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• Want to send my neighbors to a certain website via DNS, but don't have a clue how. [closed]

  - by Akku

  My neighbors have an unsecured WIFI router, and over the administration web-UI of the router I could log in as there was no password set. I don't know which of my neighbors these are, and I'd like to configure their router in a way that they come to my website instead of Google and Facebook, where I set up a warning in german. It this page: http://www.abelssoft.de/liebenachbarn/ Basically, I just want to see if and how this is possible - I'm aware that I could just set the WiFi-password and have them call their network provider to reset the thing, but I really want to see if this could work, because it would be a way cooler effect :-). So this router interface doesn't allow custom redirects, only filters. BUT I can set the DNS that is used, so I thought there might be the possibility to set up a custom DNS on a server, set it as the main DNS and redirect from Google to the URL above. Is this possible? If so, please try to detail a way that I have to go though to achive this. Note that I'm not the super-Linux-skilled person, I have a dyndns account and a Windows machine it points to as well as an Apache+Tomcat if that helps. I could also set up virtual machines on the windows server and redirect to those using a different port. Or is there maybe a webservice that provides such custom DNS?

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• Sending eMails in a external subnet in vmware ESXi

  - by user80658

  This might be a bit hard for me to explain - and it is a pretty individual situation. I got a native server at Hetzner (www.hetzner.de). The public IP is 88.[...].12. I got ESXi running on this server. I can access the esxi console by the public ip, but none of the virtual machines. That's why I bought a public subnet with 8 (6 usable) IPs (46.[...]) and an additional public ip (88.[...].26). This additional public ip belongs to the first virtual maschine - a firewall appliance - which is connected to the WAN. This need to be done this way - since it is the official way by hetzner. My 46. subnet is behind the firewall. I got a virtualmin server with dovecot imap/pop3 server. When sending a email, most provider (gmail) will accept those mails, but a lot will put it into spam (aol). My theory is: The MX line of my domain says of course the ip of the virtual machine (46.[...]), but in the raw email it says that email is sent by the ip of the firewall (88.[...].26), which doesnt sound trustworthy. A solution would be if the firewall could handle mail, but it simply cant. How can I prevent this problem? Thanks.

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• Strange problem with Google Mail and IMAP on Outlook 2007

  - by Alex C.

  I work for a small non-profit organization. We have about 35 administrative employees who use e-mail. We're on a Windows network with a domain. Everyone is running XP Pro and Office 2007 with all updates/patches. We used to use POP3 mail through a local provider. However, we recently signed-up for a free Google Apps account, and we switched to IMAP mail through Google. Everyone uses Outlook 2007 as the client. For about ten days, everything was working fine. Yesterday afternoon, we suddenly developed a strange and annoying problem. Every time you send an e-mail message, a copy of your outgoing message shows up in your inbox. It's as if you're adding your own address to the CC: line of every message. Nothing has changed on our end. I was hoping that the problem was a temporary glitch that would resolve itself, but here we are about 24 hours later, and it's still happening. I searched Twitter, and there were a handful of vague messages about issues with Google mail and IMAP, but I didn't see any references to this specific problem. Any thoughts on what's going on here and how to fix it?

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• iis not listening on port 80

  - by Holian

  Hello, We have server 2003 and ISA 2004 with IIS 6 on same machnie. Everything worked well till yesterday, when we try to make some new rule in ISA..but this is a long story... Unfortunatelly something happend with our intranet site. Our site is on the port 80, but if we try to open on this client machines then we got and error page (which error page is our provider): 403-forbidden; Remote host not listening, the remote host is not prepared to acceppt the connection request. On the server i can open the site with port 80. If i change the port number in the iis and try to open the site with the port, then works well. I try to shut down IIS and start apache with a simple page. On the server works well but in clients the problem is the same, so i think this is not an IIS related problem. In the ISA we have a web pub rule, with port 80, no auth. Im pulling out my hair, please help.

