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  • How do I define a Calculated Measure in MDX based on a Dimension Attribute?

    - by ShaneD
    I would like to create a calculated measure that sums up only a specific subset of records in my fact table based on a dimension attribute. Given: Dimension Date LedgerLineItem {Charge, Payment, Write-Off, Copay, Credit} Measures LedgerAmount Relationships * LedgerLineItem is a degenerate dimension of FactLedger If I break down LedgerAmount by LedgerLineItem.Type I can easily see how much is charged, paid, credit, etc, but when I do not break it down by LedgerLineItem.Type I cannot easily add the credit, paid, credit, etc into a pivot table. I would like to create separate calculated measures that sum only specific type (or multiple types) of ledger facts. An example of the desired output would be: | Year | Charged | Total Paid | Amount - Ledger | | 2008 | $1000 | $600 | -$400 | | 2009 | $2000 | $1500 | -$500 | | Total | $3000 | $2100 | -$900 | I have tried to create the calculated measure a couple of ways and each one works in some circumstances but not in others. Now before anyone says do this in ETL, I have already done it in ETL and it works just fine. What I am trying to do as part of learning to understand MDX better is to figure out how to duplicate what I have done in the ETL in MDX as so far I am unable to do that. Here are two attempts I have made and the problems with them. This works only when ledger type is in the pivot table. It returns the correct amount of the ledger entries (although in this case it is identical to [amount - ledger] but when I try to remove type and just get the sum of all ledger entries it returns unknown. CASE WHEN ([Ledger].[Type].currentMember = [Ledger].[Type].&[Credit]) OR ([Ledger].[Type].currentMember = [Ledger].[Type].&[Paid]) OR ([Ledger].[Type].currentMember = [Ledger].[Type].&[Held Money: Copay]) THEN [Measures].[Amount - ledger] ELSE 0 END This works only when ledger type is not in the pivot table. It always returns the total payment amount, which is incorrect when I am slicing by type as I would only expect to see the credit portion under credit, the paid portion, under paid, $0 under charge, etc. sum({([Ledger].[Type].&[Credit]), ([Ledger].[Type].&[Paid]), ([Ledger].[Type].&[Held Money: Copay])}, [Measures].[Amount - ledger]) Is there any way to make this return the correct numbers regardless of whether Ledger.Type is included in my pivot table or not?

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  • php - sort and delete duplicates?

    - by c41122ino
    I've got an array that looks like this: Array ( [0] => Array ( num => 09989, dis => 20 ) [1] => Array ( num => 09989, dis => 10 ) [2] => Array ( num => 56676, dis => 15 ) [3] => Array ( num => 44533, dis => 20 ) [4] => Array ( num => 44533, dis => 50 ) ) First, I'm trying to sort them by num, and can't seem to get the usort example from php.net working here. It simply doesn't appear to be sorting... I'm also trying to delete the array element if it's a duplicate and whose dis value is higher than the other one. So, based on the example above, I'm trying to create: Array ( [0] => Array ( num => 09989, dis => 10 ) [1] => Array ( num => 44533, dis => 20 ) [2] => Array ( num => 56676, dis => 15 ) ) This is the code from php.net: function cmp($a, $b) { if ($a == $b) { return 0; } return ($a < $b) ? -1 : 1; }

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  • Remove "Flash" between pages while using Internet Explorer modal boxes

    - by AaronS
    I have an internal web application, that is IE specific, and uses a lot of IE specific modal boxes: (window.showModalDialog). I recently received a request to remove the "flash" when navigating between pages of the site. To accomplish this, I just added a meta transition tag to my master page: <meta http-equiv="Page-Enter" content="blendTrans(duration=0.0)" /> This works perfectly except for the modal boxes. When you launch a modal box, and then move it around, the web page behind it keeps a trail of the modal box instead of re-drawing the web page content. This prevents the user from moving the modal box to read anything that was behind it. Is there a way to prevent the "flash" between pages in an IE specific site and have the site still work with modal boxes? Please note, this is a large and complex site, so re-architecting it to not use modal boxes isn't an option. This is an asp.net, c# web application, and all of my users are using IE 7 and IE 8 if it makes any difference. -Edit- To duplicate this, put the following into an html page, and open it in Internet Explorer: <html> <head> <title>Test</title> <meta content="blendTrans(duration=0.0)" http-equiv="Page-Exit"> </head> <body> <script language="javascript"> window.showModalDialog('modal.htm', window); </script> </body> </html>

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  • % style macros not supported in some C++/CLI project property pages under VS2010?

