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  • Storing Credit Card Numbers in SESSION - ways around it?

    - by JM4
    I am well aware of PCI Compliance so don't need an earful about storing CC numbers (and especially CVV nums) within our company database during checkout process. However, I want to be safe as possible when handling sensitive consumer information and am curious how to get around passing CC numbers from page to page WITHOUT using SESSION variables if at all possible. My site is built in this way: Step 1) collect Credit Card information from customer - when customer hits submit, the information is first run through JS validation, then run through PHP validation, if all passes he moves to step 2. Step 2) Information is displayed on a review page for customer to make sure the details of their upcoming transaction are shown. Only the first 6 and last 4 of the CC are shown on this page but card type, and exp date are shwon fully. If he clicks proceed, Step 3) The information is sent to another php page which runs one last validation, sends information through secure payment gateway, and string is returned with details. Step 4) If all is good and well, the consumer information (personal, not CC) is stored in DB and redirected to a completion page. If anything is bad, he is informed and told to revisit the CC processing page to try again (max of 3 times). Any suggestions?

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  • Problem importing Oracle .dmp file

    - by BitFiddler
    So I have looked at all the suggested ways of importing .dmp files and non of them seem to answer this question: where does the data go once you import it? Context: I created a user like so: SQL> create user IMPORTER identified by "12345"; SQL> grant connect, unlimited tablespace, resource to IMPORTER; I then ran the 'imp' command as follows: C:\>imp system/password FROMUSER=OVIEDOE TOUSER=IMPORTER file=c:\database1.dmp Now there were 9 .dmp files, after each one it asked me for the next one and then I received the message "Import terminated successfully with warnings." The warning was: Warning: the objects were exported by OVIEDOE, not by you import done in WE8MSWIN1252 character set and AL16UTF16 NCHAR character set export client uses WE8ISO8859P1 character set (possible charset conversion) IMP-00046: using FILESIZE value from export file of 2147483648 Now it says it was terminated successfully so my assumption (I am new to oracle so this may be wrong) is that the data was loaded. However, when I use SQL developer to connect to the database and look under the 'tables' node under the IMPORTER user, there is nothing there. What is going on? Did the data load? If so, where can I find it?

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  • PHP & MySQL Image deletion problem?

    - by IMAGE
    I have this script that deletes a users avatar image that is stored in a folder name thumbs and another named images and the image name is stored in a mysql database. But for some reason the script deletes all the users info for example if the users id is 3 all of the users info like first name last name age and so are deleted as well, basically everything is deleted including the user how do I fix this so only the images and image name is deleted? Here is the code. $user_id = '3'; if (isset($_POST['delete_image'])) { $a = "SELECT * FROM users WHERE avatar = '". $avatar ."' AND user_id = '". $user_id ."'"; $r = mysqli_query ($mysqli, $a) or trigger_error("Query: $a\n<br />MySQL Error: " . mysqli_error($mysqli)); if ($r == TRUE) { unlink("../members/" . $user_id . "/images/" . $avatar); unlink("../members/" . $user_id . "/images/thumbs/" . $avatar); $a = "DELETE FROM users WHERE avatar = '". $avatar ."' AND user_id = '". $user_id ."'"; $r = mysqli_query ($mysqli, $a) or trigger_error("Query: $a\n<br />MySQL Error: " . mysqli_error($mysqli)); } }

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  • Lost in dates and timezones

    - by Sebastien
    I'm working on an application that stores conferences with their start and end date. Up until now, I was developing in Belgium and my server is in France, so everything is in the same timezone, no problem. But today, I'm in San Francisco, my server is in France and I noticed I have a bug. I'm setting dates from a Flex client (ActionScript automatically adapts date display according to client local timezone, which is GMT-8 for me today. My server runs on Hibernate and MySQL in France (GMT+1). So when I look at my database using phpMyAdmin, I see a date set to "2010-06-07 00:00:01" but in my Flex client it displays "2010-06-06 15:00:01". Ultimately, what I want is that the dates are displayed in the local timezone of the event, which is the date I set it to. So when I'm in Belgium and I set the start date of an event to be "2010-06-07 00:00:01" I want to retrieve it that way. But I'm lost as to what layer adapts what. Is timezone stored in DATETIME MySQL columns (I can't see it in MySQL)? Does Hibernate to anything to it when it transfers it to java.lang.Date that has Timezone information? And ultimately, what is the best way to solve this mess?

