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  • Possible to write an Extension Method for ASP.NET's Html.ActionLink() method?

    - by Pretzel
    Right now, I'm trying to work around an IE6/7 bug which requires the wrapping of the </a closing tag with this IE specific comment to make some drop-down menu work: <!--[if IE 7]><!--></a><!--<![endif]--> Unfortunately, I cannot inject this directly into my View page code like this: <%= Html.ActionLink("LinkName<!--[if IE 7]><!--></a><!--<![endif]-->","Action","Controller") %> As Html.ActionLink will do the safe thing and filter out the comment to prevent a Javascript injection attack. Ok, cool. I'm fine with that. Good design decision. What I'd like to do is write an Extension Method to this, but the process is eluding me as I haven't done this before. I thought this would work, but Intellisense doesn't seem to be picking up this Extension method that I've written. public static class MyLinkExtensions { public static string ActionLinkIE(this HtmlHelper htmlHelper, string linkText, string actionName, string controllerName) { return LinkExtensions.ActionLink(htmlHelper, linkText, actionName, controllerName). Replace(@"</a>", @"<!--[if IE 7]><!--></a><!--<![endif]-->"); } } Any suggestions?

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  • handling pointer to member functions within hierachy in C++

    - by anatoli
    Hi, I'm trying to code the following situation: I have a base class providing a framework for handling events. I'm trying to use an array of pointer-to-member-functions for that. It goes as following: class EH { // EventHandler virtual void something(); // just to make sure we get RTTI public: typedef void (EH::*func_t)(); protected: func_t funcs_d[10]; protected: void register_handler(int event_num, func_t f) { funcs_d[event_num] = f; } public: void handle_event(int event_num) { (this->*(funcs_d[event_num]))(); } }; Then the users are supposed to derive other classes from this one and provide handlers: class DEH : public EH { public: typedef void (DEH::*func_t)(); void handle_event_5(); DEH() { func_t f5 = &DEH::handle_event_5; register_handler(5, f5); // doesn't compile ........ } }; This code wouldn't compile, since DEH::func_t cannot be converted to EH::func_t. It makes perfect sense to me. In my case the conversion is safe since the object under this is really DEH. So I'd like to have something like that: void EH::DEH_handle_event_5_wrapper() { DEH *p = dynamic_cast<DEH *>(this); assert(p != NULL); p->handle_event_5(); } and then instead of func_t f5 = &DEH::handle_event_5; register_handler(5, f5); // doesn't compile in DEH::DEH() put register_handler(5, &EH::DEH_handle_event_5_wrapper); So, finally the question (took me long enough...): Is there a way to create those wrappers (like EH::DEH_handle_event_5_wrapper) automatically? Or to do something similar? What other solutions to this situation are out there? Thanks.

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  • Different users get the same cookie - value in .ASPXANONYMOUS

    - by Malcolm Frexner
    My site allows anonymous users. I saw that under heavy load user get sometimes profile values from other users. This happens for anonymous users. I logged the access to profile data: /// <summary> /// /// </summary> /// <param name="controller"></param> /// <returns></returns> public static string ProfileID(this Controller controller ) { if (ApplicationConfiguration.LogProfileAccess) { StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); (from header in controller.Request.Headers.ToPairs() select string.Concat(header.Key, ":", header.Value, ";")).ToList().ForEach(x => sb.Append(x)); string log = string.Format("ip:{0} url:{1} IsAuthenticated:{2} Name:{3} AnonId:{4} header:{5}", controller.Request.UserHostAddress, controller.Request.Url.ToString(), controller.Request.IsAuthenticated, controller.User.Identity.Name, controller.Request.AnonymousID, sb); _log.Debug(log); } return controller.Request.IsAuthenticated ? controller.User.Identity.Name : controller.Request.AnonymousID; } I can see in the log that user realy get the same cookievalue for .ASPXANONYMOUS even if they have different IP. Just to be safe I removed dependency injection for the FormsAuthentication. I dont use OutputCaching. My web.config has this setting for authentication: <anonymousIdentification enabled="true" cookieless="UseCookies" cookieName=".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookieTimeout="30" cookiePath="/" cookieRequireSSL="false" cookieSlidingExpiration="true" /> <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms loginUrl="~/de/Account/Login" /> </authentication> Does anybody have an idea what else I could log or what I should have a look at?

