Search Results

Search found 28747 results on 1150 pages for 'switch case'.

Page 141/1150 | < Previous Page | 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148  | Next Page >

  • UIPageViewController blanking page

    - by CrazyEoin
    I've been trying to use the UIPageViewController to display 3 different nibs for a few days on and off now and have almost got it working. I still have one weird bug that I cant figure out. Basically the app starts, I can scroll between the 3 pages one after another with out any problems, eg: Page1-Page2-Page3 and then back to the start: Page3-Page2-Page1. No Problems. The issue is that if I scroll, for example from Page3-Page2, then BACK to Page3, Page3 Dissappears when it snaps into place. If I scroll to where a forth page would be, then I get Page3. Here is the code relevant to the UIPageViewController, the nibs and the delegate methods for the UIPageViewController: - (void)viewDidLoad{ [super viewDidLoad]; // Do any additional setup after loading the view, typically from a nib. self.pageViewController = [[UIPageViewController alloc] initWithTransitionStyle:UIPageViewControllerTransitionStyleScroll navigationOrientation:UIPageViewControllerNavigationOrientationHorizontal options:nil]; self.pageViewController.delegate = self; [[self.pageViewController view] setFrame:[[self view] bounds]]; indexTest = 0; Page1 *p1 = [[Page1 alloc]initWithNibName:@"Page1" bundle:nil]; p1.view.tag = 1; Page2 *p2 = [[Page2 alloc]initWithNibName:@"Page2" bundle:nil]; p2.view.tag = 2; Page3 *p3 = [[Page3 alloc]initWithNibName:@"Page3" bundle:nil]; p3.view.tag = 3; NSArray *arr = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:p1,nil]; viewControllers = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithObjects:p1,p2,p3, nil]; [self.pageViewController setViewControllers:arr direction:UIPageViewControllerNavigationDirectionForward animated:NO completion:nil]; self.pageViewController.dataSource = self; [self addChildViewController:self.pageViewController]; [[self view] addSubview:[self.pageViewController view]]; [self.pageViewController didMoveToParentViewController:self]; self.view.gestureRecognizers = self.pageViewController.gestureRecognizers; } #pragma mark - page view controller stuff - (UIViewController *)pageViewController:(UIPageViewController *)pageViewController viewControllerBeforeViewController:(UIViewController *)viewController { if (indexTest > 0) { switch (indexTest) { case 1:{ NSLog(@"NO page is BEFORE current page"); break; } case 2:{ NSLog(@"Page BEFORE is Page: %@", [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@",[viewControllers objectAtIndex:0] ] ); indexTest--; return [viewControllers objectAtIndex:0]; break; } default:{ NSLog(@"PROBLEM in viewBEFORE, indexTest = %d!!!!", indexTest); break; } } } return nil; } - (UIViewController *)pageViewController:(UIPageViewController *)pageViewController viewControllerAfterViewController:(UIViewController *)viewController { if (indexTest < NUM_OF_PAGES) { switch (indexTest) { case 0:{ NSLog(@"Page AFTER is Page: %@", [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@",[viewControllers objectAtIndex:1] ] ); indexTest++; return [viewControllers objectAtIndex:1]; break; } case 1:{ NSLog(@"Page AFTER is Page: %@", [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@",[viewControllers objectAtIndex:2] ] ); indexTest++; return [viewControllers objectAtIndex:2]; break; } case 2:{ NSLog(@"No pages AFTER this current page %d", indexTest); break; } default:{ NSLog(@"PROBLEM in viewAFTER, indexTest = %d!!!!", indexTest); break; } } } return nil; } Finally the page index dots code #pragma mark - dot controller - (NSInteger)presentationCountForPageViewController:(UIPageViewController *)pageViewController { // The number of items reflected in the page indicator. return NUM_OF_PAGES; } - (NSInteger)presentationIndexForPageViewController:(UIPageViewController *)pageViewController { // The selected item reflected in the page indicator. return 0; } Any and all help is much appreciated, I think I'm just doing something silly that I cant see as I'm so close to it fully working. If anythings not clear or I haven't give enough information please let me know and I'll answer it as best as I can. Thanks