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  • "A generic error occurred in GDI+" error while showing uploaded images

    - by Prasad
    i am using the following code to show the image that has been saved in my database from my asp.net mvc(C#) application:. public ActionResult GetSiteHeaderLogo() { SiteHeader _siteHeader = new SiteHeader(); Image imgImage = null; long userId = Utility.GetUserIdFromSession(); if (userId > 0) { _siteHeader = this.siteBLL.GetSiteHeaderLogo(userId); if (_siteHeader.Logo != null && _siteHeader.Logo.Length > 0) { byte[] _imageBytes = _siteHeader.Logo; if (_imageBytes != null) { using (System.IO.MemoryStream imageStream = new System.IO.MemoryStream(_imageBytes)) { imgImage = Image.FromStream(imageStream); } } string sFileExtension = _siteHeader.FileName.Substring(_siteHeader.FileName.IndexOf('.') + 1, _siteHeader.FileName.Length - (_siteHeader.FileName.IndexOf('.') + 1)); Response.ContentType = Utility.GetContentTypeByExtension(sFileExtension.ToLower()); Response.Cache.SetCacheability(HttpCacheability.NoCache); Response.BufferOutput = false; if (imgImage != null) { ImageFormat _imageFormat = Utility.GetImageFormat(sFileExtension.ToLower()); imgImage.Save(Response.OutputStream, _imageFormat); imgImage.Dispose(); } } } return new EmptyResult(); } It works fine when i upload original image. But when i upload any downloaded images, it throws the following error: System.Runtime.InteropServices.ExternalException: A generic error occurred in GDI+. System.Runtime.InteropServices.ExternalException: A generic error occurred in GDI+. at System.Drawing.Image.Save(Stream stream, ImageCodecInfo encoder, EncoderParameters encoderParams) at System.Drawing.Image.Save(Stream stream, ImageFormat format) For. Ex: When i upload the original image, it shows as logo in my site and i downloaded that logo from the site and when i re-upload the same downloaded image, it throws the above error. It seems very weird to me and not able to find why its happening. Any ideas on this?

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  • Rails - Help scoring an online quiz in RoR

    - by ChrisWesAllen
    I'm trying to grade a quiz application I would like to make. I have a questions model with and ask(the actual question), 4 choices(a-d), and a correct answer(string). In the view I have the 4 question being diplayed then the correct answer choice (This is just a test for functionality) and then I created a text_field to accept the users answer choice and a button to refresh the index action which has the scoring logic, for now.. --Do I need to put the text_field within a form_tag? <p>1. <%= h @question.q1 %></p> <p>2. <%= h @question.q2 %></p> <p>3. <%= h @question.q3 %></p> <p>4. <%= h @question.q4 %></p> <p>Answer: <%= h @question.correct %></p> <%= text_field_tag :choice, params[:choice] %> <%= button_to "Grade", {:controller => 'site', :action => "index"} %> <p> <%= @answer %></p> Heres the index controller action def index @question = Question.find(1) if @question.correct == params[:choice] @answer = 'right' else @answer = 'wrong' end end Its not really working. The textfield is supposed to take a letter choice like 'a' or 'c' and compare it with the correct answer in the database. I would love this to work by radiobuttons, but I'm a newbie to rails so I thought I'd take baby steps. So if anyone can help me with how to fix this by string, or preferably by radiobuttons, I'd really appreciate it.

