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• Better way to catch trouble points

  - by mac

  User submits a CSV file which is consumed by a program. Values which are used throughout the program come from the CSV, natually if values are missed it is a problem. Below is my solution. Ip on top private List<String> currentFieldName = new ArrayList<String>(); As part of the method: try { setCurrentFieldName("Trim Space"); p.setTrimSpace(currentLineArray[dc.getTRIM_POSITION()].equals("yes") ? true : false); setCurrentFieldName("Ignore Case"); p.setIgnoreCase(currentLineArray[dc.getIGNORE_CASE_POSITION()].equals("yes") ? true : false); } catch (NullPointerException e) { throw new InputSpreadsheetValueUnassignedException("\"Type\" field not set: " + currentFieldName); } And the method which keeps track of a current field being looked at: private void setCurrentFieldName(String fieldName) { currentFieldName.clear(); currentFieldName.add(fieldName); } The idea there is that if user fails to submit value and i will end up getting null, before throwing an exception, i will know what value was not assigned. So, this being said, specific questions: Is what i have shown below an acceptable solution? Can you suggest something more elegant?

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• How can this Ambient Context become null?

  - by Mark Seemann

  Can anyone help me explain how TimeProvider.Current can become null in the following class? public abstract class TimeProvider { private static TimeProvider current = DefaultTimeProvider.Instance; public static TimeProvider Current { get { return TimeProvider.current; } set { if (value == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("value"); } TimeProvider.current = value; } } public abstract DateTime UtcNow { get; } public static void ResetToDefault() { TimeProvider.current = DefaultTimeProvider.Instance; } } Observations All unit tests that directly reference TimeProvider also invokes ResetToDefault() in their Fixture Teardown. There is no multithreaded code involved. Once in a while, one of the unit tests fail because TimeProvider.Current is null (NullReferenceException is thrown). This only happens when I run the entire suite, but not when I just run a single unit test, suggesting to me that there is some subtle test interdependence going on. It happens approximately once every five or six test runs. When a failure occurs, it seems to be occuring in the first executed tests that involves TimeProvider.Current. More than one test can fail, but only one fails in a given test run. FWIW, here's the DefaultTimeProvider class as well: public class DefaultTimeProvider : TimeProvider { private readonly static DefaultTimeProvider instance = new DefaultTimeProvider(); private DefaultTimeProvider() { } public override DateTime UtcNow { get { return DateTime.UtcNow; } } public static DefaultTimeProvider Instance { get { return DefaultTimeProvider.instance; } } } I suspect that there's some subtle interplay going on with static initialization where the runtime is actually allowed to access TimeProvider.Current before all static initialization has finished, but I can't quite put my finger on it. Any help is appreciated.

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• BackgroundWorker acting bizarrely...

  - by vdh_ant

  Hi guys I'm working on some code that calls a service. This service call could fail and if it does I want the system to try again until it works or too much time has passed. I am wondering where I am going wrong as the following code doesn't seem to be working correctly... It randomly only does one to four loops... protected virtual void ProcessAsync(object data, int count) { var worker = new BackgroundWorker(); worker.DoWork += (sender, e) => { throw new InvalidOperationException("oh shiznit!"); }; worker.RunWorkerCompleted += (sender, e) => { //If an error occurs we need to tell the data about it if (e.Error != null) { count++; System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(count * 5000); if (count <= 10) { if (count % 5 == 0) this.Logger.Fatal("LOAD ERROR - The system can't load any data", e.Error); else this.Logger.Error("LOAD ERROR - The system can't load any data", e.Error); this.ProcessAsync(data, count); } } }; worker.RunWorkerAsync(); } Cheers Anthony

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• Convert C# (with typed events) to VB.NET

