pointers, and please let me know if I didn't post or format anything correctly. Thank you very much :)

    Read the article

  • Rails Polymorphic Association with multiple associations on the same model

    - by Matt Rogish
    My question is essentially the same as this one: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1168047/polymorphic-association-with-multiple-associations-on-the-same-model However, the proposed/accepted solution does not work, as illustrated by a commenter later. I have a Photo class that is used all over my app. A post can have a single photo. However, I want to re-use the polymorphic relationship to add a secondary photo. Before: class Photo belongs_to :attachable, :polymorphic => true end class Post has_one :photo, :as => :attachable, :dependent => :destroy end Desired: class Photo belongs_to :attachable, :polymorphic => true end class Post has_one :photo, :as => :attachable, :dependent => :destroy has_one :secondary_photo, :as => :attachable, :dependent => :destroy end However, this fails as it cannot find the class "SecondaryPhoto". Based on what I could tell from that other thread, I'd want to do: has_one :secondary_photo, :as => :attachable, :class_name => "Photo", :dependent => :destroy Except calling Post#secondary_photo simply returns the same photo that is attached via the Photo association, e.g. Post#photo === Post#secondary_photo. Looking at the SQL, it does WHERE type = "Photo" instead of, say, "SecondaryPhoto" as I'd like... Thoughts? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Error while uploading file method in Client Object Model Sharepoint 2010

    - by user1481570
    Error while uploading file method in Client Object Model + Sharepoint 2010. Once the file got uploaded. After that though the code compiles with no error I get the error while executing "{"Value does not fall within the expected range."} {System.Collections.Generic.SynchronizedReadOnlyCollection} I have a method which takes care of functionality to upload files /////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////// public void Upload_Click(string documentPath, byte[] documentStream) { String sharePointSite = "http://cvgwinbasd003:28838/sites/test04"; String documentLibraryUrl = sharePointSite +"/"+ documentPath.Replace('\\','/'); //////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////// //Get Document List List documentsList = clientContext.Web.Lists.GetByTitle("Doc1"); var fileCreationInformation = new FileCreationInformation(); //Assign to content byte[] i.e. documentStream fileCreationInformation.Content = documentStream; //Allow owerwrite of document fileCreationInformation.Overwrite = true; //Upload URL fileCreationInformation.Url = documentLibraryUrl; Microsoft.SharePoint.Client.File uploadFile = documentsList.RootFolder.Files.Add( fileCreationInformation); //uploadFile.ListItemAllFields.Update(); clientContext.ExecuteQuery(); } ///////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////// In the MVC 3.0 application in the controller I have defined the following method to invoke the upload method. ////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////// public ActionResult ProcessSubmit(IEnumerable<HttpPostedFileBase> attachments) { System.IO.Stream uploadFileStream=null; byte[] uploadFileBytes; int fileLength=0; foreach (HttpPostedFileBase fileUpload in attachments) { uploadFileStream = fileUpload.InputStream; fileLength=fileUpload.ContentLength; } uploadFileBytes= new byte[fileLength]; uploadFileStream.Read(uploadFileBytes, 0, fileLength); using (DocManagementService.DocMgmtClient doc = new DocMgmtClient()) { doc.Upload_Click("Doc1/Doc2/Doc2.1/", uploadFileBytes); } return RedirectToAction("SyncUploadResult"); } ////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////// Please help me to locate the error

    Read the article

  • MVC Localization of Default Model Binder

    - by Dai Bok
    Hi, I am currently trying to figure out how to localize the error messages generated by MVC. Let me use the default model binder as an example, so I can explain the problem. Assuming I have a form, where a user enters thier age. The user then enters "ten" in to the form, but instead of getting the expected error of "Age must be beween 18 and 25." the message "The value 'ten' is not valid for Age." is displayed. The entity's age property is defined below: [Range(18, 25, ErrorMessageResourceType = typeof (Errors), ErrorMessageResourceName = "Age", ErrorMessage = "Range_ErrorMessage")] public int Age { get; set; } After some digging, I notice that this error text comes from the System.Web.Mvc.Resources.DefaultModelBinder_ValueInvalid in the MvcResources.resx file. Now, how can create localized versions of this file? As A solution, for example, should I download MVC source and add MvcResources.en_GB.resx, MvcResources.fr_FR.resx, MvcResources.es_ES.resx and MvcResources.de_DE.resx, and then compile my own version of MVC.dll? But I don't like this idea. Any one else know a better way?

    Read the article

  • Defining an implementation independent version of the global object in JavaScript

    - by Aadit M Shah
    I'm trying to define the global object in JavaScript in a single line as follows: var global = this.global || this; The above statement is in the global scope. Hence in browsers the this pointer is an alias for the window object. Assuming that it's the first line of JavaScript to be executed in the context of the current web page, the value of global will always be the same as that of the this pointer or the window object. In CommonJS implementations, such as RingoJS and node.js the this pointer points to the current ModuleScope. However, we can access the global object through the property global defined on the ModuleScope. Hence we can access it via the this.global property. Hence this code snippet works in all browsers and in at least RingoJS and node.js, but I have not tested other CommomJS implementations. Thus I would like to know if this code will not yield correct results when run on any other CommonJS implementation, and if so how I may fix it. Eventually, I intend to use it in a lambda expression for my implementation independent JavaScript framework as follows (idea from jQuery): (function (global) { // javascript framework })(this.global || this);