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  • Receive JSON payload with ZEND framework and / or PHP

    - by kent3800
    I'm receiving a JSON payload from a webservice at my site's internal webpage at /asset/setjob. The following is the JSON payload being posted to /asset/setjob: [{"job": {"source_filename": "beer-drinking-pig.mpg", "current_step": "waiting_for_file", "encoding_profile_id": "nil", "resolution": "nil", "status_url": "http://example.com/api/v1/jobs/1.json", "id": 1, "bitrate": "nil", "current_status": "waiting for file", "current_progress": "nil", "remote_id": "my-own-remote-id"}}] This payload posts one time to this page. The page is not meant for viewing but parsing the JSON object for the id and current_status so that I can insert it into a database. I'm using Zend framework. HOW DO I receive this payload in Zend? Do I $_GET['json']? $_POST['job']? None of these seem to work. I essentially need to assign this payload to a php variable so that I can then manipulate it. I've tried: $jsonStrGet = var_dump($_GET); $jsonStrPost = var_dump($_POST); And I've tried: $response = $this-getResponse(); $body = $response-getBody(); Blockquote Any help would be much appreciated! Thanks.

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  • Producing a Form from an Overlay from Reporting Services rdlc Reports

    - by Mike Wills
    I am not sure what you call it in other technologies, on the IBM i (or iSeries) we call it overlays. The overlay is an image of a form that is stored on the server then a program generates the form with fields from the database so you can eliminate preprinted forms. I had a problem last year with the method I was trying at the time. It was a rush job at the time to be revisited at a later point. The work-around at the time was to export to PDF. So now it is "later" and once again is a rush (imagine that). This is all done through a web-based interface. So how do you generate forms from something that was once a preprinted form? What method do you recommend? This is a legal form and must be filled out a certain way and can have many in a batch (up to 50 or so). I would prefer to not have them print one page at a time. Any ideas would be appreciated!

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  • How to make NSIS create a file in an %APPDATA% of another user?

    - by SCO
    I wrote an NSIS installer script for postgresql 9.1. The installer works properly, but after the reboot, the service is not started (right after the install, the database started properly though) I guess this is because the postgres service user has no pgpass.conf file in its %APPDATA%. As far as I understand my install script, the pgpass.conf file is added to the %APPDATA% of the user running the installer (an administrator account in my case). This will not help. I tried the following, to add the pgpass.conf to all users, bt I guess this adds it to a kind of wildcard, not to the %APPDATA% of each user : SetShellVarContext "all" SetOutPath "$APPDATA\postgresql" File config\pgpass.conf SetShellVarContext "current" SetOutPath "$APPDATA\postgresql" File config\pgpass.conf I couldn't find the macro name for c:/Users/postgres in the documentation. This could be a way to achieve it. But with WindowsXP, 7, I wish I need a portable way to address the /Users directory. I wish I could use something like SetShellVarContext "postgres", and then have NSIS write the pgpass.conf file in c:\Users\postgres\AppData\postgresql. Is there a way to do this ? Thnk you !

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  • Hibernate collection mapping Problem

    - by Geln Yang
    Hi, There is a table Item like, code,name 01,parent1 02,parent2 0101,child11 0102,child12 0201,child21 0202,child22 Create a java object and hbm xml to map the table.The Item.parent is a Item whose code is equal to the first two characters of its code : class Item{ String code; String name; Item parent; List<Item> children; .... setter/getter.... } <hibernate-mapping> <class name="Item" table="Item"> <id name="code" length="4" type="string"> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> <property name="name" column="name" length="50" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="parent" class="Item" not-found="ignore"> <formula> <![CDATA[ (select i.code,r.name from Item i where (case length(code) when 4 then i.code=SUBSTRING(code,1,2) else false end)) ]]> </formula> </many-to-one> <bag name="children"></bag> </class> </hibernate-mapping> I try to use formula to define the many-to-one relationship,but it doesn't work!Is there something wrong?Or is there other method? Thanks! ps,I use mysql database.