  - by Steven

  I have an ASPX page (with VB Codebehind). I would like to extend the GridView class to show the header / footer when no rows are returned. I found a C# example online (link) (source). However, I cannot convert it to VB because it uses typed events (which are not legal in VB). I have tried several free C# to VB.NET converters online, but none have worked. Please convert the example to VB.NET or provide an alternate method of extending the GridView class. Notes / Difficulties: If you get an error with DataView objects, specify the type as System.Data.DataView and the type comparison could be the following: If data.[GetType]() Is GetType(System.Data.DataView) Then Since the event MustAddARow cannot have a type in VB (and RaiseEvent event doesn't have a return value), how can I compare it to Nothing in the function OnMustAddARow()? EDIT: The following is a sample with (hopefully) relevant code to help answer the question. namespace AlwaysShowHeaderFooter { public delegate IEnumerable MustAddARowHandler(IEnumerable data); public class GridViewAlwaysShow : GridView { ////////////////////////////////////// // Various member functions omitted // ////////////////////////////////////// protected IEnumerable OnMustAddARow(IEnumerable data) { if (MustAddARow == null) { throw new NullReferenceException("The datasource has no rows. You must handle the \"MustAddARow\" Event."); } return MustAddARow(data); } public event MustAddARowHandler MustAddARow; } }

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• Does Spring MVC form submit data bind children objects automagically?

  - by predhme

  I have a data model that is something like this: public class Report { // report owner private User user; ... typical getter setter ... } public class User { ... omitted for clarity } What happens is when a report is created, the current user is set to the report user object. When the report is edited, the spring controller handling the POST request is receiving a report where the user object is null. Here is what my controller looks like: @Controller @RequestMapping("/report") public class ReportController { @RequestMapping(value = "/edit/{id}", method = RequestMethod.GET) public String editReport(@PathVariable Long id, Model model) { Report r = backend.getReport(id); // fully loads object model.addAttribute("report", report); return "report/edit"; } @RequestMapping(value = "/edit/{id}", method = RequestMethod.POST) public String process(@ModelAttribute("report") Report r) { backend.save(r); return "redirect:/report/show" + r.getId(); } } I ran things throw the debugger and it looks like in the editReport method the model object is storing the fully loaded report object (I can see the user inside the report). On the form jsp I can do the following: ${report.user.username} and the correct result is rendered. However, when I look at the debugger in the process method, the passed in Report r has a null user. I don't need to do any special data binding to ensure that information is retained do I?

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• saving mySql row checkpoint in table ?

  - by Keet

  hello, I am having a wee problem, and I am sure there is a more convenient/simpler way to achieve the solution, but all searches are throw in up a blanks at the moment ! I have a mysql db that is regularly updated by php page [ via a cron job ] this adds or deletes entries as appropriate. My issue is that I also need to check if any details [ie the phone number or similar] for the entry have changed, but doing this at every call is not possible [ not only does is seem to me to be overkill, but I am restricted by a 3rd party api call limit] Plus this is not critical info. So I was thinking it might be best to just check one entry per page call, and iterate through the rows/entires with each successive page call. What would be the best way of doing this, ie keeping track of which entry/row in the table that the should be checked next? I have 2 ideas of how to implement this: 1 ) The id of current row could be save to a file on the server [ surely not the best way] 2) an extra boolean field [check] is add to the table, set to True on the first entry and false to all other. Then on each page call it; finds 'where check = TRUE' runs the update check on this row, 'set check = FALSE' 'set [the next row] check = TRUE' Si this the best way to do this, or does anyone have any better sugestion ? thanks in advance ! .k PS sorry about the title

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• junit test error - ClassCastException

  - by Josepth Vodary

  When trying to run a junit test I get the following error - java.lang.ClassCastException: business.Factory cannot be cast to services.itemservice.IItemsService at business.ItemManager.get(ItemManager.java:56) at business.ItemMgrTest.testGet(ItemMgrTest.java:49) The specific test that is causing the problem is @Test public void testGet() { Assert.assertTrue(itemmgr.get(items)); } The code it is testing is... public boolean get(Items item) { boolean gotItems = false; Factory factory = Factory.getInstance(); @SuppressWarnings("static-access") IItemsService getItem = (IItemsService)factory.getInstance(); try { getItem.getItems("pens", 15, "red", "gel"); gotItems = true; } catch (ItemNotFoundException e) { // catch e.printStackTrace(); System.out.println("Error - Item Not Found"); } return gotItems; } The test to store items, which is nearly identical, works just fine... The factory class is.. public class Factory { private Factory() {} private static Factory Factory = new Factory(); public static Factory getInstance() {return Factory;} public static IService getService(String serviceName) throws ServiceLoadException { try { Class<?> c = Class.forName(getImplName(serviceName)); return (IService)c.newInstance(); } catch (Exception e) { throw new ServiceLoadException(serviceName + "not loaded"); } } private static String getImplName (String serviceName) throws Exception { java.util.Properties props = new java.util.Properties(); java.io.FileInputStream fis = new java.io.FileInputStream("config\\application.properties"); props.load(fis); fis.close(); return props.getProperty(serviceName); } }