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  • Are there any security issues to avoid when providing a email-or-username-can-act-as-username login

    - by Tchalvak
    I am in the process of moving from a "username/password" system to one that uses email for login. I don't think that there's any horrible problem with allowing either email or username for login, and I remember seeing sites that I consider somewhat respectable doing it as well, but I'd like to be aware of any major security flaws that I may be introducing. More specifically, here is the pertinent function (the query_row function parameterizes the sql). function authenticate($p_user, $p_pass) { $user = (string)$p_user; $pass = (string)$p_pass; $returnValue = false; if ($user != '' && $pass != '') { // Allow login via username or email. $sql = "SELECT account_id, account_identity, uname, player_id FROM accounts join account_players on account_id=_account_id join players on player_id = _player_id WHERE lower(account_identity) = lower(:login) OR lower(uname) = lower(:login) AND phash = crypt(:pass, phash)"; $returnValue = query_row($sql, array(':login'=>$user, ':pass'=>$pass)); } return $returnValue; } Notably, I have added the WHERE lower(account_identity) = lower(:login) OR lower(uname) = lower(:login) ...etc section to allow graceful backwards compatibility for users who won't be used to using their email for the login procedure. I'm not completely sure that that OR is safe, though. Are there some ways that I should tighten the security of the php code above?

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  • How do I send a client-event asynchronously to a GtkWidget?

    - by fret
    I'm trying to send and receive a client-event using a GtkWidget on the win32 platform. The sending code looks like this: GtkWidget *Wnd; GdkNativeWindow Hnd = #ifdef WIN32 GDK_WINDOW_HWND(Wnd->window); #else GDK_WINDOW_XWINDOW(Wnd->window); #endif GdkEvent *Event = gdk_event_new(GDK_CLIENT_EVENT); // fill out Event params gdk_event_send_client_message(Event, Hnd); Receiving code looks like this: static gboolean MyClientEvent(GtkWidget *widget, GdkEventClient *ev, MyWnd *Wnd) { // breakpoint here... return TRUE; } GtkWidget *Wnd = gtk_window_new(GTK_WINDOW_TOPLEVEL); g_signal_connect( G_OBJECT(Wnd), "client-event", G_CALLBACK(MyClientEvent), this); gtk_widget_add_events(Wnd, GDK_ALL_EVENTS_MASK); I used Spy++ to see the message getting sent, so I know the sending side is ok. The receiving side however doesn't get the client-event. I was expecting my breakpoint in the callback to trigger... but it doesn't. I'm not even sure if a GtkWindow can receive a client-event... from past experience on X11 I thought it was pretty much the same as any other GtkWidget in that respect. Maybe on the win32 platform it's kinda different. But still I'd like to be able to get this working. I would like this to work with asynchronously, and in a thread-safe fashion, so that I can send events from worker threads up to the GUI thread.

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  • Using a "take-home" coding component in interview process

    - by Jeff Sargent
    In recent interviews I have been asking candidates to code through some questions on the whiteboard. I don't feel I'm getting a clear enough picture of the candidates technical ability with this approach. Granted, the questions might not be good enough, maybe the interview needs to be longer, etc, but I'm wondering if a different approach would be better. What I'd like to try is to create a simple, working project in Visual Studio and have it checked into source control. The candidate can check that code out from home/wherever and then check back in work representing their response to the assignment that I'll provide. I'm thinking that if the window of time is short enough and the assignment clear enough then the solution will be safe enough from all-out Googling (i.e. they couldn't search for and find the entire solution online). I would then be able to review the candidates work. Has enough worked with something like this before, either to vet a candidate or as a candidate yourself? Any thoughts in general? P.S. my first StackOverflow question - hi guys and gals. EDIT: I've seen comments about asking someone to work for free - I wouldn't mind paying the person for their time.