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  • How do I append Word templates to a new document in VB.NET?

    - by Tom
    I'm poking around to see if this app can be done. Basically the end user needs to create a bunch of export documents that are populated from a database. There will be numerous document templates (.dot) and the end result will be the user choosing templates x y and z to include for documentation, click a button and have the app create a new Word document, append the templates, and then populate the templates with the appropriate data. The reason it needs to be done in Word as opposed to something like Crystal Reports is that the user may customize some fields before printing the documents as it can vary from export to export. Is this possible to do through VB.NET (VS 2010)? I assume it is but I'm having difficulty tracking down a solution. Or alternatively is there a better solution? Here's what I have so far (not much I know) Import Microsoft.Office.Interop Public Class Form1 Private Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim oWord As Word.Application Dim oDoc As Word.Document oWord = CreateObject("Word.Application") oWord.Visible = False oDoc = oWord.Documents.Add 'Open templates x.dot, y.dot, z.dot 'Append above templates to new document created 'Populate new document oWord.Visible = True End Sub End Class Thanks.

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  • SqlCE DB occasionally freezes on one handheld, not another

    - by Michael
    I have two types of custom handhelds which are similar, but slightly different, each running the same WinForm application and a WinCE database: Type 1: WinCE 4.2, 400 mhz, 93244 kb Type 2: WinCE 5.0, 520 mhz, 84208 kb Type 1 will happily proceed through a large batch db operation (initiated) by the app, by Type 2 will consistently begin c-r-a-w-l-i-n-g (for several to many cycles) at around the 200 cycle mark. As several points it will begin running normally and then crawl again. The app does several db op's (inserts, updates and selects, no deletes). To simplify my situation, I've built a small test app which essentially does this: command_s.CommandText = "select dvr from vr where vid = 2211250"; command_u.CommandText = "update pvr set LocationID=81 where Status='OK' and vri = 27861"; while(going) { command_s.ExecuteScalar(); command_u.ExecuteNonQuery(); } and set it off running on the two units side by side. Sure enough, the slower (400 mhz) unit is outpacing the faster (520 mhz) unit (it's about 5000 cycles ahead right now) and I can see noticable pauses on the 520 mhz unit. What is causing this?

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  • Git: changes not reflecting on other checkouts - huh?

    - by Chad Johnson
    Okay, so, I have my branches (git branch -a): * chat master remotes/origin/HEAD -> origin/master remotes/origin/chat I make changes (still with the 'chat' branch checkout out), commit, and push. I go to my server, on which I have a clone of the repository, and I do a fetch: git getch then I switch to the chat branch: git checkout --track -b chat origin/chat and I event do a pull, just to make sure everything is up to date: git pull and my changes from my other computer are NOT. THERE. What the heck am I doing wrong? If I had hair, I would have pulled it out. Thankfully I am bald. When I try a 'git commit' again, I get this # On branch chat # Changed but not updated: # (use "git add/rm <file>..." to update what will be committed) # (use "git checkout -- <file>..." to discard changes in working directory) # # modified: app/controllers/chat_controller.rb # modified: app/views/dashboard/index.html.erb # modified: app/views/dashboard/layout.js.erb # modified: app/views/layouts/dashboard.html.erb # deleted: app/views/project/.tmp_edit.html.erb.55742~ # deleted: app/views/project/.tmp_edit.html.erb.83482~ # modified: public/stylesheets/dashboard/layout.css # # Untracked files: # (use "git add <file>..." to include in what will be committed) # # .loadpath # .project # config/database.yml # config/environments/development.yml # config/environments/production.yml # config/environments/test.yml # log/ no changes added to commit (use "git add" and/or "git commit -a")

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  • Returning data from SQL Server reporting web service call