    - by Dave Foster
    We're currently evaluating VS2010 and have upgraded our VS2008 C++/CLI project to the new .vcxproj format. I've noticed that a certain property we had set in the project settings did not get translated properly. Under Configuration Properties - Managed Resources - Resource Logical Name, we used to have (in VS2008) the setting: $(IntDir)\$(RootNamespace).$(InputName).resources which indicated that all .resx files were to compile into OurLib.SomeForm.resources inside of the assembly. (the Debug portion is dropped when assembled) According to MSDN, the $(InputName) macro no longer exists and should be replaced with %(Filename). However, when translating the above line to swap those macros, it does not seem to ever expand. The second .resx file it tries to compile, I get a "LINK : fatal error LNK1316: duplicate managed resource name 'Debug\OurLib.%(Filename).resources". This indicates to me that the % style macros are not being expanded here, at least in this specific property. If we don't set anything in that property, the default behavior seems to be to add the subdirectory as a prefix, such as: OurLib.Forms.SomeForm.resources where Forms is the subdir of our project that the .resx file lives. This only occurs when the .resx file is in an immediate subdirectory of the project being built. If a .resx file exists somewhere else on disk (aka ..\OtherLib\Forms\SomeForm2.resx) this prefix is NOT added. This is causing an issue with loading form resources, as it does not account for this possible prefix, even though we are using the standard Forms Designer method of getting at resources: System::ComponentModel::ComponentResourceManager^ resources = (gcnew System::ComponentModel::ComponentResourceManager(SomeForm::typeid)); and do not specify the .resources file by name. The issue I've just described may not be the same as the original question, but if I were to fix the Resource Logical Name issue I think this would all go away. Does anyone have any information about these % macros and where they are allowed to be used?

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  • copy entire row (without knowing field names)

    - by Todd Webb
    Using SQL Server 2008, I would like to duplicate one row of a table, without knowing the field names. My key issue: as the table grows and mutates over time, I would like this copy-script to keep working, without me having to write out 30+ ever-changing fields, ugh. Also at issue, of course, is IDENTITY fields cannot be copied. My code below does work, but I wonder if there's a more appropriate method than my thrown-together text string SQL statement? So thank you in advance. Here's my (yes, working) code - I welcome suggestions on improving it. Todd alter procedure spEventCopy @EventID int as begin -- VARS... declare @SQL varchar(8000) -- LIST ALL FIELDS (*EXCLUDE* IDENTITY FIELDS). -- USE [BRACKETS] FOR ANY SILLY FIELD-NAMES WITH SPACES, OR RESERVED WORDS... select @SQL = coalesce(@SQL + ', ', '') + '[' + column_name + ']' from INFORMATION_SCHEMA.COLUMNS where TABLE_NAME = 'EventsTable' and COLUMNPROPERTY(OBJECT_ID('EventsTable'), COLUMN_NAME, 'IsIdentity') = 0 -- FINISH SQL COPY STATEMENT... set @SQL = 'insert into EventsTable ' + ' select ' + @SQL + ' from EventsTable ' + ' where EventID = ' + ltrim(str(@EventID)) -- COPY ROW... exec(@SQL) -- REMEMBER NEW ID... set @EventID = @@IDENTITY -- (do other stuff here) -- DONE... -- JUST FOR KICKS, RETURN THE SQL STATEMENT SO I CAN REVIEW IT IF I WISH... select EventID = @EventID, SQL = @SQL end

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  • Non distinct Unique ID in MySQL database table.

    - by Geoff
    First of, a simplified version: I am wondering if I can create a trigger to activate during INSERT (it's actually LOAD DATA INFILE) and NOT enter records for an RMA already in my table? I have a table that has no records that are unique. Some may be duplicates but there is one field that I can use to know if the data has been entered or not. For instance RMA Op Days --------------------- 213 Repair 0.10 213 Test 0.20 213 Repair 0.10 So I could do an index on the three columns together but as you see it's possible for an RMA to be in a step for the same amount of time twice so it's possible to have duplicate records. This data comes from a report that I cannot edit and this is all it provides. The key is that an RMA's data is only in the report once so if my database already has that RMA in it's records I want to skip the loading of that RMA's records from the report. By all means please let me know if that didn't make sense, I'll Explain as needed. I'm sure it's not uncommon but I couldn't find anything on the net.