    Read the article

  • segmentation fault using scanf

    - by agarrow
    noob question here: I'm trying to write a simple menu interface, but I keep getting a segmentation fault error and I can't figure out why. #include <stdlib.h> #include <stdio.h> int flush(); int add(char *name, char *password, char *type); int delete(char *name); int edit(char *name, char *password, char *type, char *newName, char *newPassword, char *newType); int verify(char *name, char *password); int menu(){ int input; char *name, *password, *type, *newName, *newPassword, *newType; printf("MAIN MENU \n ============\n"); printf("1. ADD\n"); printf("2. DELETE\n"); printf("3. EDIT\n"); printf("4. VERIFY\n"); printf("5. Exit\n"); printf("Selection:"); scanf("%d", &input); flush(); switch (input){ case 1: printf("%s\n", "Enter Name:"); scanf("%s", name); flush(); printf("%s\n", "enter password" ); scanf("%s", password); flush(); printf("%s\n","enter type" ); scanf("%s",type); add(name, password, type); menu(); break; case 2: printf("Enter Name:" ); scanf("%s",name); flush(); delete(name); menu(); break; case 3: printf("Enter Name:\n"); scanf("%s",name); flush(); printf("Enter Password\n"); scanf("%s", password); flush(); printf("enter type:\n"); scanf("%s", type); flush(); printf("enter your new username:\n"); scanf("%s",newName); flush(); printf("enter your new password\n"); scanf("%s", newPassword); flush(); printf("enter your new type\n"); scanf("%s",newType); flush(); edit(name, password, type, newName, newPassword, newType); menu(); break; case 4: printf("Enter Name\n"); scanf("%s",name); flush(); printf("Enter Password\n"); scanf("%s",password); flush(); verify(name, password); menu(); break; case 5: return 0; default: printf("invalid input, please select from the following:\n"); menu(); } return 0; } int flush(){ int ch; while ((ch = getchar()) != EOF && ch != '\n') ; return 0; } I get the segmentation fault after entering two fields, in any menu option

    Read the article

  • Memory Management with returning char* function

    - by RageD
    Hello all, Today, without much thought, I wrote a simple function return to a char* based on a switch statement of given enum values. This, however, made me wonder how I could release that memory. What I did was something like this: char* func() { char* retval = new char; // Switch blah blah - will always return some value other than NULL since default: return retval; } I apologize if this is a naive question, but what is the best way to release the memory seeing as I cannot delete the memory after the return and, obviously, if I delete it before, I won't have a returned value. What I was thinking as a viable solution was something like this void func(char*& in) { // blah blah switch make it do something } int main() { char* val = new char; func(val); // Do whatever with func (normally func within a data structure with specific enum set so could run multiple times to change output) val = NULL; delete val; val = NULL; return 0; } Would anyone have anymore insight on this and/or explanation on which to use? Regards, Dennis M.

    Read the article

  • JQuery to PHP function and back Ajaxed

    - by Xaris
    Hi all, i have a set of php function that i want to call on different events mostly onclick with jquery async (ajax). The first function is called on load $(document).ready(function() { $("#div2").hide('slow'); $("#div1").empty().html('<img src="ajax-loader.gif" />'); $.ajax( { type: "POST", url: "WebFunctions.php", data: {'func':'1'}, success: function(html) { $("#div1").show('slow').html(html) } }); The Data: {'func':'1'} -- is a switch statement on the php side switch($_POST['func']) { case '1': getParents(); break; case '2': getChilds(params); break; case '3': getChildObjects(params); break; default: } "This functions are calls to a soap server" <-- irrelevant. So when that function finishes i get an array which contains IDs and Names. I echo the names but i want the ID for reference so when i click on the echoed name i can call an other php function with parameter the ID of the name... How do i get rid of the switch statement?? How do i call properly php functions and pass params to it??? How can i save this IDs so when i click on an item with that id an other php function is called?? Plz feel free to ask any question, any answer is welcome :)

    Read the article

  • Conditional compilation hackery in C# - is there a way to pull this off?