    - by user79339
    Hi, I am generating a report that contains the version number. The version number is stored in the DB and retrieved/incremented as part of the report generation. The only problem is, I am calling SSRS via a web service call, which returns the generated report as a byte array. Is there any way to get the version number out of this generated report? For example to display a dialog that says "You generated Status Report, Version number 3". I tried passing in an output parameter and setting it inside the storedproc. Its modified when i execute it in sql management studio, but not in the reporting studio. Or atleast i can't seem to bind to the modified, post execution value (using expression "=Parameters!ReportVersion.Value"). Of course, I could get/increment the version number from database myself before calling the SSRS webservice and pass it along as a parameter to the Report, but that might cause concurrancy problems. On the whole, it just seems neater for the storedproc to access/generate a version number and return it to the ReportingEngine, which will generate the report with the version number and return the updated version number to the WebService client. Any thoughts/Ideas?

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  • Asp.Net MVC - Binding of parameter to model value!

    - by Pino
    This seems like the model binding is causing me issues. Essentially I have a model called ProductOption and for the purpose of this question it has 2 fields ID (Int) PK ProductID (Int) FK I have a standard route set-up context.MapRoute( "Product_default", "Product/{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Product", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } ); and if the user wants to add an option the URL is, /Product/Options/Add/1 in the above URL 1 is the ProductID, I have the following code to return a blank model the the view, [HttpGet] public ActionResult Add(int id) { return View("Manage", new ProductOptionModel() { ProductID = id }); } Now in my view I keep a hidden field <%= Html.HiddenFor(x=>x.ID) %> This is used to determine (on submit) if we are editing or adding a new option. However the Model binder in .net seems to replace .ID (Which was 0 when leaving the above get actionresult) with 1 (or the value of the id parameter in the URL) How can I stop or work around this? ViewModel public class ProductExtraModel { //Database public int ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public int ProductID { get; set; } public ProductModel Product { get; set; } }

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  • What are some methods to prevent double posting in a form? (PHP)

    - by jpjp
    I want to prevent users from accidentally posting a comment twice. I use the PRG (post redirect get) method, so that I insert the data on another page then redirect the user back to the page which shows the comment. This allows users to refresh as many times as they want. However this doesn't work when the user goes back and clicks submit again or when they click submit 100 times really fast. I don't want 100 of the same comments. I looked at related questions on SO and found that a token is best. But I am having trouble using it. //makerandomtoken(20) returns a random 20 length char. <form method="post" ... > <input type="text" id="comments" name="comments" class="commentbox" /><br/> <input type="hidden" name="_token" value="<?php echo $token=makerandomtoken(20); ?>" /> <input type="submit" value="submit" name="submit" /> </form> if (isset($_POST['submit']) && !empty($comments)) { $comments= mysqli_real_escape_string($dbc,trim($_POST['comments'])); //how do I make the if-statment to check if the token has been already set once? if ( ____________){ //don't insert comment because already clicked submit } else{ //insert the comment into the database } } So I have the token as a hidden value, but how do I use that to prevent multiple clicking of submit. METHODS: someone suggested using sessions. I would set the random token to $_SESSION['_token'] and check if that session token is equal to the $_POST['_token'], but how do I do that? When I tried, it still doesn't check

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  • Deserialize xml which uses attribute name/value pairs

    - by Bodyloss
    My application receives a constant stream of xml files which are more or less a direct copy of the database record <record type="update"> <field name="id">987654321</field> <field name="user_id">4321</field> <field name="updated">2011-11-24 13:43:23</field> </record> And I need to deserialize this into a class which provides nullable property's for all columns class Record { public long? Id { get; set; } public long? UserId { get; set; } public DateTime? Updated { get; set; } } I just cant seem to work out a method of doing this without having to parse the xml file manually and switch on the field's name attribute to store the values. Is their a way this can be achieved quickly using an XmlSerializer? And if not is their a more efficient way of parsing it manually? Regards and thanks My main problem is that the attribute name needs to have its value set to a property name and its value as the contents of a <field>..</field> element