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• Stored Procedure, 'incorrect syntax error'

  - by jacksonSD

  Attempting to figure out sp's, and I'm getting this error: "Msg 156, Level 15, State 1, Line 5 Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'Procedure'." the error seems to be on the if, but I can drop other existing tables with stored procedures the exact same way so I'm not clear on why this isn't working. can anyone shed some light? Begin Set nocount on Begin Try Create Procedure uspRecycle as if OBJECT_ID('Recycle') is not null Drop Table Recycle create table Recycle (RecycleID integer constraint PK_integer primary key, RecycleType nchar(10) not null, RecycleDescription nvarchar(100) null) insert into Recycle (RecycleID,RecycleType,RecycleDescription) values ('1','Compost','Product is compostable, instructions included in packaging') insert into Recycle (RecycleID,RecycleType,RecycleDescription) values ('2','Return','Product is returnable to company for 100% reuse') insert into Recycle (RecycleID,RecycleType,RecycleDescription) values ('3','Scrap','Product is returnable and will be reclaimed and reprocessed') insert into Recycle (RecycleID,RecycleType,RecycleDescription) values ('4','None','Product is not recycleable') End Try Begin Catch DECLARE @ErrMsg nvarchar(4000); SELECT @ErrMsg = ERROR_MESSAGE(); Throw 50001, @ErrMsg, 1; End Catch -- checking to see if table exists and is loaded: If (Select count(*) from Recycle) >1 begin Print 'Recycle table created and loaded '; Print getdate() End set nocount off End

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• Controlling race condition at startup.

  - by Will Hartung

  I have some code that I want to have some one time initialisation performed. But this code doesn't have a definite lifecycle, so my logic can be potentially invoked by multiple threads before my initialisation is done. So, I want to basically ensure that my logic code "waits" until initialisation is done. This is my first cut. public class MyClass { private static final AtomicBoolean initialised = new AtomicBoolean(false); public void initialise() { synchronized(initialised) { initStuff(); initialised.getAndSet(true); initialised.notifyAll(); } } public void doStuff() { synchronized(initialised) { if (!initialised.get()) { try { initialised.wait(); } catch (InterruptedException ex) { throw new RuntimeException("Uh oh!", ex); } } } doOtherStuff(); } } I basically want to make sure this is going to do what I think it's going to do -- block doStuff until the initialised is true, and that I'm not missing a race condition where doStuff might get stuck on a Object.wait() that will never arrive. Edit: I have no control over the threads. And I want to be able to control when all of the initialisation is done, which is why doStuff() can't call initialise(). I used an AtomicBoolean as it was a combination of a value holder, and an object I could synchronize. I could have also simply had a "public static final Object lock = new Object();" and a simple boolean flag. AtomicBoolean conveniently gave me both. A Boolean can not be modified. The CountDownLatch is exactly what I was looking for. I also considered using a Sempahore with 0 permits. But the CountDownLatch is perfect for just this task.

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• Need help: input int from console and pass it into method in different class and do math

  - by christophe

  i'm a beginner, Need help, Please!!! I want to read optional number "a" from console and then store it in variable to use as passing to a different class (different .java file). and pint the sum separetely by optional inputting. How do i code the 2 classes? thanks /* * DemoApp.java */ public class DemoApp { public static void main(String[] args) { Scanner input = new Scanner(System.in); int a; System.out.println("Input one of the following 3 numbers: 100, 200, 300"); System.out.print("Enter: "); a = input.nextInt(); TestApplication testapp = new TestApplication(); testapp.test(a); } } /* * TestApplication.java * */ public class TestApplication { private int a; public void test(int a) { this.a = a; // TODO: where to get the "a"? (entered by users from console) System.out.println("The number_a was passed in: "+a); } protected void printNum() throws Exception { int num; switch (a) { case 100: num = num + 10; break; case 200: num = num + 20; break; case 300: num = num + 30; break; default: // TODO: unexpected number input. throw(); break; } System.out.println("I got a sum number"+num); } }