    - by Chris
    I have an internal API that I would like others to reference in their projects as a compiled DLL. When it's a standalone project that's referenced, I use conditional compilation (#if statements) to switch behavior of a key web service class depending on compilation symbols. The problem is, once an assembly is generated, it appears that it's locked into whatever the compilation symbols were when it was originally compiled - for instance, if this assembly is compiled with DEBUG and is referenced by another project, even if the other project is built as RELEASE, the assembly still acts as if it was in DEBUG as it doesn't need recompilation. That makes sense, just giving some background. Now I'm trying to work around that so I can switch the assembly's behavior by some other means, such as scanning the app/web config file for a switch. The problem is, some of the assembly's code I was switching between are attributes on methods, for example: #if PRODUCTION [SoapDocumentMethodAttribute("https://prodServer/Service_Test", RequestNamespace = "https://prodServer", ResponseNamespace = "https://prodServer")] #else [SoapDocumentMethodAttribute("https://devServer/Service_Test", RequestNamespace = "https://devServer", ResponseNamespace = "https://devServer")] #endif public string Service_Test() { // test service } Though there might be some syntactical sugar that allows me to flip between two attributes of the same type in another fashion, I don't know it. Any ideas? The alternative method would be to reference the entire project instead of the assembly, but I'd rather stick with just referencing the compiled DLL if I can. I'm also completely open to a whole new approach to solve the problem if that's what it takes.

    Read the article

  • Response Redirect - Open Link in New Window

    - by bacis09
    First, I've taken the time to review this question which seems to be the most similar, however, the solution that seems to have been selected will not work in my scenario.Not to mention I worry about some of the comments claiming it to be brittle or an inadequate solution. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/104601/asp-net-response-redirect-to-new-window -We have an XML document which basically contains all of the information for a Side menu. -We have numerous URLS which are stored in a constants class. -One of the elements in a string of XML (well call it label) is used to determine if the menu item is created as a LinkButton or a Label. -Links use a custom user control that is used standard for all links across the application (why suggestion on similar thread doesn't work - I don't want all links to open in a new window - just one) -One of the elements in a string of XML (well call it function) is used in a Switch statement to generate our links using Response Redirect. It may look something like this. switch (function) { case goto 1: string url; if (user_group == 1) { url = Constants.CONSTANT1 } else { url = Constants.CONSTANT2 } Response.Redirect(url) case goto 2: ...... default: ...... break; } Given this scenario, I'm trying to find the best way to quickly open a New Window, when a specific case in this switch statement is met. Can it be done with Response Redirect (this seems to be arguable - people say no it can't, yet other people say they have made it work)? If not, what alternative can work here?

    Read the article

  • iphone keyboard won't appear

    - by d_CFO
    I can click on the field, and it momentarily turns blue, but those events plus makeFirstResponder together do not cause the keyboard to show on a UITextField. Plain vanilla code follows; I include it so others can discern what is NOT there and therefore what, presumably, with solve the problem. I put in leading spaces to format this question more like code, but the parser seems to have stripped them, thus leaving left-justified code. Sorry! UITextFieldDelete, check: @interface RevenueViewController : UIViewController <UITableViewDelegate, UITableViewDataSource, UITextFieldDelegate> { UILabel *sgmntdControlLabel; UISegmentedControl *sgmntdControl; UITableView *theTableView; } @property(nonatomic,retain) UISegmentedControl *sgmntdControl; @property(nonatomic,retain) UILabel *sgmntdControlLabel; Delegate and source, check. -(void)loadView; // code CGRect frameTable = CGRectMake(10,0,300,260); theTableView = [[UITableView alloc] initWithFrame:frameTable style:UITableViewStyleGrouped]; [theTableView setDelegate:self]; [theTableView setDataSource:self]; // code [self.view addSubview:theTableView]; [super viewDidLoad]; } Insert UITextField to cell, check. - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { NSInteger sectionNmbr = [indexPath section]; NSInteger rowNmbr = [indexPath row]; NSLog(@"cellForRowAtIndexPath=%d, %d",sectionNmbr,rowNmbr); static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } // Configure the cell. switch (sectionNmbr) { case 0: if (rowNmbr == 0) { cell.tag = 1; cell.textLabel.text = @"Label for sctn 0, row 0"; UITextField *tf = [[UITextField alloc] init]; tf.keyboardType = UIKeyboardTypeNumberPad; tf.returnKeyType = UIReturnKeyDone; tf.delegate = self; [cell.contentView addSubview:tf]; } if (rowNmbr == 1) { cell.tag = 2; cell.textLabel.text = @"Label for sctn 0, row 1"; cell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryDetailDisclosureButton; } break; } } Successfully end up where we want to be (?), no check, (and no keyboard!): - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { NSLog(@"didSelectRowAtIndexPath"); switch (indexPath.section) { case 0: NSLog(@" section=0, rowNmbr=%d",indexPath.row); switch (indexPath.row) { case 0: UITableViewCell *cellSelected = [tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath: indexPath]; UITextField *textField = [[cellSelected.contentView subviews] objectAtIndex: 0]; [ textField setEnabled: YES ]; [textField becomeFirstResponder]; // here is where keyboard will appear? [tableView deselectRowAtIndexPath: indexPath animated: NO]; break; case 1: // code break; default: break; } break; case 1: // code break; default: // handle otherwise un-handled exception break; } } Thank you for your insights!