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  • Using the Search API with Sharepoint Foundation 2010 - 0 results

    - by MB
    I am a sharepoint newbee and am having trouble getting any search results to return using the search API in Sharepoint 2010 Foundation. Here are the steps I have taken so far. The Service Sharepoint Foundation Search v4 is running and logged in as Local Service Under Team Site - Site Settings - Search and Offline Availability, Indexing Site Content is enabled. Running the PowerShell script Get-SPSearchServiceInstance returns TypeName : SharePoint Foundation Search Description : Search index file on the search server Id : 91e01ce1-016e-44e0-a938-035d37613b70 Server : SPServer Name=V-SP2010 Service : SPSearchService Name=SPSearch4 IndexLocation : C:\Program Files\Common Files\Microsoft Shared\Web Server Exten sions\14\Data\Applications ProxyType : Default Status : Online When I do a search using the search textbox on the team site I get a results as I would expect. Now, when I try to duplicate the search results using the Search API I either receive an error or 0 results. Here is some sample code: using Microsoft.SharePoint.Search.Query; using (var site = new SPSite(_sharepointUrl, token)) { // FullTextSqlQuery fullTextSqlQuery = new FullTextSqlQuery(site) { QueryText = String.Format("SELECT Title, SiteName, Path FROM Scope() WHERE \"scope\"='All Sites' AND CONTAINS('\"{0}\"')", searchPhrase), //QueryText = String.Format("SELECT Title, SiteName, Path FROM Scope()", searchPhrase), TrimDuplicates = true, StartRow = 0, RowLimit = 200, ResultTypes = ResultType.RelevantResults //IgnoreAllNoiseQuery = false }; ResultTableCollection resultTableCollection = fullTextSqlQuery.Execute(); ResultTable result = resultTableCollection[ResultType.RelevantResults]; DataTable tbl = new DataTable(); tbl.Load(result, LoadOption.OverwriteChanges); } When the scope is set to All Sites I retrieve an error about the search scope not being available. Other search just return 0 results. Any ideas about what I am doing wrong?

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  • Retrieve property from classpath inside POM

    - by Jeroen
    For my current project I want to integrate a maven plug-in for database migrations. For this plug-in to work, however, I have to obtain the database settings inside my POM. My database settings are currently placed inside a hibernate.properties file, positioned in a directory that is marked as maven resource. For a variety of reasons I do not want to duplicate my database configurations in both the pom and hibernate.properties. I'm aware that maven offers a "filtering" ability which makes it possible to specify the database settings as property inside my POM, and reference them inside my hibernate.properties as ${property_name}. But as I'm using multiple maven profiles, with different property resources, this is not a suitable solution. Instead I'd like my database configurations to be loaded from a property file inside my classpath (e.g. classpath:hibernate.properties), and use these properties in my migration plug-in configuration. I have already tried the org.codehaus.mojo » properties-maven-plugin, but this plug-in only accepts absolute locations. Is there a plug-in which can scan all my maven resources for a certain property?

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  • Problems with ASP.NET, machine-level web.config, and the location element

    - by Daniel Schaffer
    I've got a server running Windows Web Server 2008 R2. The machine-level web.config has the following entries: <location path="Preview"> <appSettings> <add key="Environment" value="Preview" /> </appSettings> </location> <location path="Staging"> <appSettings> <add key="Environment" value="Staging" /> </appSettings> </location> <location path="Production"> <appSettings> <add key="Environment" value="Production" /> </appSettings> </location> I have a website that I'd set up in the direction D:\Sites\Preview\, so the full path would be D:\Sites\Preview\WebSite1. If I put a simple aspx file that just outputs the value of ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["Environment"], it displays the value Preview. I'm not clear on exactly how that works, but it does. I'd set this up several weeks ago, and just now tried to duplicate this - I put a second site in the D:\Sites\Preview\ directory, expecting that it would automatically pick up the appropriate appSettings entries, but for some reason it hasn't - the same aspx page doesn't show anything. Additionally, when I go into the IIS manager and open the Configuration Editor, there are no settings in there, whereas there are settings listed for the first site. Any ideas as to what I could be missing? Is the location element intended to work like this, or did I just find some magical fluke with my first site?