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  • Howto use predicates in LINQ to Entities for Entity Framework objects

    - by user274947
    I'm using LINQ to Entities for Entity Framework objects in my Data Access Layer. My goal is to filter as much as I can from the database, without applying filtering logic on in-memory results. For that purpose Business Logic Layer passes a predicate to Data Access Layer. I mean Func<MyEntity, bool> So, if I use this predicate directly, like public IQueryable<MyEntity> GetAllMatchedEntities(Func<MyEntity, Boolean> isMatched) { return qry = _Context.MyEntities.Where(x => isMatched(x)); } I'm getting the exception [System.NotSupportedException] --- {"The LINQ expression node type 'Invoke' is not supported in LINQ to Entities."} Solution in that question suggests to use AsExpandable() method from LINQKit library. But again, using public IQueryable<MyEntity> GetAllMatchedEntities(Func<MyEntity, Boolean> isMatched) { return qry = _Context.MyEntities.AsExpandable().Where(x => isMatched(x)); } I'm getting the exception Unable to cast object of type 'System.Linq.Expressions.FieldExpression' to type 'System.Linq.Expressions.LambdaExpression' Is there way to use predicate in LINQ to Entities query for Entity Framework objects, so that it is correctly transformed it into a SQL statement. Thank you.

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  • Queries within queries: Is there a better way?

    - by mririgo
    As I build bigger, more advanced web applications, I'm finding myself writing extremely long and complex queries. I tend to write queries within queries a lot because I feel making one call to the database from PHP is better than making several and correlating the data. However, anyone who knows anything about SQL knows about JOINs. Personally, I've used a JOIN or two before, but quickly stopped when I discovered using subqueries because it felt easier and quicker for me to write and maintain. Commonly, I'll do subqueries that may contain one or more subqueries from relative tables. Consider this example: SELECT (SELECT username FROM users WHERE records.user_id = user_id) AS username, (SELECT last_name||', '||first_name FROM users WHERE records.user_id = user_id) AS name, in_timestamp, out_timestamp FROM records ORDER BY in_timestamp Rarely, I'll do subqueries after the WHERE clause. Consider this example: SELECT user_id, (SELECT name FROM organizations WHERE (SELECT organization FROM locations WHERE records.location = location_id) = organization_id) AS organization_name FROM records ORDER BY in_timestamp In these two cases, would I see any sort of improvement if I decided to rewrite the queries using a JOIN? As more of a blanket question, what are the advantages/disadvantages of using subqueries or a JOIN? Is one way more correct or accepted than the other?

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  • SQL Server log backups "stalling"

    - by MattK
    I have interited a box running SQL Server 2008 and Windows 2003, and have had a few events where largeish (35GB) log backups "stall", both before and after the installation of SQL 2008 SP1. The server log ships to a standby, so regular log backups are taken at 15 minute intervals. However, after an index reorg causes the log to grow to about 35GB (on a DB with about 17GB of data), the next log backup runs to ~95% completion, then seems to stop. The process shows as suspended, with a wait state of BACKUPIO. CPU, read, and write activity on the SPID also does not change, and the process stays in this state for hours, when normally a backup of this size should complete in about 20 minutes. This server has a single RAID-1 volume, thus the source database files and destination backup files are on the same volume. However, I cannot determine if another process is blocking the backup. The backup SPID cannot be killed, and the only way to terminate the log backup and clear the lock on the backup file is to cycle the SQL Server service. There was one event where the backup terminated completely, with an error that another process had locked the backup file, but no details about what that process was. Can anyone suggest a cause or diagnostic process to this situation?

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  • Is there any way to provide custom factory for .Net Framework creation Entities from EF4 ?