    Read the article

  • Java Socket - how to catch Exception of BufferedReader.readline()

    - by Hasan Tahsin
    I have a Thread (let's say T1) which reads data from socket: public void run() { while (running) { try { BufferedReader reader = new BufferedReader( new InputStreamReader(socket.getInputStream()) ); String input = reader.readLine(); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } } Another Thread (lets say T2) try to finish the program in one of its method. Therefore T2 does the following: T1.running = false; socket.close(); Here is this scenario for which i couldn't find a solution: T1 is active and waiting for some input to read i.e. blocking. context switching T2 is active and sets running to false, closes the socket context switching because T1 was blocking and T2 closed the socket, T1 throws an Exception. What i want is to catch this SocketException. i can't put a try/catch(SocketException) in T1.run(). So how can i catch it in T1's running-method? If it's not possible to catch it in T1's running, then how can i catch it elsewhere? PS: "Another question about the Thread Debugging" Normally when i debug the code step by step, i lose the 'active running line' on a context switch. Let's say i'm in line 20 of T1, context switch happens, let's assume the program continues from the 30.line of T2, but the debugger does not go/show to the 30.line of T2, instead the 'active running line' vanishes. So i lose the control over the code. I use Eclipse for Java and Visual Studio for C#. So what is the best way to track the code while debugging on a context switch ?

    Read the article

  • strange doctrine update problem

    - by larryzhao
    Hi, guys, I have a simple table like following: class SnookerCurrentInfo extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('current_frame_id', 'integer', 4, array('notnull' => 'false')); $this->hasColumn('current_player_id', 'integer', 4, array('notnull' => 'false')); $this->hasColumn('current_score1', 'integer', 4, array('notnull' => 'false')); $this->hasColumn('current_score2', 'integer', 4, array('notnull' => 'false')); } public function setUp(){ $this->setTableName('snooker_current_info'); } } and I would like to keep only one entry in this table. So every time the value is changed I read the entry with id = 1 out and change the object and execute save. like the following: $info = Doctrine::getTable('SnookerCurrentInfo')->find(1); $info->current_frame_id = $jsonInfo['current_frame_id']; $info->current_player_id = $jsonInfo['current_player_id']; $info->current_score1 = $jsonInfo['current_score1']; $info->current_score2 = $jsonInfo['current_score2']; $info->save(); but the strange thing is, I try to make it clear. Let's say at first, the entry is (30, 1, 1, 0) and I switch player, so update the entry to (30, 2, 1, 0). and I switch the player back again, so the entry should be updated to (30, 1, 1, 0), but this is not affected to the database!! In the database, the entry still remains as (30, 2, 1, 0)!!!! But if after (30, 2, 1, 0), I update the score to (30, 2, 1, 1) and then switch the player back (30, 1, 1, 1) then this is ok. What's that? How should I deal with it? Thanks for a lot helping, really urgent!!

    Read the article

  • Using JavaScript, how do I write the same text to multiple HTML elements, or how do I write text to all HTML elements of the same class?