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• Placing and removing element on array trough object

  - by Chris

  Hello, Lets assume i have 2 methods 1 that places a element on the array and one that removes it. const int Max = 10; int[] table= new int[Max]; I would like to call it up like this: s1.Place(5); // 5 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 s1.Place(9); // 5 9 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 s1.Remove(9); // 5 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 I would only like to use : using system for this. The result i get right now when i run the program is s1 = "nameofprogram" "name of class object" Normally i should get 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 to begin with. Any ideas how i can exactly add or remove those elements on the array? public void Place(int g) { if (top == Max) { throw new Exception("Stack overflow..."); } else { table[top] = g; top++; } .... Best Regards.

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• WCF - Return object without serializing?

  - by Mayo

  One of my WCF functions returns an object that has a member variable of a type from another library that is beyond my control. I cannot decorate that library's classes. In fact, I cannot even use DataContractSurrogate because the library's classes have private member variables that are essential to operation (i.e. if I return the object without those private member variables, the public properties throw exceptions). If I say that interoperability for this particular method is not needed (at least until the owners of this library can revise to make their objects serializable), is it possible for me to use WCF to return this object such that it can at least be consumed by a .NET client? How do I go about doing that? Update: I am adding pseudo code below... // My code, I have control [DataContract] public class MyObject { private TheirObject theirObject; [DataMember] public int SomeNumber { get { return theirObject.SomeNumber; } // public property exposed private set { } } } // Their code, I have no control public class TheirObject { private TheirOtherObject theirOtherObject; public int SomeNumber { get { return theirOtherObject.SomeOtherProperty; } set { // ... } } } I've tried adding DataMember to my instance of their object, making it public, using a DataContractSurrogate, and even manually streaming the object. In all cases, I get some error that eventually leads back to their object not being explicitly serializable.

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• Is it an good idea to make a wrapper specifically for a DateTime that respresents Now?

  - by Dirk Boer

  I have been noticing lately that is really nice to use a DateTime representing 'now' as an input parameter for your methods, for mocking and testing purposes. Instead of every method calling DateTime.UtcNow themselves, I do it once in the upper methods and forward it on the lower ones. So a lot of methods that need a 'now', have an input parameter DateTime now. (I'm using MVC, and try to detect a parameter called now and modelbind DateTime.UtcNow to it) So instead of: public bool IsStarted { get { return StartTime >= DateTime.UtcNow; } } I usually have: public bool IsStarted(DateTime now) { return StartTime >= now; } So my convention is at the moment, if a method has a DateTime parameter called now, you have to feed it with the current time. Of course this comes down to convention, and someone else can easily just throw some other DateTime in there as a parameter. To make it more solid and static-typed I am thinking about wrapping DateTime in a new object, i.e. DateTimeNow. So in one of the most upper layers I will convert the DateTime to a DateTimeNow and we will get compile errors when, someone tries to fiddle in a normal DateTime. Of course you can still workaround this, but at least if feels more that you are doing something wrong at point. Did anyone else ever went into this path? Are there any good or bad results on the long term that I am not thinking about?

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• Processing data from an AJAX request

  - by Josh K

  I have a PHP API I'm working with that outputs everything as JSON. I need to call one of the API methods and parse it out using an AJAX request. I am using jQuery (though it shouldn't matter). When I make the request it errors out with a "parsererror" as the textStatus and a "Syntax Error: invalid label" when I make the request. Simplified code: $.ajax ({ type: "POST", url: "http://mydomain.com/api/get/userlist/"+mid, dataType: "json", dataFilter: function(data, type) { /* Here we assume and pray */ users = eval(data); alert(users[1].id); }, success: function(data, textStatus, XMLHttpRequest) { alert(data.length); // Should be an array, yet is undefined. }, error: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { alert(textStatus); alert(errorThrown); }, complete: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus) { alert("Done"); } }); If I leave off the eval(data) then everything works fine. Well, except for data still being undefined in success. Note that I'm taking an array of objects in PHP and then passing them out through json_encode. Would that make any difference? There has been no progress made on this. I'm willing to throw more code up if someone believes they can help. Here is the PHP side of things private function _get_user_colors($id) { $u = new User(); $u->get_where(array('id' => $id)); $bar = array(); $bar['user'] = $u->stored; foreach($user->colors as $color) { $bar['colors'][] = $color; } echo(json_encode($bar)); } I have had zero issues using this with other PHP based scripts. I don't know why Javascript would take issue with it.