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  • std::string.resize() and std::string.length()

    - by dreamlax
    I'm relatively new to C++ and I'm still getting to grips with the C++ Standard Library. To help transition from C, I want to format a std::string using printf-style formatters. I realise stringstream is a more type-safe approach, but I find myself finding printf-style much easier to read and deal with (at least, for the time being). This is my function: using namespace std; string formatStdString(const string &format, ...) { va_list va; string output; size_t needed; size_t used; va_start(va, format); needed = vsnprintf(&output[0], 0, format.c_str(), va); output.resize(needed + 1); // for null terminator?? used = vsnprintf(&output[0], output.capacity(), format.c_str(), va); // assert(used == needed); va_end(va); return output; } This works, kinda. A few things that I am not sure about are: Do I need to make room for a null terminator, or is this unnecessary? Is capacity() the right function to call here? I keep thinking length() would return 0 since the first character in the string is a '\0'. Occasionally while writing this string's contents to a socket (using its c_str() and length()), I have null bytes popping up on the receiving end, which is causing a bit of grief, but they seem to appear inconsistently. If I don't use this function at all, no null bytes appear.

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  • Storing Credit Card Numbers in SESSION - ways around it?

    - by JM4
    I am well aware of PCI Compliance so don't need an earful about storing CC numbers (and especially CVV nums) within our company database during checkout process. However, I want to be safe as possible when handling sensitive consumer information and am curious how to get around passing CC numbers from page to page WITHOUT using SESSION variables if at all possible. My site is built in this way: Step 1) collect Credit Card information from customer - when customer hits submit, the information is first run through JS validation, then run through PHP validation, if all passes he moves to step 2. Step 2) Information is displayed on a review page for customer to make sure the details of their upcoming transaction are shown. Only the first 6 and last 4 of the CC are shown on this page but card type, and exp date are shwon fully. If he clicks proceed, Step 3) The information is sent to another php page which runs one last validation, sends information through secure payment gateway, and string is returned with details. Step 4) If all is good and well, the consumer information (personal, not CC) is stored in DB and redirected to a completion page. If anything is bad, he is informed and told to revisit the CC processing page to try again (max of 3 times). Any suggestions?

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  • Why does this work?

    - by jsoldi
    I was googling trying to find a way to call Control.DataBindings.Add without using a string literal but getting the property name from the property itself, which I think would be less error prone, at least for my particular case, since I normally let Visual Studio do the renaming when renaming a property. So my code would look something like DataBindings.Add(GetName(myInstance.myObject)... instead of DataBindings.Add("myObject".... So I found this: static string GetName<T>(T item) where T : class { var properties = typeof(T).GetProperties(); if (properties.Length != 1) throw new Exception("Length must be 1"); return properties[0].Name; } That would be called, assuming I have a property called One, this way: string name = GetName(new { this.One }); which would give me "One". I have no clue why does it work and whether is safe to use it or not. I don't even know what that new { this.One } means. And I don't know on which case could it happens that properties.Length is not 1. By the way, I just tested to rename my property One to Two and Visual Studio turned new { this.One } into new { One = this.Two }, which when used with the GetName function gave me "One", which make the whole thing useless since the name I would be passing to Control.DataBindings.Add would be still "One" after renaming the property.

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  • Most efficient method of detecting/monitoring DOM changes?