    - by myfavoritenoisemaker
    I am writing this program to take a root music note and populate tables with various scales from that root note. So, many of the tables cells will have the exact same value in them. I realize I can call my "useScale" function for every single that I need to write text to but since there will be repeats, it seemed like there should be a way to run my function once and apply the results to multiple but it did not work to use the document.getElementsByClassName("").innerHTML, I had been using "ById" which worked fine but each ID must be unique so, I can't write to multiple elements. Here's my code, I'd love some suggestions. many thanks Root Note <input type="text" name="defineRootNote" id="rootNoteCapture" size="2"/> <button onclick="findScale()">Submit</button> <table id="majorTriad"> <th>Major Triad</th> <tr><td>1st</td><td class="root"> </td></tr> <tr><td>3rd</td><td class="3rd"> </td></tr> <tr><td>5th</td><td class="5th"> </td></tr> </table> <table id="minorTriad"> <th>Minor Triad</th> <tr><td>1st</td><td class="root"> </td></tr> <tr><td>3 Flat</td><td class="3Flat"> </td></tr> <tr><td>5th</td><td class="5th"> </td></tr> </table> <script type="text/javascript"> function findScale(rootNote){ var rootNote = document.getElementById("rootNoteCapture").value; rootNote = rootNote.toUpperCase(); var scaleCheck = ["A", "A#", "AB", "B", "BB", "C", "C#", "D", "D#", "DB", "E", "EB", "F", "F#", "G", "G#", "GB"]; if (scaleCheck.indexOf(rootNote) == -1) { document.getElementById("root").innerHTML = "Invalid Entry"; } else { switch(rootNote){ case "AB": rootNote = "G#"; break; case "BB": rootNote = "A#"; break; case "DB": rootNote = "C#"; break; case "EB": rootNote = "D#"; break; case "GB": rootNote = "F#"; break; rootNote = rootNote; } document.getElementsByClassName("root").innerHTML = rootNote; document.getElementsByClassName("3rd").innerHTML = useScale(rootNote, 4); document.getElementsByClassName("5th").innerHTML = useScale(rootNote, 7); document.getElementsByClassName("3Flat").innerHTML = useScale(rootNote, 3); } } function useScale(startPoint, offset){ var scale = ["A", "A#", "B", "C", "C#", "D", "D#", "E", "F", "F#", "G", "G#"]; var returnNote = null; var scalePoint = scale.indexOf(startPoint); for (var i = 0; i < offset; ){ i = i + 1; //console.log(i); //console.log(scalePoint); scalePoint ++; if (scalePoint > 11) {scalePoint = 0;} } returnNote = scale[scalePoint]; return returnNote; } </script>

    Read the article

  • SCCM Report to identify machines with 64-bit capable hardware

    - by GAThrawn
    Currently looking at deployment options for Windows 7. One of the questions we're looking into is 32 bit vs 63 bit. I'm trying to run a SCCM report against our estate to identify which machines are 64-bit capable (whether or not they're currently running a 64-bit OS). There seem to be a few resources out on the net for this (here, here and here) but none of them seem to work right on machines running 32-bit Windows XP. 32-bit XP machines seem to always report that they're running on 32-bit hardware. The query I'm currently running is: select sys.netbios_name0, sys.Operating_System_Name_and0 as OperatingSystem, case when pr.addresswidth0=64 then '64bit OS' when pr.addresswidth0=32 then '32bit OS' end as [Operating System Type], case when pr.DataWidth0=64 then '64bit Processor' when pr.DataWidth0=32 then '32bit Processor' end as [Processor Type], case when pr.addresswidth0=32 and pr.DataWidth0=64 then 'YES' end as [32-bit OS on x64 processor] from v_r_system sys join v_gs_processor pr on sys.resourceid=pr.resourceid I've also tried this, which reports all "Windows XP Professional" systems are on "X86-based PC", not x64 based even though a number of them definitely are: select OS.Caption0, CS.SystemType0, Count(*) from dbo.v_GS_COMPUTER_SYSTEM CS Left Outer Join dbo.v_GS_OPERATING_SYSTEM OS on CS.ResourceID = OS.ResourceId Group by OS.Caption0, CS.SystemType0 Order by OS.Caption0, CS.SystemType0 For instance we have a set of Dell Latitude E4200 laptops. Some of these are running 32-bit Windows XP SP3, some of them are running 32-bit Windows 7, some are running 64-bit Windows 7. All the laptops are identical, having come from the same order. Out of these the Windows 7 (32 and 64-bit) report that the hardware is 64-bit capable, and the Windows XP machines report that they're only 32-bit capable. Does anyone know if there's another value I can query to get the hardware's capabilities correctly on XP, or is there a hotfix that will get it reporting the correct info?