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  • Assembly unavailable after Web.config change

    - by tags2k
    I'm using a custom framework that uses reflection to do a GetTypeByName(string fullName) on the fully-qualified type name that it gets from the database, to create an instance of said type and add it to the page, resulting in a standard modular kind of thing. GetTypeByName is a utility function of mine that simply iterates through Thread.GetDomain().GetAssemblies(), then performs an assembly.GetType(fullName) to find the relevant type. Obviously this result gets cached for future reference and speed. However, I'm experiencing some issues whereby if the web.config gets updated (and, in some scarier instances if the application pool gets recycled) then it will lose all knowledge of certain assemblies, resulting in the inability to render an instance of the module type. Debugging shows that the missing assembly literally does not exist in the current thread assemblies list. To get around this I added a second check which is a bit dirty but recurses through the /bin/ directory's DLLs and checks that each one exists in the assemblies list. If it doesn't, it loads it using Assembly.Load and fixing the context issue thanks to 'Solving the Assembly Load Context Problem'. This would work, only it seems that (and I'm aware this shouldn't be possible) some projects still have access to the missing assembly, for example my actual web project rather than the framework itself - and it then complains that duplicate references have been added! Has anyone ever heard of anything like this, or have any ideas why an assembly would simply drop out of existence on a config change? Short of a solution, what is the most elegant workaround to get all the assemblies in the bin to reload? It needs to be all in one "hit" so that the site visitors don't see any difference other than a small delay, so an app_offline.htm file is out of the question. Programatically renaming a DLL in the bin and then naming it back does work, but requires "modify" permissions for the IIS user account, which is insane. Thanks for any pointers the community can gather!

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  • How to insert records in master/detail relationship

    - by croceldon
    I have two tables: OutputPackages (master) |PackageID| OutputItems (detail) |ItemID|PackageID| OutputItems has an index called 'idxPackage' set on the PackageID column. ItemID is set to auto increment. Here's the code I'm using to insert masters/details into these tables: //fill packages table for i := 1 to 10 do begin Package := TfPackage(dlgSummary.fcPackageForms.Forms[i]); if Package.PackageLoaded then begin with tblOutputPackages do begin Insert; FieldByName('PackageID').AsInteger := Package.ourNum; FieldByName('Description').AsString := Package.Title; FieldByName('Total').AsCurrency := Package.Total; Post; end; //fill items table for ii := 1 to 10 do begin Item := TfPackagedItemEdit(Package.fc.Forms[ii]); if Item.Activated then begin with tblOutputItems do begin Append; FieldByName('PackageID').AsInteger := Package.ourNum; FieldByName('Description').AsString := Item.Description; FieldByName('Comment').AsString := Item.Comment; FieldByName('Price').AsCurrency := Item.Price; Post; //this causes the primary key exception end; end; end; end; This works fine as long as I don't mess with the MasterSource/MasterFields properties in the IDE. But once I set it, and run this code I get an error that says I've got a duplicate primary key 'ItemID'. I'm not sure what's going on - this is my first foray into master/detail, so something may be setup wrong. I'm using ComponentAce's Absolute Database for this project. How can I get this to insert properly? Update Ok, I removed the primary key restraint in my db, and I see that for some reason, the autoincrement feature of the OutputItems table isn't working like I expected. Here's how the OutputItems table looks after running the above code: ItemID|PackageID| 1 |1 | 1 |1 | 2 |2 | 2 |2 | I still don't see why all the ItemID values aren't unique.... Any ideas?

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  • Replacing accented/umlauted characters with their unadorned counterparts in C# [closed]

    - by Andrew Rollings
    Duplicate of 249087 I have a bunch of user generated addresses that may contain characters with diacritic marks. What is the most effective (i.e. generic) way (apart from a straightforward replace) to automatically convert any such characters to their closest English equivalent? E.g. any of àâãäå would become a æ would become the two separate letters ae ç would become c any of èéêë would become e etc. for all possible letter variations (preferably without having to find and encode lookups for each diacritic form of the letter). (Note: I have to pass these addresses on to third party software that is incapable of printing anything other than English characters. I'd rather the software was capable of handling them, but I have no control over that.) EDIT: Never mind... Found the answer [here][2]. It showed up in the "Related" section to the right of the question after I posted, but not in my prior search or as a pre-post suggestion. Hmm. I added the 'diacritics' tag to the other question in any case. EDIT 2: Jeez! Who voted this -1 after I closed it?

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  • need help building a stored procedure that takes rows from one table into another.