    - by Graza
    I need an efficient mechanism for detecting changes to the DOM. Preferably cross-browser, but if there's any efficient means which are not cross browser, I can implement these with a fail-safe cross browser method. In particular, I need to detect changes that would affect the text on a page, so any new, removed or modified elements, or changes to inner text (innerHTML) would be required. I don't have control over the changes being made (they could be due to 3rd party javascript includes, etc), so it can't be approached from this angle - I need to "monitor" for changes somehow. Currently I've implemented a "quick'n'dirty" method which checks body.innerHTML.length at intervals. This won't of course detect changes which result in the same length being returned, but in this case is "good enough" - the chances of this happening are extremely slim, and in this project, failing to detect a change won't result in lost data. The problem with body.innerHTML.length is that it's expensive. It can take between 1 and 5 milliseconds on a fast browser, and this can bog things down a lot - I'm also dealing with a large-ish number of iframes and it all adds up. I'm pretty sure the expensiveness of doing this is because the innerHTML text is not stored statically by browsers, and needs to be calculated from the DOM every time it is read. The types of answers I am looking for are anything from the "precise" (for example event) to the "good enough" - perhaps something as "quick'n'dirty" as the innerHTML.length method, but that executes faster.

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  • GROUP BY ID range?

    - by d0ugal
    Given a data set like this; +-----+---------------------+--------+ | id | date | result | +-----+---------------------+--------+ | 121 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 122 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 123 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 124 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 125 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 126 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 127 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 128 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 129 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 130 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 131 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 132 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 133 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 134 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 135 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 136 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 137 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 138 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | 1 | | 139 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | 0 | | 140 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | +-----+---------------------+--------+ How would I go about grouping the results by day 5 records at a time. The above results is part of the live data, there is over 100,000 results rows in the table and its growing. Basically I want to measure the change over time, so want to take a SUM of the result every X records. In the real data I'll be doing it ever 100 or 1000 but for the data above perhaps every 5. If i could sort it by date I would do something like this; SELECT DATE_FORMAT(date, '%h%i') ym, COUNT(result) 'Total Games', SUM(result) as 'Score' FROM nn_log GROUP BY ym; I can't figure out a way of doing something similar with numbers. The order is sorted by the date but I hope to split the data up every x results. It's safe to assume there are no blank rows. Doing it above with the data you could do multiple selects like; SELECT SUM(result) FROM table LIMIT 0,5; SELECT SUM(result) FROM table LIMIT 5,5; SELECT SUM(result) FROM table LIMIT 10,5; Thats obviously not a very good way to scale up to a bigger problem. I could just write a loop but I'd like to reduce the number of queries.

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  • If a nonblocking recv with MSG_PEEK succeeds, will a subsequent recv without MSG_PEEK also succeed?

    - by Michael Wolf
    Here's a simplified version of some code I'm working on: void stuff(int fd) { int ret1, ret2; char buffer[32]; ret1 = recv(fd, buffer, 32, MSG_PEEK | MSG_DONTWAIT); /* Error handling -- and EAGAIN handling -- would go here. Bail if necessary. Otherwise, keep going. */ /* Can this call to recv fail, setting errno to EAGAIN? */ ret2 = recv(fd, buffer, ret1, 0); } If we assume that the first call to recv succeeds, returning a value between 1 and 32, is it safe to assume that the second call will also succeed? Can ret2 ever be less than ret1? In which cases? (For clarity's sake, assume that there are no other error conditions during the second call to recv: that no signal is delivered, that it won't set ENOMEM, etc. Also assume that no other threads will look at fd. I'm on Linux, but MSG_DONTWAIT is, I believe, the only Linux-specific thing here. Assume that the right fnctl was set previously on other platforms.)

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  • Performing selectors on main thread with NSInvocation

    - by kpower
    I want to perform animation on main thread (cause UIKit objects are not thread-safe), but prepare it in some separate thread. I have (baAnimation - is CABasicAnimation allocated & inited before): SEL animationSelector = @selector(addAnimation:forKey:); NSString *keyString = @"someViewAnimation"; NSInvocation *inv = [NSInvocation invocationWithMethodSignature:[workView.layer methodSignatureForSelector:animationSelector]]; [inv setTarget:workView.layer]; [inv setSelector:animationSelector]; [inv setArgument:baAnimation atIndex:2]; [inv setArgument:keyString atIndex:3]; [inv performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(invoke) withObject:nil waitUntilDone:NO]; I get: *** +[NSCFString length]: unrecognized selector sent to class 0x1fb36a0 Calls: > #0 0x020984e6 in objc_exception_throw > #1 0x01f7e8fb in +[NSObject doesNotRecognizeSelector:] > #2 0x01f15676 in ___forwarding___ > #3 0x01ef16c2 in __forwarding_prep_0___ > #4 0x01bb3c21 in -[CALayer addAnimation:forKey:] > #5 0x01ef172d in __invoking___ > #6 0x01ef1618 in -[NSInvocation invoke] But [workView.layer addAnimation:baAnimation forKey:@"someViewAnimation"]; works fine. What am I doing wrong?