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• Could this be considered a well-written class (am I using OOP correctly)?

  - by Ben Dauphinee

  I have been learning OOP principals on my own for a while, and taken a few cracks at writing classes. What I really need to know now is if I am actually using what I have learned correctly, or if I could improve as far as OOP is concerned. I have chopped a massive portion of code out of a class that I have been working on for a while now, and pasted it here. To all you skilled and knowledgeable programmers here I ask: Am I doing it wrong? class acl extends genericAPI{ // -- Copied from genericAPI class protected final function sanityCheck($what, $check, $vars){ switch($check){ case 'set': if(isset($vars[$what])){return(1);}else{return(0);} break; } } // --------------------------------- protected $db = null; protected $dataQuery = null; public function __construct(Zend_Db_Adapter_Abstract $db, $config = array()){ $this->db = $db; if(!empty($config)){$this->config = $config;} } protected function _buildQuery($selectType = null, $vars = array()){ // Removed switches for simplicity sake $this->dataQuery = $this->db->select( )->from( $this->config['table_users'], array('tf' => '(CASE WHEN count(*) > 0 THEN 1 ELSE 0 END)') )->where( $this->config['uidcol'] . ' = ?', $vars['uid'] ); } protected function _sanityRun_acl($sanitycheck, &$vars){ switch($sanitycheck){ case 'uid_set': if(!$this->sanityCheck('uid', 'set', $vars)){ throw new Exception(ERR_ACL_NOUID); } $vars['uid'] = settype($vars['uid'], 'integer'); break; } } private function user($action = null, $vars = array()){ switch($action){ case 'exists': $this->_sanityRun_acl('uid_set', $vars); $this->_buildQuery('user_exists_idcheck', $vars); return($this->db->fetchOne($this->dataQuery->__toString())); break; } } public function user_exists($uid){ return($this->user('exists', array('uid' => $uid))); } } $return = $acl_test->user_exists(1);

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• How can I [simply] consume JSON Data in a Line of Business Web Application

  - by Atomiton

  I usually use JSON with jQuery to just return a string with html. However, I want to start to use Javascript objects in my code. What's the simplest way to get started using json objects on my page? Here's a sample Ajax call ( after $(document).ready( { ... }) of course: $('#btn').click(function(event) { event.preventDefault(); var out = $('#result'); $.ajax({ url: "CustomerServices.asmx/GetCustomersByInvoiceCount", success: function(msg) { // // Iterate through the json results and spit them out to a page? // }, data: "{ 'invoiceCount' : 100 }" }); }); My WebMethod: [WebMethod(Description="Gets customers with more than n invoices")] public List<Customer> GetCustomersByInvoiceCount(int? invoiceCount) { using (dbDataContext db = new dbDataContext()) { return db.Customers.Where(c => c.InvoiceCount >= invoiceCount); } } What gets returned: {"d":[{"__type":"Customer","Account":"1116317","Name":"SOME COMPANY","Address":"UNit 1 , 392 JOHN ST. ","LastTransaction":"\/Date(1268294400000)\/","HighestBalance":13922.34},{"__type":"Customer","Account":"1116318","Name":"ANOTHER COMPANY","Address":"UNIT #345 , 392 JOHN ST. ","LastTransaction":"\/Date(1265097600000)\/","HighestBalance":549.42}]} What I'd LIKE to know, is what are people generally doing with this returned json? Do you iterate through the properties and create an html table on the fly? Is there way to "bind" JSON data using a javascript version of reflection ( something like the .Net GridView Control ) Do you throw this returned data into a Javascript Object and then do something with it? An example of what I want to achieve is to have an plain ol' html page ( on a mobile device )with a list of a Salesperson's Customers. When one of those customers are clicked, the customer id gets sent to a webservice which retrieves the customer details that are relevant to a sales person. I know the SO talent pool is quite deep so I figured you all here would be able to guide in the right direction and give me a few ideas on the best way to approach this.