    Read the article

  • Broadcom NIC Teaming w/ 802.3ad and Dell Powerconnect 2824

    - by Carltoncl
    We have a Poweredge R210 running WS2K8R2. The server has two Broadcom 5716C NICs running Broadcom BASP. I can team the NICs using the 802.3ad protocol on the server end no problem. I have no VLAN. Now I go to the 2824 switch (default settings all round) running in managed mode and create a LAG with ports g1 and g2. As soon as I add these ports, I lose the ability to send traffic to or from the server. I am much more of a server guy than a networking guy, what am I doing wrong here? Server Static IP Address: 10.10.61.15 Network mask: 255.255.255.0 Gateway: 10.10.61.51 The 2824 switch has an IP address of 10.10.61.51 and in turn has its gateway as our firewall server running ISA Server at 10.10.61.50.

    Read the article

  • Changes made to cli's php.ini not taking effect

    - by Sandeepan Nath
    I have two php.ini files - /etc/php.ini which loads in case of cli /opt/lampp/etc/php.ini which loads in case of browser. I am able to use PHP's Mailparse extension after adding the line extension=mailparse.so in the /opt/lampp/etc/php.ini and restarting lampp. But I am not able to load the same in case of command line - getting PHP Fatal error: Call to undefined function mailparse_msg_create() in ... mailparse_msg_create() is a part of the Mailparse extension. I tried by relogging with the user after making the change and even restarting the system. What needs to be done so that the change takes effect. Update I checked that php -i | grep 'Configuration File' gives PHP Warning: PHP Startup: Unable to load dynamic library '/usr/lib/php/modules/mailparse.so' - /usr/lib/php/modules/mailparse.so: cannot open shared object file: No such file or directory in Unknown on line 0 Configuration File (php.ini) Path => /etc Loaded Configuration File => /etc/php.ini Update 2 I copied the mailparse.so from /opt/lampp/lib/php/extensions/no-debug-non-zts-20090626 and put it in /usr/lib/php/modules. I added extension=mailparse.so to /etc/php.ini as well. But it still showed this warning PHP Warning: PHP Startup: Unable to load dynamic library ... As told by Lekensteyn, I did ldd /usr/lib/php/modules/mailparse.so and got ldd: warning: you do not have execution permission for /usr/lib/php/modules/mailparse.so' So I gave execute permission. Then ldd /usr/lib/php/modules/mailparse.so showed linux-gate.so.1 => (0x00110000) libc.so.6 => /lib/libc.so.6 (0x0011d000) /lib/ld-linux.so.2 (0x003aa000) which looks normal. BUt now, running php command says PHP Warning: PHP Startup: Unable to load dynamic library '/usr/lib/php/modules/mailparse.so' - /usr/lib/php/modules/mailparse.so: undefined symbol: mbfl_name2no_encoding in Unknown on line 0

    Read the article

  • My linux server time and log files are not the same

    - by Martin
    Hi i have installed NTP on my linux server and i am getting my clock from a 6500 core switch, everything is working fine. When i ssh to a switch i have it all sent to a log file on the linux server, this log file does not time stamp with the same time as i have on the server. the date and hwclock are the same. But my my is exatly 6 hours behind my date on the server wich is CET. Has annyone have that same problem ? bedst regards Martin

    Read the article

  • Share folder and access this folder on different domain

    - by michel
    the following situations: i have two pc's. My work desktop with XP and logged on in domain mywork.com. This desktop also has two network card. one for logging on the mywork.com domain and using the intranet etc. this desktop also has a network card with access to a switch. the other pc is a windows 7 pc. with is logged in to workgroup domain and also access the switch. now i want to access a shared folder from XP with my 7. but this is not possible because XP is in a different domain. 7 is asked for a user and password but i can't fill in my "mywork.com" login. how can i solve this?

    Read the article

  • NIC Teaming HP Server running Win2003

    - by Colm
    Hello everyone. I'm new to server NIC TEaming. I have a HP ProLiant DL360 G4p running Win2003 with 2 NICs , only one is currently active. I'd like to activate the 2nd NIC connected (in a active/passive state) to a 2nd switch with only one IP address and ideally only one mac layer address. The 1st switch is a Cisco 2960G and the 2nd is a Cisco C3560G. There are VLANS, RSTP and PAGP in use already. Can someone give me an idea, in broad terms , of what technology/protocols I should be investigating (HSRP, SLB/TLB Teaming etc.) ? I can provide more info if needed. Thanks, Colm.