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  • Do I really ned bindParam?

    - by sandelius
    Hi there! I'm trying to do a little PDO CRUD to learn some PDO. I have a question about bindParam. Here's my update method right now: public static function update($conditions = array(), $data = array(), $table = '') { self::instance(); // Late static bindings (PHP 5.3) $table = ($table === '') ? self::table() : $table; // Check which data array we want to use $values = (empty($data)) ? self::$_fields : $data; $sql = "UPDATE $table SET "; foreach ($values as $f => $v) { $sql .= "$f = ?, "; } // let's build the conditions self::build_conditions($conditions); // fix our WHERE, AND, OR, LIKE conditions $extra = self::$condition_string; // querystring $sql = rtrim($sql, ', ') . $extra; // let's merge the arrays into on $v_val = array_values($values); $c_val = array_values($conditions); $array = array_merge($v_val, self::$condition_array); $stmt = self::$db->prepare($sql); return $stmt->execute($array); } in my "self::$condition_array" I get all the right values from the ?. SO the query looks like this: UPDATE table SET this = ?, another = ? WHERE title = ? AND time = ? as you can see I dont use bindParams instead I pass the right values in the right order ($array) directly into the execute($array) method. This works like a charm BUT is it safe not use use bindParam here? If not then how can I do it? Thanks from Sweden Tobias

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  • Basic Team Foundation Server 2010 Question - System Resource Usage?

    - by user127954
    Guys / Gals i have a real basic Team Foundation Server 2010 question. For those of you who have played around with tfs 2010 is it a lot more light weight than tfs2008 is? I remember installing all the pieces needed for TFS 2008 one one machine at work. I remember it being a pain to install (i know 2010 is supposed to be much better) We wanted to play around with it a little bit to see if it met our needs. Well it brought that machine to a screeching halt. I'm needing a source control repository for home and i thought why not just install tfs 2010 so i can get familiar with it and maybe in the future i can make a better sell to my organization and FINALLY get them to move off of Source Safe but my concern is i only have one server at home (granted i already have SQL Server installed) and don't want to buy a machine just for this purpose. I'd also like to get more familiar with CI too. Anyways, if team is going to be to heavy i'll just use subversion but i'd like to use TFS if possible. Any help would be appreciated. thanks, Ncage

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  • C# struct with object as data member

    - by source-energy
    As we know, in C# structs are passed by value, not by reference. So if I have a struct with the following data members: private struct MessageBox { // data members private DateTime dm_DateTimeStamp; // a struct type private TimeSpan dm_TimeSpanInterval; // also a struct private ulong dm_MessageID; // System.Int64 type, struct private String dm_strMessage; // an object (hence a reference is stored here) // more methods, properties, etc ... } So when a MessageBox is passed as a parameter, a COPY is made on the stack, right? What does that mean in terms of how the data members are copied? The first two are struct types, so copies should be made of DateTime and TimeSpan. The third type is a primitive, so it's also copied. But what about the dm_strMessage, which is a reference to an object? When it's copied, another reference to the same String is created, right? The object itself resides in the heap, and is NOT copied (there is only one instance of it on the heap.) So now we have to references to the same object of type String. If the two references are accessed from different threads, it's conceivable that the String object could be corrupted by being modified from two different directions simultaneously. The MSDN documentation says that System.String is thread safe. Does that mean that the String class has a built-in mechanism to prevent an object being corrupted in exactly the type of situation described here? I'm trying to figure out if my MessageBox struct has any potential flaws / pitfalls being a structure vs. a class. Thanks for any input. Source.Energy.