    Read the article

  • .Net Architecture challenge: The Change-prone Frankestein Model

    - by SDReyes
    Good Morning SO! We've been scratching our heads with with this interesting scenario at the office, and we're anxious to hear your ideas and approaches: We have a database, whose schema is prone to changes -lets call it Prony-. (is used to store configuration parameters for embedded devices. so if the embedded devices guy need a new table, property or relationship for the model, he should be able to adapt the schema in a easy way -happens so often- ). Prony needs a web interface to create/edit its data. We have another database containing data that also need to be loaded to the devices, after making some transformations - lets call this one Oddy- (this data it's generated by an already existent administrative web application). Finally we have Tracy, a server that communicates our DBs and our embedded devices. She should to auto-adapt herself, to our dbs schema changes and serialize the data to the devices. Nice puzzle, don't think so? : ) Our current candidates: Rady: The fast Lets create some views in Prony that make the data transformation from Oddy. then use DynamicData (or some RAD tool) to create/update a simple web interface for Prony (so he can even consult the transformated data from coming from Prony : ). About Tracy, she will need to be recompiled to update her DB schema (Entity framework should work) and use Reflection to explore recursively the schema and serialize data. Cons: We would have to recompile Tracy and the Prony's web interface. What do you think of the candidate(s)? What would you do?

    Read the article

  • not able to Deserialize object

    - by Ravisha
    I am having following peice of code ,where in i am trying to serialize and deserailize object of StringResource class. Please note Resource1.stringXml = its coming from resource file.If i pass strelemet.outerXMl i get the object from Deserialize object ,but if i pass Resource1.stringXml i am getting following exception {"< STRING xmlns='' was not expected."} System.Exception {System.InvalidOperationException} class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { StringResource str = new StringResource(); str.DELETE = "CanDelete"; str.ID= "23342"; XmlElement strelemet = SerializeObjectToXmlNode (str); StringResource strResourceObject = DeSerializeXmlNodeToObject<StringResource>(Resource1.stringXml); Console.ReadLine(); } public static T DeSerializeXmlNodeToObject<T>(string objectNodeOuterXml) { try { TextReader objStringsTextReader = new StringReader(objectNodeOuterXml); XmlSerializer stringResourceSerializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(T),string.Empty); return (T)stringResourceSerializer.Deserialize(objStringsTextReader); } catch (Exception excep) { return default(T); } } public static XmlElement SerializeObjectToXmlNode(object obj) { using (MemoryStream memoryStream = new MemoryStream()) { try { XmlSerializerNamespaces xmlNameSpace = new XmlSerializerNamespaces(); xmlNameSpace.Add(string.Empty, string.Empty); XmlWriterSettings writerSettings = new XmlWriterSettings(); writerSettings.CloseOutput = false; writerSettings.Encoding = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8; writerSettings.Indent = false; writerSettings.OmitXmlDeclaration = true; XmlWriter writer = XmlWriter.Create(memoryStream, writerSettings); XmlSerializer xmlserializer = new XmlSerializer(obj.GetType()); xmlserializer.Serialize(writer, obj, xmlNameSpace); writer.Close(); memoryStream.Position = 0; XmlDocument serializeObjectDoc = new XmlDocument(); serializeObjectDoc.Load(memoryStream); return serializeObjectDoc.DocumentElement; } catch (Exception excep) { return null; } } } } public class StringResource { [XmlAttribute] public string DELETE; [XmlAttribute] public string ID; }

    Read the article

  • Serializing a part of object graph

    - by Felix
    Hi all, I have a problem regarding Java custom serialization. I have a graph of objects and want to configure where to stop when I serialize a root object from client to server. Let's make it a bit concrete, clear by giving a sample scenario. I have Classes of type Company Employee (abstract) Manager extends Employee Secretary extends Employee Analyst extends Employee Project Here are the relations: Company(1)---(n)Employee Manager(1)---(n)Project Analyst(1)---(n)Project Imagine, I'm on the client side and I want to create a new company, assign it 10 employees (new or some existing) and send this new company to the server. What I expect in this scenario is to serialize the company and all bounding employees to the server side, because I'll save the relations on the database. So far no problem, since the default Java serialization mechanism serializes the whole object graph, excluding the field which are static or transient. My goal is about the following scenario. Imagine, I loaded a company and its 1000 employees from the server to the client side. Now I only want to rename the company's name (or some other field, that directly belongs to the company) and update this record. This time, I want to send only the company object to the server side and not the whole list of employees (I just update the name, the employees are in this use case irrelevant). My aim also includes the configurability of saying, transfer the company AND the employees but not the Project-Relations, you must stop there. Do you know any possibility of achieving this in a generic way, without implementing the writeObject, readObject for every single Entity-Object? What would be your suggestions? I would really appreciate your answers. I'm open to any ideas and am ready to answer your questions in case something is not clear.

    Read the article

  • JS Object this.method() breaks via jQuery

    - by Peter Boughton
    I'm sure there's a simple answer to this, but it's Friday afternoon and I'm tired. :( Not sure how to explain it, so I'll just go ahead and post example code... Here is a simple object: var Bob = { Stuff : '' , init : function() { this.Stuff = arguments[0] } , doSomething : function() { console.log( this.Stuff ); } } And here it is being used: $j = jQuery.noConflict(); $j(document).ready( init ); function init() { Bob.init('hello'); Bob.doSomething(); $j('#MyButton').click( Bob.doSomething ); } Everything works, except for the last line. When jQuery calls the doSomething method it is overriding 'this' and stopping it from working. Trying to use just Stuff doesn't work either. So how do I refer to an object's own properties in a way that allows jQuery to call it, and also allows the object to work with the calling jQuery object? i.e. I would like to be able to do things like this: doSomething : function() { console.log( <CurrentObject>.Stuff + $j(<CallerElement>).attr('id') ); } (Where <CurrentObject> and <CallerElement> are replaced with appropriate names.)

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142  | Next Page >