    - by MyHeadHurts
    alright i built this stored procedure to take the columns from a stagging table and copy them into my other table, but if these four columns are duplicates it wont insert the rows, works fine. however, what i want to do is if only the tour, taskname and deptdate are the same, then i will update the rest of the information. and if all four columns are the same dont instert. INSERT INTO dashboardtasks1 SELECT [tour], [taskname], [deptdate], [tasktype], [desc], [duedate], [compdate], [comments], [agent], [compby], [graceperiod] FROM staggingtasks WHERE NOT EXISTS(SELECT * FROM dashboardtasks1 WHERE (staggingtasks.tour=dashboardtasks1.tour and staggingtasks.taskname=dashboardtasks1.taskname and staggingtasks.deptdate=dashboardtasks1.deptdate and staggingtasks.duedate=dashboardtasks1.duedate ) ) i saw something like this INSERT INTO table (a,b,c) VALUES (1,2,3) ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE c=c+1; UPDATE table SET c=c+1 WHERE a=1; but how could i do it if my stated 3 columns are the samed then update? or is there a way to do this with an if statement and use 2 different queries, but how would my if statement work would it check if the row exists in the table i am uploading to and then run the insert statement? or what if i did something like IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM dashboardtasks WHERE staggingtasks.tour=dashboardtasks.tour and staggingtasks.taskname=dashboardtasks.taskname and staggingtasks.deptdate=dashboardtasks.deptdate ) begin UPDATE [dashboardtasks] SET [tour] = staggingtasks.tour, [taskname] = staggingtasks.taskname, [deptdate] = staggingtasks.deptdate, [tasktype] = staggingtasks.tasktype, [desc] = staggingtasks.desc, [duedate] = staggingtasks.duedate, [compdate] = staggingtasks.compdate, [comments] = staggingtasks.comments, [agent] = staggingtasks.agent, [compby] = staggingtasks.compby, [graceperiod] = staggingtasks.graceperiod end else EXISTS (SELECT * FROM dashboardtasks WHERE staggingtasks.tour=dashboardtasks.tour and staggingtasks.taskname=dashboardtasks.taskname and staggingtasks.deptdate=dashboardtasks.deptdate and staggingtasks.duedate=dashboardtasks.duedate ) begin INSERT INTO dashboardtasks1 SELECT [tour], [taskname], [deptdate], [tasktype], [desc], [duedate], [compdate], [comments], [agent], [compby], [graceperiod] FROM staggingtasks WHERE NOT EXISTS(SELECT * FROM dashboardtasks1 WHERE (staggingtasks.tour=dashboardtasks1.tour and staggingtasks.taskname=dashboardtasks1.taskname and staggingtasks.deptdate=dashboardtasks1.deptdate and staggingtasks.duedate=dashboardtasks1.duedate ) ) end end

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  • Programmtically choosing image conversion format to JPEG or PNG for Silverlight display

    - by Otaku
    I have a project where I need to convert a large number of image types to be displayable in a Silverlight app - TIFF, GIF, WMF, EMF, BMP, DIB, etc. I can do these conversions on the server before hydrating the Silverlight app. However, I'm not sure when I should choose to convert to which format, either JPG or PNG. Is there some kind of standard out there like TIFF should always be a JPEG and GIF should always be a PNG. Or, if a BMP is 24 bit, it should be converted to a JPEG - any lower and it can be a PNG. Or everything is a PNG and why? What I usually see or see in response to this type of question is "Well, if the picture is a photograph, go with JPEG" or "If it has straight lines, PNG is better." Unfortunately, I won't have the luxury of viewing any of the image files at all and would like just a standard way to do this via code, even if that is a zillion if/then statements. Are there any standards or best practices around this subject? P.S. Please don't move to close this subject - it actually has no duplicate on SO because I'm not looking for subjectivity.

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  • How to replace custom IDs in the order of their appearance with a shell script?