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  • HTTP POST with URL query parameters -- good idea or not?

    - by Steven Huwig
    I'm designing an API to go over HTTP and I am wondering if using the HTTP POST command, but with URL query parameters only and no request body, is a good way to go. Considerations: "Good Web design" requires non-idempotent actions to be sent via POST. This is a non-idempotent action. It is easier to develop and debug this app when the request parameters are present in the URL. The API is not intended for widespread use. It seems like making a POST request with no body will take a bit more work, e.g. a Content-Length: 0 header must be explicitly added. It also seems to me that a POST with no body is a bit counter to most developer's and HTTP frameworks' expectations. Are there any more pitfalls or advantages to sending parameters on a POST request via the URL query rather than the request body? Edit: The reason this is under consideration is that the operations are not idempotent and have side effects other than retrieval. See the HTTP spec: In particular, the convention has been established that the GET and HEAD methods SHOULD NOT have the significance of taking an action other than retrieval. These methods ought to be considered "safe". This allows user agents to represent other methods, such as POST, PUT and DELETE, in a special way, so that the user is made aware of the fact that a possibly unsafe action is being requested. ... Methods can also have the property of "idempotence" in that (aside from error or expiration issues) the side-effects of N 0 identical requests is the same as for a single request. The methods GET, HEAD, PUT and DELETE share this property. Also, the methods OPTIONS and TRACE SHOULD NOT have side effects, and so are inherently idempotent.

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  • Fetching just the Key/id from a ReferenceProperty in App Engine

    - by ozone
    Hi SO, I could use a little help in AppEngine land... Using the [Python] API I create relationships like this example from the docs: class Author(db.Model): name = db.StringProperty() class Story(db.Model): author = db.ReferenceProperty(Author) story = db.get(story_key) author_name = story.author.name As I understand it, that example will make two datastore queries. One to fetch the Story and then one to deference the Author inorder to access the name. But I want to be able to fetch the id, so do something like: story = db.get(story_key) author_id = story.author.key().id() I want to just get the id from the reference. I do not want to have to deference (therefore query the datastore) the ReferenceProperty value. From reading the documentation it says that the value of a ReferenceProperty is a Key Which leads me to think that I could just call .id() on the reference's value. But it also says: The ReferenceProperty model provides features for Key property values such as automatic dereferencing. I can't find anything that explains when this referencing takes place? Is it safe to call .id() on the ReferenceProperty's value? Can it be assumed that calling .id() will not cause a datastore lookup?

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  • How can I keep an event from being delivered to the GUI until my code finished running?

    - by Frerich Raabe
    I installed a global mouse hook function like this: mouseEventHook = ::SetWindowsHookEx( WH_MOUSE_LL, mouseEventHookFn, thisModule, 0 ); The hook function looks like this: RESULT CALLBACK mouseEventHookFn( int code, WPARAM wParam, LPARAM lParam ) { if ( code == HC_ACTION ) { PMSLLHOOKSTRUCT mi = (PMSLLHOOKSTRUCT)lParam; // .. do interesting stuff .. } return ::CallNextHookEx( mouseEventHook, code, wParam, lParam ); } Now, my problem is that I cannot control how long the 'do interesting stuff' part takes exactly. In particular, it might take longer than the LowLevelHooksTimeout defined in the Windows registry. This means that, at least on Windows XP, the system no longer delivers mouse events to my hook function. I'd like to avoid this, but at the same time I need the 'do interesting stuff' part to happen before the target GUI receives the event. I attempted to solve this by doing the 'interesting stuff' work in a separate thread so that the mouseEventHookFn above can post a message to the worker thread and then do a return 1; immediately (which ends the hook function but avoids that the event is handed to the GUI). The idea was that the worker thread, when finished, performs the CallNextHookEx call itself. However, this causes a crash inside of CallNextHookEx (in fact, the crash occurs inside an internal function called PhkNextValid. I assume it's not safe to call CallNextHookEx from outside a hook function, is this true? If so, does anybody else know how I can run code (which needs to interact with the GUI thread of an application) before the GUI receives the event and avoid that my hook function blocks too long?