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• C# Dictionary Loop Enhancment

  - by Toto

  Hi, I have a dictionary with around 1 milions items. I am constantly looping throw the dictionnary : public void DoAllJobs() { foreach (KeyValuePair<uint, BusinessObject> p in _dictionnary) { if(p.Value.MustDoJob) p.Value.DoJob(); } } The execution is a bit long, around 600 ms, I would like to deacrese it. Here is the contraints : MustDoJob values mostly stay the same beetween two calls to DoAllJobs() 60-70% of the MustDoJob values == false From time to times MustDoJob change for 200 000 pairs. Some p.Value.DoJob() can not be computed at the same time (COM object call) Here, I do not need the key part of the _dictionnary objet but I really do need it somewhere else I wanted to do the following : Parallelizes but I am not sure is going to be effective due to 4. Sorts the dictionnary since 1. and 2. (and stop want I find the first MustDoJob == false) but I am wondering what 3. would result in I did not implement any of the previous ideas since it could be a lot of job and I would like to investigate others options before. So...any ideas ?

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• In C# should I reuse a function / property parameter to compute cleaner temporary value or create a

  - by Hamish Grubijan

  The example below may not be problematic as is, but it should be enough to illustrate a point. Imagine that there is a lot more work than trimming going on. public string Thingy { set { // I guess we can throw a null reference exception here on null. value = value.Trim(); // Well, imagine that there is so much processing to do this.thingy = value; // That this.thingy = value.Trim() would not fit on one line ... So, if the assignment has to take two lines, then I either have to abusereuse the parameter, or create a temporary variable. I am not a big fan of temporary variables. On the other hand, I am not a fan of convoluted code. I did not include an example where a function is involved, but I am sure you can imagine it. One concern I have is if a function accepted a string and the parameter was "abused", and then someone changed the signature to ref in both places - this ought to mess things up, but ... who would knowingly make such a change if it already worked without a ref? Seems like it is their responsibility in this case. If I mess with the value of value, am I doing something non-trivial under the hood? If you think that both approaches are acceptable, then which do you prefer and why? Thanks.

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• XML serialization of hash table(C#3.0)

  - by Newbie

  Hi I am trying to serialize a hash table but not happening private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Hashtable ht = new Hashtable(); DateTime dt = DateTime.Now; for (int i = 0; i < 10; i++) ht.Add(dt.AddDays(i), i); SerializeToXmlAsFile(typeof(Hashtable), ht); } private void SerializeToXmlAsFile(Type targetType, Object targetObject) { try { string fileName = @"C:\testtttttt.xml"; //Serialize to XML XmlSerializer s = new XmlSerializer(targetType); TextWriter w = new StreamWriter(fileName); s.Serialize(w, targetObject); w.Flush(); w.Close(); } catch (Exception ex) { throw ex; } } After a google search , I found that objects that impelment IDictonary cannot be serialized. However, I got success with binary serialization. But I want to have xml one. Is there any way of doing so? I am using C#3.0 Thanks

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• How can I get 100% test coverage in a Perl module that uses DBI?

  - by BrianH

  I am a bit new to the Devel::Cover module, but have found it very useful in making sure I am not missing tests. A problem I am running into is understanding the report from Devel::Cover. I've looked at the documentation, but can't figure out what I need to test to get 100% coverage. Here is the output from the cover report: line err stmt bran cond sub pod time code ... 36 sub connect_database { 37 3 3 1 1126 my $self = shift; 38 3 100 24 if ( !$self->{dsn} ) { 39 1 7 croak 'dsn not supplied - cannot connect'; 40 } 41 *** 2 33 21 $self->{dbh} = DBI->connect( $self->{dsn}, q{}, q{} ) 42 || croak "$DBI::errstr"; 43 1 11 return $self; 44 } ... line err % l !l&&r !l&&!r expr ----- --- ------ ------ ------ ------ ---- 41 *** 33 1 0 0 'DBI'->connect($$self{'dsn'}, '', '') || croak("$DBI::errstr") And here is and example of my code that tests this specific line: my $database = MyModule::Database->new( { dsn => 'Invalid DSN' }); throws_ok( sub { $database->connect_database() }, qr/Can't connect to data source/, 'Test connection exception (invalid dsn)' ); This test passes - the connect does throw an error and fulfills my "throws_ok" test. I do have some tests that test for a successful connection, which is why I think I have 33% coverage, but if I'm reading it correctly, cover thinks I am not testing the "|| croak" part of the statement. I thought I was, with the "throws_ok" test, but obviously I am missing something. Does anyone have advice on how I can test my DBI-connect line successfully? Thanks!