    - by Péter Török
    I have a pair of rather large log files with very similar content, except that some identifiers are different between the two. A couple of examples: UnifiedClassLoader3@19518cc | UnifiedClassLoader3@d0357a JBossRMIClassLoader@13c2d7f | JBossRMIClassLoader@191777e That is, wherever the first file contains UnifiedClassLoader3@19518cc, the second contains UnifiedClassLoader3@d0357a, and so on. I want to replace these with identical IDs so that I can spot the really important differences between the two files. I.e. I want to replace all occurrences of both UnifiedClassLoader3@19518cc in file1 and UnifiedClassLoader3@d0357a in file2 with UnifiedClassLoader3@1; all occurrences of both JBossRMIClassLoader@13c2d7f in file1 and JBossRMIClassLoader@191777e in file2 with JBossRMIClassLoader@2 etc. Using the Cygwin shell, so far I managed to list all different identifiers occurring in one of the files with grep -o -e 'ClassLoader[0-9]*@[0-9a-f][0-9a-f]*' file1.log | sort | uniq However, now the original order is lost, so I don't know which is the pair of which ID in the other file. With grep -n I can get the line number, so the sort would preserve the order of appearance, but then I can't weed out the duplicate occurrences. Unfortunately grep can not print only the first match of a pattern. I figured I could save the list of identifiers produced by the above command into a file, then iterate over the patterns in the file with grep -n | head -n 1, concatenate the results and sort them again. The result would be something like 2 ClassLoader3@19518cc 137 ClassLoader@13c2d7f 563 ClassLoader3@1267649 ... Then I could (either manually or with sed itself) massage this into a sed command like sed -e 's/ClassLoader3@19518cc/ClassLoader3@2/g' -e 's/ClassLoader@13c2d7f/ClassLoader@137/g' -e 's/ClassLoader3@1267649/ClassLoader3@563/g' file1.log > file1_processed.log and similarly for file2. However, before I start, I would like to verify that my plan is the simplest possible working solution to this. Is there any flaw in this approach? Is there a simpler way?

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  • acts_as_xapian jobs table

    - by Grnbeagle
    Hi, Can someone explain to me the inner workings of acts_as_xapian_jobs table? I ran into an issue with the acts_as_xapian plugin recently, where I kept getting the following error when it creates an object with xapian indexed fields: Mysql::Error: Duplicate entry 'String-2147483647' for key 2: INSERT INTO `acts_as_xapian_jobs` (`action`, `model`, `model_id`) VALUES ('update', 'String', 23730251831560) It turns out the model_id exceeded the max int value of 2147483647. The workaround was to update model_id to use bigint. Why would the model_id be so huge? By looking at content of acts_as_xapian_jobs, it seems it creates a row for every field that is being indexed.. Understanding how a job gets created in the table would help a great deal. Here's a sampling of the table: mysql> select * from acts_as_xapian_jobs limit 5\G *************************** 1. row *************************** id: 19 model: String model_id: 23804037900560 action: update *************************** 2. row *************************** id: 49 model: String model_id: 23804037191200 action: update *************************** 3. row *************************** id: 79 model: String model_id: 23804037932180 action: update *************************** 4. row *************************** id: 109 model: String model_id: 23804037101700 action: update *************************** 5. row *************************** id: 139 model: String model_id: 23804037722160 action: update Thanks in advance, Amie

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  • ActiveRecord exceptions not rescued

    - by zoopzoop
    I have the following code block: unless User.exist?(...) begin user = User.new(...) # Set more attributes of user user.save! rescue ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid, ActiveRecord::RecordNotUnique => e # Check if that user was created in the meantime user = User.exists?(...) raise e if user.nil? end end The reason is, as you can probably guess, that multiple processes might call this method at the same time to create the user (if it doesn't already exist), so while the first one enters the block and starts initializing a new user, setting the attributes and finally calling save!, the user might already be created. In that case I want to check again if the user exists and only raise the exception if it still doesn't (= if no other process has created it in the meantime). The problem is, that regularly ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid exceptions are raised from the save! and not rescued from the rescue block. Any ideas? EDIT: Alright, this is weird. I must be missing something. I refactored the code according to Simone's tip to look like this: unless User.find_by_email(...).present? # Here we know the user does not exist yet user = User.new(...) # Set more attributes of user unless user.save # User could not be saved for some reason, maybe created by another request? raise StandardError, "Could not create user for order #{self.id}." unless User.exists?(:email => ...) end end Now I got the following exception: ActiveRecord::RecordNotUnique: Mysql::DupEntry: Duplicate entry '[email protected]' for key 'index_users_on_email': INSERT INTO `users` ... thrown in the line where it says 'unless user.save'. How can that be? Rails thinks the user can be created because the email is unique but then the Mysql unique index prevents the insert? How likely is that? And how can it be avoided?