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  • Intel MKL memory management and exceptions

    - by Andrew
    Hello everyone, I am trying out Intel MKL and it appears that they have their own memory management (C-style). They suggest using their MKL_malloc/MKL_free pairs for vectors and matrices and I do not know what is a good way to handle it. One of the reasons for that is that memory-alignment is recommended to be at least 16-byte and with these routines it is specified explicitly. I used to rely on auto_ptr and boost::smart_ptr a lot to forget about memory clean-ups. How can I write an exception-safe program with MKL memory management or should I just use regular auto_ptr's and not bother? Thanks in advance. EDIT http://software.intel.com/sites/products/documentation/hpc/mkl/win/index.htm this link may explain why I brought up the question UPDATE I used an idea from the answer below for allocator. This is what I have now: template <typename T, size_t TALIGN=16, size_t TBLOCK=4> class aligned_allocator : public std::allocator<T> { public: pointer allocate(size_type n, const void *hint) { pointer p = NULL; size_t count = sizeof(T) * n; size_t count_left = count % TBLOCK; if( count_left != 0 ) count += TBLOCK - count_left; if ( !hint ) p = reinterpret_cast<pointer>(MKL_malloc (count,TALIGN)); else p = reinterpret_cast<pointer>(MKL_realloc((void*)hint,count,TALIGN)); return p; } void deallocate(pointer p, size_type n){ MKL_free(p); } }; If anybody has any suggestions, feel free to make it better.

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  • Can ScalaCheck/Specs warnings safely be ignored when using SBT with ScalaTest?

    - by pdbartlett
    I have a simple FunSuite-based ScalaTest: package pdbartlett.hello_sbt import org.scalatest.FunSuite class SanityTest extends FunSuite { test("a simple test") { assert(true) } test("a very slightly more complicated test - purposely fails") { assert(42 === (6 * 9)) } } Which I'm running with the following SBT project config: import sbt._ class HelloSbtProject(info: ProjectInfo) extends DefaultProject(info) { // Dummy action, just to show config working OK. lazy val solveQ = task { println("42"); None } // Managed dependencies val scalatest = "org.scalatest" % "scalatest" % "1.0" % "test" } However, when I runsbt test I get the following warnings: ... [info] == test-compile == [info] Source analysis: 0 new/modified, 0 indirectly invalidated, 0 removed. [info] Compiling test sources... [info] Nothing to compile. [warn] Could not load superclass 'org.scalacheck.Properties' : java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.scalacheck.Properties [warn] Could not load superclass 'org.specs.Specification' : java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.specs.Specification [warn] Could not load superclass 'org.specs.Specification' : java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.specs.Specification [info] Post-analysis: 3 classes. [info] == test-compile == For the moment I'm assuming these are just "noise" (caused by the unified test interface?) and that I can safely ignore them. But it is slightly annoying to some inner OCD part of me (though not so annoying that I'm prepared to add dependencies for the other frameworks). Is this a correct assumption, or are there subtle errors in my test/config code? If it is safe to ignore, is there any other way to suppress these errors, or do people routinely include all three frameworks so they can pick and choose the best approach for different tests? TIA, Paul. (ADDED: scala v2.7.7 and sbt v0.7.4)

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  • Static Vs Non-Static Method Performance C#