    - by ILICH
    There are a lot of posts about how cool POCO objects are and how Entity Framework 4 supports them. I decided to try it out with domain driven development oriented architecture and finished with domain entities that has dependencies from services. So far so good. Imagine my Products are POCO objects. When i query for objects like this: NorthwindContext db = new NorthwindContext(); var products = db.Products.ToList(); EF creates instances of products for me. Now I want to inject dependencies in my POCO objects (products) The only way I see is make some method within NorthwindContext that makes something like pseudo-code below: public List<Product> GetProducts(){ var products = database.Products.ToList(); container.BuildUp(products); //inject dependencies return products; } But what if i want to make my repository to be more flexible like this: public ObjectSet<Product> GetProducts() { ... } So, I really need a factory to make it more lazy and linq friendly. Please help !

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  • How can I map "insert='false' update='false'" on a composite-id key-property which is also used in a one-to-many FK?

    - by Gweebz
    I am working on a legacy code base with an existing DB schema. The existing code uses SQL and PL/SQL to execute queries on the DB. We have been tasked with making a small part of the project database-engine agnostic (at first, change everything eventually). We have chosen to use Hibernate 3.3.2.GA and "*.hbm.xml" mapping files (as opposed to annotations). Unfortunately, it is not feasible to change the existing schema because we cannot regress any legacy features. The problem I am encountering is when I am trying to map a uni-directional, one-to-many relationship where the FK is also part of a composite PK. Here are the classes and mapping file... CompanyEntity.java public class CompanyEntity { private Integer id; private Set<CompanyNameEntity> names; ... } CompanyNameEntity.java public class CompanyNameEntity implements Serializable { private Integer id; private String languageId; private String name; ... } CompanyNameEntity.hbm.xml <?xml version="1.0"?> <!DOCTYPE hibernate-mapping PUBLIC "-//Hibernate/Hibernate Mapping DTD 3.0//EN" "http://www.jboss.org/dtd/hibernate/hibernate-mapping-3.0.dtd"> <hibernate-mapping package="com.example"> <class name="com.example.CompanyEntity" table="COMPANY"> <id name="id" column="COMPANY_ID"/> <set name="names" table="COMPANY_NAME" cascade="all-delete-orphan" fetch="join" batch-size="1" lazy="false"> <key column="COMPANY_ID"/> <one-to-many entity-name="vendorName"/> </set> </class> <class entity-name="companyName" name="com.example.CompanyNameEntity" table="COMPANY_NAME"> <composite-id> <key-property name="id" column="COMPANY_ID"/> <key-property name="languageId" column="LANGUAGE_ID"/> </composite-id> <property name="name" column="NAME" length="255"/> </class> </hibernate-mapping> This code works just fine for SELECT and INSERT of a Company with names. I encountered a problem when I tried to update and existing record. I received a BatchUpdateException and after looking through the SQL logs I saw Hibernate was trying to do something stupid... update COMPANY_NAME set COMPANY_ID=null where COMPANY_ID=? Hibernate was trying to dis-associate child records before updating them. The problem is that this field is part of the PK and not-nullable. I found the quick solution to make Hibernate not do this is to add "not-null='true'" to the "key" element in the parent mapping. SO now may mapping looks like this... CompanyNameEntity.hbm.xml <?xml version="1.0"?> <!DOCTYPE hibernate-mapping PUBLIC "-//Hibernate/Hibernate Mapping DTD 3.0//EN" "http://www.jboss.org/dtd/hibernate/hibernate-mapping-3.0.dtd"> <hibernate-mapping package="com.example"> <class name="com.example.CompanyEntity" table="COMPANY"> <id name="id" column="COMPANY_ID"/> <set name="names" table="COMPANY_NAME" cascade="all-delete-orphan" fetch="join" batch-size="1" lazy="false"> <key column="COMPANY_ID" not-null="true"/> <one-to-many entity-name="vendorName"/> </set> </class> <class entity-name="companyName" name="com.example.CompanyNameEntity" table="COMPANY_NAME"> <composite-id> <key-property name="id" column="COMPANY_ID"/> <key-property name="languageId" column="LANGUAGE_ID"/> </composite-id> <property name="name" column="NAME" length="255"/> </class> </hibernate-mapping> This mapping gives the exception... org.hibernate.MappingException: Repeated column in mapping for entity: companyName column: COMPANY_ID (should be mapped with insert="false" update="false") My problem now is that I have tryed to add these attributes to the key-property element but that is not supported by the DTD. I have also tryed changing it to a key-many-to-one element but that didn't work either. So... How can I map "insert='false' update='false'" on a composite-id key-property which is also used in a one-to-many FK?