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  • SEO redirects for removed pages

    - by adam
    Hi, Apologies if SO is not the right place for this, but there are 700+ other SEO questions on here. I'm a senior developer for a travel site with 12k+ pages. We completely redeveloped the site and relaunched in January, and with the volatile nature of travel, there are many pages which are no longer on the site. Examples: /destinations/africa/senegal.aspx /destinations/africa/features.aspx Of course, we have a 404 page in place (and it's a hard 404 page rather than a 30x redirect to a 404). Our SEO advisor has asked us to 30x redirect all our 404 pages (as found in Webmaster Tools), his argument being that 404's are damaging to our pagerank. He'd want us to redirect our Senegal and features pages above to the Africa page (which doesn't contain the content previously found on Senegal.aspx or features.aspx). An equivalent for SO would be taking a url for a removed question and redirecting it to /questions rather than showing a 404 'Question/Page not found'. My argument is that, as these pages are no longer on the site, 404 is the correct status to return. I'd also argue that redirecting these to less relevant pages could damage our SEO (due to duplicate content perhaps)? It's also very time consuming redirecting all 404's when our site takes some content from our in-house system, which adds/removes content at will. Thanks for any advice, Adam

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  • Need help coming up with a better HtmlHelper Extension method.

    - by zSysop
    Hi all, I've inherited the following code and i was wondering if i could pick at your brains to see if there's a nicer way to do duplicate this. Heres the html for most of our partial input views <% if (Html.IsInputReadOnly()) { %> <td> Id </td> <td> <%= Html.TextBox( "Id" , (Model == null ? null : Model.Id) , new { @readonly = "readonly", @disabled="disabled" } )%> <% } elseif (Html.IsInputDisplayable() == false) { %> <td></td> <td></td> <% } else { %> <td>Id</td> <td><%= Html.TextBox("Id")%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("Id", "*")%> </td> <%} %> Here are my entension methods public static bool IsInputReadOnly(this HtmlHelper helper) { string actionName = ActionName(helper); // The Textbox should be read only on all pages except for the lookup page if (actionName.ToUpper().CompareTo("EDIT") == 0) return true; return false; } public static bool IsInputDisplayable(this HtmlHelper helper) { string actionName = ActionName(helper); // The Textbox should be read only on all pages except for the lookup page if (actionName.ToUpper().CompareTo("CREATE") == 0) return true; return false; } Thanks in advance

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  • Recommended approach to port to ASP.NET MVC

    - by tshao
    I think many of us used to face the same question, what's the best practices to port existing web forms App to MVC. The situation for me is that we'll support both web forms and MVC at the same time. It means, we create new features in MVC, while maintaining legacy pages in web forms, and they're all in a same project. The point is: we want to keep the DRY (do not repeat yourself) principle and reduce duplicate code as much as possible. The ASPX page is not a problem as we only create new features in MVC, but there're still some shared components we want to re-use the both new / legacy pages: Master page UserControl The question here is: Is that possible to create a common master page / usercontrol that could be used in both web forms and MVC? I know that ViewMasterPage inherits from MasterPage and ViewUserControl inherits from UserControl, so it's maybe OK to let both web forms and MVC ASPX page refer to the MVC version. I did some testing and found sometimes it generates errors during the rendering of usercontrols. Any idea / experience you can share with me? Very appreciate to it.

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  • Multiple Concurrent Postbacks when using UpdatePanels

    - by d4nt
    Here's an example app that I built to demonstrate my problem. A single aspx page with the following on it: <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:ScriptManager runat="server" /> <asp:Button runat="server" ID="btnGo" Text="Go" OnClick="btnGo_Click" /> <asp:UpdatePanel runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:TextBox runat="server" ID="txtVal1" /> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </form> Then, in code behind, we have the following: protected void btnGo_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Thread.Sleep(5000); Debug.WriteLine(string.Format("{0}: {1}", DateTime.Now.ToString("HH:MM:ss.fffffff"), txtVal1.Text)); txtVal1.Text = ""; } If you run this and click on the "Go" button multiple times you will see multiple debug statements on the "Output" window showing that multiple requests have been processed. This appears to contradict the documented behaviour of update panels (i.e. If you make a request while one is processing, the first requests gets terminated and the current one is processed). Anyway, the point is I want to fix it. The obvious option would be to use Javascript to disable the button after the first press, but that strikes me as hard to maintain, we potentially have the same issue on a lot of screens it could be easily broken if someone renames a button. Do you have any suggestions? Perhaps there is something I could do in BeginRequest in Global.asax to detect a duplicate request? Is there some setting or feature on the UpdatePanel to stop it doing this, or maybe something in the AjaxControlToolkit that will prevent it?