    Read the article

  • Option 82 and dhcpd. "No free leases" for second computer

    - by SaveTheRbtz
    There is DHCP server in network (isc-dhcpd-server-3.0 on FreeBSD 7.2) than gives one IP per switch port to every user via Option 82 The problem appears when user disconnects one of his computers and connects another(i.e notebook with different MAC address) then DHCPD puts to log "...network net1: no free leases", because there is record in leases file that this IP is already owned by another MAC. That second computer will have his IP only after default-lease-time (that is IIRC minimum 10min, and after 3min he usually calling support) or after deletion of dhcpd.leases file and restart of dhcpd. Is there a way to turn leases off at all, because we have strict binding between switch-port-ip?

    Read the article

  • network design to segregate public and staff

    - by barb
    My current setup has: a pfsense firewall with 4 NICs and potential for a 5th 1 48 port 3com switch, 1 24 port HP switch, willing to purchase more subnet 1) edge (Windows Server 2003 for vpn through routing and remote access) and subnet 2) LAN with one WS2003 domain controller/dns/wins etc., one WS2008 file server, one WS2003 running Vipre anti-virus and Time Limit Manager which controls client computer use, and about 50 pcs I am looking for a network design for separating clients and staff. I could do two totally isolated subnets, but I'm wondering if there is anything in between so that staff and clients could share some resources such as printers and anti-virus servers, staff could access client resources, but not vice versa. I guess what I'm asking is can you configure subnets and/or vlans like this: 1)edge for vpn 2)services available to all other internal networks 3)staff which can access services and clients 4)clients which can access services but not staff By access/non-access, I mean stronger separation than domain usernames and passwords.

    Read the article

  • Migrating from DD-WRT to Tomato

    - by Collin Allen
    Is it possible to switch to the latest version of Tomato on a router that's already running DD-WRT? Using the default Linksys firmware on my WRT54GL v1.1, I had to upload a micro version of DD-WRT first. I imagine that, since I'm now running third-party firmware, I won't have to do that again to make the switch, but I thought I should check so as not to brick it. This router is taking a back seat to a new AirPort Extreme (for the 'n' capability), but I still want to have the soon-to-be-Tomato device sit between the AirPort Extreme and my modem for the superior traffic graphing.

    Read the article

  • Setup Cisco RVS4000 QOS for VOIP

    - by andyknas
    Just switched from dedicated T1's with analog phone lines to cable modem with 10/2 uplink. We're having some VOIP call quality issues on the outgoing side when bandwidth is stressed and I need to setup QOS or a VLAN on our RVS4000 router. Currently all phone traffic (talkswitch device and ip phones) are on it's own d-link PoE switch, and all workstations are on a LinkSys 1GB switch. Both switches are plugged into ports on the RVS4000. I'd like to set it up so that the dlink port has ~512Mbsp dedicated to it for voice at all times. It's my understanding that with a VLAN or QOS I can set this up. I've got QOS setup already with port 5060 to have high priority but it doesn't seem to make a difference.

    Read the article

  • Synergy setup broke on upgrade

    - by CoatedMoose
    I had synergy setup working fine with version 1.3.7, however I got a new computer and decided to set it up as well. Because the setup I was working with was ubuntu (server - dual monitors) mac (client) and the new computer (replacing the mac) was windows, I ended up updating everything to 1.4.10. ______ ______ ______ | mac | ubu1 | ubu2 | |______|______|______| The problem is currently that dragging to the left of ubu1 causes the cursor on the mac to flicker briefly and then the cursor shows up at the bottom right corner of ubu2. Here is my .synergy.conf section: screens Andrews-Mac-Mini: ctrl = ctrl alt = meta super = alt Andrew-Ubuntu: end section: links Andrew-Ubuntu: left = Andrews-Mac-Mini Andrews-Mac-Mini: right = Andrew-Ubuntu end And the output from synergys -f NOTE: client "Andrews-Mac-Mini" has connected INFO: switch from "Andrew-Ubuntu" to "Andrews-Mac-Mini" at 1679,451 INFO: leaving screen INFO: screen "Andrew-Ubuntu" updated clipboard 0 INFO: screen "Andrew-Ubuntu" updated clipboard 1 INFO: switch from "Andrews-Mac-Mini" to "Andrew-Ubuntu" at 2398,833 INFO: entering screen

    Read the article

  • Accessing two networks connected to gateway from behind the gateway

    - by Babar
    I have a Windows XP machine acting as internet gateway. It is connected to two different networks, one, say LAN1, connects to internet and other, say LAN2, to outside LAN. My machine is sitting behind the gateway. I have set up internet connection sharing on LAN1 and can access internet on my machine but i can't access anything from LAN2. Is it possible to access internet from LAN1 and yet be able to access PC's on LAN2? -------------- --------- | Lan 1 | | Lan 2 | | (Internet) | --------- -------------- ^ ^ | | | -------------------------- | Win XP Gateway | -------------------------- ^ | -------------- | My Machine | -------------- EDIT: Gateway is equipped with 3 lan sockets, two are connected to Lan 1 & 2, third one is connected to switch. And my machine also connects to that same switch.