    - by dotnetguts
    Hello All, I have few global methods declared in public class in my asp.net web application. I have habbit of declaring all global methods in public class in following format public static string MethodName(parameters) { } I want to know how it would impact on performance point of view? 1) Which one is Better? Static Method or Non-Static Method? 2) Reason why it is better? Following link shows Non-Static methods are good because, static methods are using locks to be Thread-safe. The always do internally a Monitor.Enter() and Monitor.exit() to ensure Thread-safety. http://bytes.com/topic/c-sharp/answers/231701-static-vs-non-static-function-performance And Following link shows Static Methods are good static methods are normally faster to invoke on the call stack than instance methods. There are several reasons for this in the C# programming language. Instance methods actually use the 'this' instance pointer as the first parameter, so an instance method will always have that overhead. Instance methods are also implemented with the callvirt instruction in the intermediate language, which imposes a slight overhead. Please note that changing your methods to static methods is unlikely to help much on ambitious performance goals, but it can help a tiny bit and possibly lead to further reductions. http://dotnetperls.com/static-method I am little confuse which one to use? Thanks

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  • Exit and rollback everything in script on error

    - by Jan W.
    Hey guys ! I'm in a bit of a pickle here. I have a TSQL script that does a lot of database structure adjustments but it's not really safe to just let it go through when something fails. to make things clear: using MS SQL 2005 it's NOT a stored procedure, just a script file (.sql) what I have is something in the following order BEGIN TRANSACTION ALTER Stuff GO CREATE New Stuff GO DROP Old Stuff GO IF @@ERROR != 0 BEGIN PRINT 'Errors Found ... Rolling back' ROLLBACK TRANSACTION RETURN END ELSE PRINT 'No Errors ... Committing changes' COMMIT TRANSACTION just to illustrate what I'm working with ... can't go into specifics now, the problem ... When I introduce an error (to test if things get rolled back), I get a statement that the ROLLBACK TRANSACTION could not find a corresponding BEGIN TRANSACTION. This leads me to believe that something when REALLY wrong and the transaction was already killed. what I also noticed is that the script didn't fully quit on error and thus DID try to execute every statement after the error occured. (I noticed this when new tables showed up when I wasn't expecting them because it should have rollbacked) any help in this department is welcome if more speficics are needed, ask! greetz

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  • Algorithm for assigning a unique series of bits for each user?

    - by Mark
    The problem seems simple at first: just assign an id and represent that in binary. The issue arises because the user is capable of changing as many 0 bits to a 1 bit. To clarify, the hash could go from 0011 to 0111 or 1111 but never 1010. Each bit has an equal chance of being changed and is independent of other changes. What would you have to store in order to go from hash - user assuming a low percentage of bit tampering by the user? I also assume failure in some cases so the correct solution should have an acceptable error rate. I would an estimate the maximum number of bits tampered with would be about 30% of the total set. I guess the acceptable error rate would depend on the number of hashes needed and the number of bits being set per hash. I'm worried with enough manipulation the id can not be reconstructed from the hash. The question I am asking I guess is what safe guards or unique positioning systems can I use to ensure this happens.

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  • What's the best technique to protect my framework from visitors who are not logged in?

    - by Hermet
    First of all, I would like to say that I have used the search box looking for a similar question and was unsuccessful, maybe because of my poor english skills. I have a a 'homemade' framework. I have certain PHP files that must only be visible for the admin. The way I currently do this is check within every single page to see if a session has been opened. If not, the user gets redirected to a 404 page, to seem like the file which has been requested doesn't exist. I really don't know if this is guaranteed to work or if there's a better and more safe way because I'm currently working with kind of confidential data that should never become public. Could you give me some tips? Or leave a link where I could find some? Thank you very much, and again excuse me for kicking the dictionary. EDIT What I usually write in the top of each file is something like this <?php include("sesion.php"); $rs=comprueba(); //'check' if ($rs==1) { ?> And then, at the end <?php } ?> Is it such a butched job, isn't it? EDIT Let's say I have a customers list in a file named customers.php That file may be currently on http://www.mydomain.com/admin/customers.php and it must only be visible for the admin user. Once the admin user has been logged in, I create a session variable. That variable is what I check on the top of each page, and if it exists, the customers list is shown. If not, the user gets redirected to the 404 page. Thank you for your patience. I really appreciate.

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