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  • Collapsing data frame by selecing one row per group

    - by jkebinger
    I'm trying to collapse a data frame by removing all but one row from each group of rows with identical values in a particular column. In other words, the first row from each group. For example, I'd like to convert this > d = data.frame(x=c(1,1,2,4),y=c(10,11,12,13),z=c(20,19,18,17)) > d x y z 1 1 10 20 2 1 11 19 3 2 12 18 4 4 13 17 Into this: x y z 1 1 11 19 2 2 12 18 3 4 13 17 I'm using aggregate to do this currently, but the performance is unacceptable with more data: > d.ordered = d[order(-d$y),] > aggregate(d.ordered,by=list(key=d.ordered$x),FUN=function(x){x[1]}) I've tried split/unsplit with the same function argument as here, but unsplit complains about duplicate row numbers. Is rle a possibility? Is there an R idiom to convert rle's length vector into the indices of the rows that start each run, which I can then use to pluck those rows out of the data frame?

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  • Section or group name 'cachingConfiguration' is already defined - but where?

    - by Richard Ev
    On Windows XP I am working on a .NET 3.5 web app that's a combination of WebForms and MVC2 (The WebForms parts are legacy, and being migrated to MVC). When I run this from VS2008 using the ASP.NET web server everything works as expected. However, when I host the app in IIS and try to use it, I see the following error Section or group name 'cachingConfiguration' is already defined. Updates to this may only occur at the configuration level where it is defined. Source Error: Line 24: </sectionGroup> Line 25: <section name="log4net" type="log4net.Config.Log4NetConfigurationSectionHandler, log4net"/> Line 26: <section name="cachingConfiguration" type="Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Caching.Configuration.CacheManagerSettings,Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Caching, Version=4.1.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35" /> Line 27: </configSections> Line 28: Sure enough, if I remove the offending line (line 26 in the error message) from my web.config then the app runs correctly. However, I really need to find out where the duplicate definition of this is. It's nowhere in my solution. Where else could it be?

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  • How to register application for existing file types using WiX installer?

    - by Marek
    related to this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/138550/how-to-register-file-types-extensions-with-a-wix-installer but not a duplicate. I need to handle existing file types (.jpg files). I do not want to be the default handler for .jpg, I would just like to extend the "Open with" menu with a link to my app. I see HKCR\.jpg\OpenWithList\ and HKCR\.jpg\OpenWithProgIds\ in the registry but I am not sure whether to write to these and how to do it correctly with WiX. Should I use something like this? <ProgId Id='??what here?' Description='Jpeg handled by my App'> <Extension Id='jpg' ContentType='image/jpeg'> <Verb Id='openwithmyapp' Sequence='10' Command='OpenWithMyApp' Target='[!FileId]' Argument='"%1"' /> </Extension> </ProgId> There are many ways how to fail here (like Photo Mechanics did, the HKCR for image file types is a real mess after I have installed this software) How to do this correctly with WiX?

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  • Prevent comment form re-submission

    - by Rob
    I'm got a comment form for an article and i'd to prevent re-submission. I notice that Worpdress handles this very well (going back doesn't cause the browser to request a form re-submission), but I can't figure out how they do it, even though our methods are very similar. My Script User visits mydomain.com/article/1/article_title.html Fills in a form which posts to mydomain.com/addnewcomment/1.html I then do a 302 redirect back to mydomain.com/article/1/article_title.html Now if I press back from this position it doesn't request a redirect. However, if I go to another page e.g. mydomain.com/tag/1/my_tag.html and press back it does resubmit the form. Obviously I want to prevent this. What Wordpress does User visits mydomain.com/?p=1 Fills in a form which posts to mydomain.com/wp-comments-post.php This then does a 302 redirect back to mydomain.com/?p=1 Pressing back or visiting another page and pressing back doesn't cause a re-submission. I've had a look through the WP code but I can't see how they manage this. Obviously it's something i'd like to achieve. Does anyone have any thoughts on where I may be going wrong? (I'm only using Wordpress as an example to prove that it's possible, obviously i'm not trying to exactly duplicate WP, that would be pointless)

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