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• how to pass vector of string to foo(char const *const *const)?

  - by user347208

  Hi, This is my first post so please be nice. I searched in this forum and googled but I still can not find the answer. This problem has bothered me for more than a day, so please give me some help. Thank you. I need to pass a vector of string to a library function foo(char const *const *const). I can not pass the &Vec[0] since it's a pointer to a string. Therefore, I have an array and pass the c_str() to that array. The following is my code (aNames is the vector of string): const char* aR[aNames.size()]; std::transform(aNames.begin(), aNames.end(), aR, boost::bind(&std::string::c_str, _1)); foo(aR); However, it seems it causes some undefined behavior: If I run the above code, then the function foo throw some warnings about illegal characters ('èI' blablabla) in aR. If I print aR before function foo like this: std::copy(aR, aR+rowNames.size(), std::ostream_iterator<const char*>(std::cout, "\n")); foo(aR); Then, everything is fine. My questions are: Does the conversion causes undefined behavior? If so, why? What is the correct way to pass vector of string to foo(char const *const *const)? Thank you very much for your help!

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• How to use iPhone OS 3.2 functionality in an iPhone OS 3.0 app?

  - by mystify

  Problem: My app must run on iPhone OS 3.0. However, there are some features of iPhone OS 3.2 which I really want to use. Just as a little add-on for free. But I don't want to cut off my user base by doing this. Imagine you're an iPhone OS 3.0 thing, and someone gives you a book to read. It has iPhone OS 3.2 instructions. You never learned those. So what do you do? Crash? They would have to be hidden, so you're not bothered. Someone wrote recently on SO: keep in mind that you have to check the version at places in the source code where you like to use the new features and provide alternatives for older os versions So how could I do that? Wouldn't Xcode throw warnings when it finds stuff that isn't linkable from anything anywhere? Would I just check for the OS version and dynamically link - somehow - to whatever stuff I think is cool?

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• Credit card validation with regexp using test()

  - by Matt

  I'm trying to complete some homework and it appears the book might have gotten it wrong. I have a simple html page that allows user to pick a credit card in our case american express. The user then enters a number and evalutes that number based on a regular expression. My question ends up being when test() evaluates the number it returns a boolean or a string? I should then compare that string or boolean? True == true should fire off the code in a nested if statement. Heres what the book gives me as valid code: if(document.forms[0].cardName.value == "American Express") { var cardProtocol = new RegExp("^3[47][0-9]{13}$"); //REGEX ENTRY HERE if(cardProtocol.test(document.forms[0].cardNumber.value)) document.forms[0].ccResult.value = "Valid credit card number"; } The above code doesn't work in firefox. I've tried modifying it with 2 alerts to make sure the number is good and the boolean is good...and still no luck: if(document.forms[0].cardName.value == "American Express") { var cardProtocol = new RegExp("^3[47][0-9]{13}$"); //REGEX ENTRY HERE <------ alert(document.forms[0].cardNumber.value) alert(cardProtocol.test(document.forms[0].cardNumber.value)) if((cardProtocol.test(document.forms[0].cardNumber.value)) == true ) // <--Problem { document.forms[0].ccResult.value = "Valid credit card number"; } else { document.forms[0].ccResult.value = "Invalid credit card number"; } } Any ideas? the if loop is the culprit but I'm not figuring out why it is not working. Please throw up the code for the if loop! Thanks for the help!