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  • Entity Framework and associations between string keys

    - by fredrik
    Hi, I am new to Entity Framework, and ORM's for that mather. In the project that I'm involed in we have a legacy database, with all its keys as strings, case-insensitive. We are converting to MSSQL and want to use EF as ORM, but have run in to a problem. Here is an example that illustrates our problem: TableA has a primary string key, TableB has a reference to this primary key. In LINQ we write something like: var result = from t in context.TableB select t.TableA; foreach( var r in result ) Console.WriteLine( r.someFieldInTableA ); if TableA contains a primary key that reads "A", and TableB contains two rows that references TableA but with different cases in the referenceing field, "a" and "A". In our project we want both of the rows to endup in the result, but only the one with the matching case will end up there. Using the SQL Profiler, I have noticed that both of the rows are selected. Is there a way to tell Entity Framework that the keys are case insensitive? Edit:We have now tested this with NHibernate and come to the conclution that NHibernate works with case-insensitive keys. So NHibernate might be a better choice for us.I am however still interested in finding out if there is any way to change the behaviour of Entity Framework.

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  • Chinese records of sqlite databse are in not accessable in iphone app

    - by Mas
    Hi! I'm creating an iphone app. In which I'm reading data from the sqlite db and presenting it in the tableview control. Problem is that the data is in chinese language. Due to unknown reason, when I read/fetch record from the sqlite table, some records are presented and other are missed by objc. Even objc reads some columns of the missing values, But returns the nil results of the some columns. In reality these columns are not empty. I tried many solutions but didn't find any suitable. Same database is working perfectly in the android version of the app. Any one can help here is the code of reading the chinese records from table Quote *q = [[Quote alloc] init]; q.catId = sqlite3_column_int(statement, 0); q.subCatId = sqlite3_column_int(statement, 1); q.quote = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:(char *)sqlite3_column_text(statement, 2)]; and here is the some records which iphone misses ??????·??? ??????,????????! ??????,??????? Thanks

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  • How to check whether user is login in web application?

    - by Morgan Cheng
    I want to learn the whole details of web application authentication. So, I decided to write a CodeIgniter authentication library from scratch. Now, I have to make design decision about how to determine whether one user is login. Basically, after user input username & password pair. A cookie is set for this session, following navigations in the web application will not require username & password. The server side will check whether the session cookie is valid to determine whether current user is login. The question is: how to determine whether cookie is valid cookie issued from server side? I can image the most simple way is to have the cookie value stored in session status as well. For each HTTP request, compare the value from cookie and the value from server session. (Since CodeIgniter session library store session variables in cookies, it is not applicable without some tweak.) This method requires storage in server side. For huge web application that is deployed in multiple datacenters. It is possible that user input username & password when browsing in one datacenter, while he/she access the web application in another datacenter later. The expected behavior is that user just input username & password once. As a result, all datacenters should be able to access the session status. That is possible not applicable even the session status is stored in external storage such as database. I tried Google. I login Google with Asian proxy which is supposed to direct me to datacenters in Asian. Then I switch to North American proxy which should direct me to datacenters in North America. It recognize my login without asking username and password again. So, is there any way to determine whether user is login without server side session status?

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