    Read the article

  • What is a good layout for a somewhat advanced home network and storage solution?

    - by Shaun
    My home network/storage needs are changing and I am searching for some opinions and starting points on what a good network/storage layout would be that can serve my needs for a few years into the future. I think I have a decent starting point for equipment, but I am also willing to invest fairly heavily in a solution that can last me for a while. I am a bit of a tech nerd and I have a moderate tolerance for setup of the solution. I would prefer if maintenance of the system is somewhat low once it is setup, but I am willing to accept some tradeoffs. Existing equipment: Router - Netgear WNDR3700 (gigabit) Router - DLink Gamerlounge DGL-4300 (gigabit) Switch - 16 port Trendnet green switch (gigabit) Switch - 5 port Trendnet green (gigabit) Computer - i7-950 office computer (gigabit ethernet) Computer - Q6600 quad core media center, hooked up to TV, records shows (gigabit ethernet) Computer - Acer 1810T ultraportable laptop (gigabit and N ethernet) NAS - Intel SS4200-E (gigabit) External hard drive - 2TB WD Green drive (esata) All kinds of miscellaneous network connected TV, Bluray, Verizon network extender, HDhomerun TV tuners, etc. Requirements: -Robust backup solution for a growing collection of huge family picture files and personal files, around 1.5TB. (Including offsite backup) -Central location for all user's files, while also keeping them secure from each other. -Storage for terabytes of movie backups and recorded TV, and access to them from all computers (maybe around 4TB eventually) -Possibility to host files to friends and family easily Nice to have: -Backup of terabytes of movie backups Intriguing possibilities: -Capability to have users' Windows desktops and files look the same from all network computers I am not sure if the new Windows Home Server 2011 would fit into this well, if I need a domain server, how best to organize my backups, or how to most effectively use RAID. Currently I am simply backing up all computers to a RAID 1 on the NAS box, which I was thinking could prevent a situation where I reach for a backup and find that the disk is corrupt. One possibility that I am thinking about now is simply using my media center PC with a huge RAID of hard drives on which all files are stored. Pseudo-backup of all files would be present because of the RAID, but important files would also be backed up off site via carrying hard drives to work. But what if corruption seeps into the files and the corrupted data is then backed up? Does RAID protect against this? I really want to take next to zero risks with the irreplaceable files. I can handle some degree of risk with the movies and other files. I'm looking for critiques on this idea as well as other possibilities. To summarize, my goal is high functionality, media capable, and robust backup of irreplaceable files.

    Read the article

  • Dvorak hotkey remapping in vim, worth it?

    - by Bryan Ward
    I've been trying to learn the dvorak keyboard layout of late and I have been making some good progress this time around. The trouble I am finding now is that all of my hotkeys are all in the wrong places. As a vim user this is particularly troubling. I have found good resources to switch the bindings back so that they are in the places in vim, but I wonder if this is worth it. I also use set -o vi in my ~/.zshrc file so that I can use the familiar bindings in the terminal as well. hjkl navigation is also featured in a number of other applications such as less. For those of you out there who have successfully made the switch, is it worth remapping things to be familiar again, or is it better in the long run to just deal with weirdly placed hotkeys?

    Read the article

  • How do I add a broadcast IP to the loopback interface under os/x using ifconfig when my machine has no network?

    - by bandodeotarios
    I'm new to advanced network administration and I would like to do some testing with UDP broadcasting, so I need a broadcast address on my loopback interface. The machine is offline, in other words, there is no network. How can I accomplish that through ifconfig without having to buy a switch as one user in the comments suggested. In Linux all i have to do is use 127.255.255.255 and broadcasts work fine without any network or any switch. If I have a network i can just use 255.255.255.255, obviously.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148  | Next Page >