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• Getting a `free()` error when deallocating with `delete` in the backtrace

  - by wonko

  I got the following error from gdb: *** glibc detected *** /.root0/autohome/u132/hsreekum/ipopt/ipopt/debug/Ipopt/examples/ex3/ex3: free(): invalid next size (fast): 0x0000000120052b60 *** Here's the backtrace: #0 0x000000555626b264 in raise () from /lib/libc.so.6 #1 0x000000555626cc6c in abort () from /lib/libc.so.6 #2 0x00000055562a7b9c in __libc_message () from /lib/libc.so.6 #3 0x00000055562aeabc in malloc_printerr () from /lib/libc.so.6 #4 0x00000055562b036c in free () from /lib/libc.so.6 #5 0x000000555561ddd0 in Ipopt::TNLPAdapter::~TNLPAdapter () from /home/ba01/u132/hsreekum/ipopt/ipopt/build/lib/libipopt.so.1 #6 0x00000055556a9910 in Ipopt::GradientScaling::~GradientScaling () from /home/ba01/u132/hsreekum/ipopt/ipopt/build/lib/libipopt.so.1 #7 0x00000055557241b8 in Ipopt::OrigIpoptNLP::~OrigIpoptNLP () from /home/ba01/u132/hsreekum/ipopt/ipopt/build/lib/libipopt.so.1 #8 0x00000055556ae7f0 in Ipopt::IpoptAlgorithm::~IpoptAlgorithm () from /home/ba01/u132/hsreekum/ipopt/ipopt/build/lib/libipopt.so.1 #9 0x0000005555602278 in Ipopt::IpoptApplication::~IpoptApplication () from /home/ba01/u132/hsreekum/ipopt/ipopt/build/lib/libipopt.so.1 #10 0x0000005555614428 in FreeIpoptProblem () from /home/ba01/u132/hsreekum/ipopt/ipopt/build/lib/libipopt.so.1 #11 0x0000000120001610 in main () at ex3.c:169` And here's the code for Ipopt::TNLPAdapter::~TNLPAdapter () TNLPAdapter::~TNLPAdapter() { delete [] full_x_; delete [] full_lambda_; delete [] full_g_; delete [] jac_g_; delete [] c_rhs_; delete [] jac_idx_map_; delete [] h_idx_map_; delete [] x_fixed_map_; delete [] findiff_jac_ia_; delete [] findiff_jac_ja_; delete [] findiff_jac_postriplet_; delete [] findiff_x_l_; delete [] findiff_x_u_; } My question is : why does free() throw an error when ~TNLPAdapter() uses delete[]? Also, I would like to step through ~TNLPAdapter() so I can see which deallocation causes the error. I believe the error occurs in the external library (IPOPT) but I have compiled it with debug flags on ; is this sufficient?

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• Manipulating existing XDocument (fails)

  - by Daemonfire3002nd

  Hi there, I got the following Code snippet from my Silverlight Application: var messages = from message in XcurrentMsg.Descendants("message") where DateTime.Parse(message.Attribute("timestamp").Value).CompareTo(DateTime.Parse(MessageCache.Last_Cached())) > 0 select new { ip = message.Attribute("ip").Value, timestamp = message.Attribute("timestamp").Value, text = message.Value, }; if (messages == null) throw new SystemException("No new messages recorded. Application tried to access non existing resources!"); foreach (var message in messages) { XElement temporaryElement = new XElement("message", message.text.ToString(), new XAttribute("ip", message.ip.ToString()), new XAttribute("timestamp", message.timestamp.ToString())); XcurrentMsg.Element("root").Element("messages").Add(temporaryElement); AddMessage(BuildMessage(message.ip, message.timestamp, message.text)); msgCount++; } MessageCache.CacheXML(XcurrentMsg); MessageCache.Refresh(); XcurrentMsg is a XDocument fetched from my server containing messages: Structure <root> <messages> <message ip="" timestamp=""> Text </message> </messages> </root> I want to get all "message" newer than the last time I cached the XcurrentMsg. This works fine as long as I cut out the "XElement temporaryElement" and the "XcurrentMsg.Element...." and simply use the currentMsg string as output. But I want to have "new messages" being saved in my XcurrentMsg / Cache. Now if I do not cut this part out, my Application gets awesome crazy. I think it writes infinite elements to the XcurrentMsg without stopping. I can not figure out what's the problem. regards,

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