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• Error authenticating git repository with Redmine

  - by woni

  I've setup Redmine 2.1 on my Debian Squeeze server following this Tutorial HowTo configure Redmine for advanced git integration (I tried to use the grack path). Redmine server is running properly, but I have a problem granting users access to git repositories. When I try to clone a repository it says: error: The requested URL returned error: 500 while accessing The apache error.log shows this entry: [Fri Sep 28 15:50:56 2012] [crit] [client xx.xx.xx.xx] configuration error: couldn't check user. Check your authn provider!: /repo.git/info/refs It also asks me for user and password when cloning, but it shouldn't if I understand the tutorial right. I'm using the Redmine authentication module: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName my.server.at DocumentRoot "/var/www/my.server.at/public" PerlLoadModule Apache::Redmine <Directory "/var/www/my.server.at/public"> Options None AllowOverride None Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> SetEnv REMOTE_USER=$REDIRECT_REMOTE_USER" SetEnv GIT_PROJECT_ROOT /var/git/my.server.at/ SetEnv GIT_HTTP_EXPORT_ALL ScriptAlias /git/ /usr/lib/git-core/git-http-backend <Location /> Order allow,deny Allow from all AuthType Basic AuthName Git Require valid-user AuthBasicAuthoritative Off AuthUserFile /dev/null AuthGroupFile /dev/null PerlAccessHandler Apache::Authn::Redmine::access_handler PerlAuthenHandler Apache::Authn::Redmine::authen_handler RedmineDSN "DBI:mysql:database=redmine;host=localhost" RedmineDbUser "user" RedmineDbPass "password" RedmineGitSmartHttp yes </Location> </VirtualHost> Can someone help me please and explain the error and what I can do to solve my problem?

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• Fortigate restrict traffic through one external IP

  - by Tom O'Connor

  I've got a fortigate 400A at a client's site. They've got a /26 from British Telecom, and we're using 4 of those IPs as a NAT Pool. Is there a way to say that traffic from 172.18.4.40-45 can only ever come out of (and hence go back into) x.x.x.140 as the external IP? We're having some problems with SIP which looks like it's coming out of one, and trying to go back into another. I tried enabling asymmetric routing, didn't work. I tried setting a VIP, but even when I did that, it didn't appear to do anything. Any ideas? I can probably post some firewall snippets if need be.. Tell me what you want to see. SIP ALG config system settings set sip-helper disable set sip-nat-trace disable set sip-tcp-port 5061 set sip-udp-port 5061 set multicast-forward enable end Interesting Sidenote VoIP phones, with no special configuration can register fine to proxy.sipgate.co.uk, which has an IP address of 217.10.79.16. Which is cool. Two phones are using a different provider, whose proxy IP address is 178.255.x.x. These phones can register for outbound, but inbound INVITEs never make it to the phone. Is it possible that the Fortigate is having trouble with 178.255.x.x as it's got a 255 in it? Or am I just imagining things?

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• Pinging computer name in LAN results in public IP?

  - by Bob

  Hi, I recently introduced a new machine to my LAN. The computer name for this machine is 'server'. Historically I've been able to access machines from my home network (from a web browser or RDP) using the machine name and it resolves to a local IP address just fine. However, I can't seem to do this anymore. When I ping the computer name, I get the following: C:\Users\Robert>ping server Pinging server.router [67.215.65.132] with 32 bytes of data: Reply from 67.215.65.132: bytes=32 time=24ms TTL=54 Reply from 67.215.65.132: bytes=32 time=23ms TTL=54 Reply from 67.215.65.132: bytes=32 time=24ms TTL=54 Reply from 67.215.65.132: bytes=32 time=24ms TTL=54 I notice also that it appends the 'router' suffix to my domain name for some reason. 'router' is the name of my router, obviously. I'm also using OpenDNS as my DNS provider (configured through my router so it gets passed down through DHCP). Why is this not working for me? Can someone explain how the DNS resolution should take place? For LAN resolution, it shouldn't go straight to OpenDNS. I thought that each Windows machine kept it's own sort of "mini DNS server" that knows about all machines on the local network and it first tries to resolve using that. Please let me know what I can do to get this working!

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• Restoring a fresh home folder in a shared user domain environment

  - by Cocoabean

  I am using a tool called pGINA that adds another credential provider to my Windows 7 clients so we can authenticate campus users via campus LDAP. We have the default Windows credential providers setup to authenticate off of our Active Directory, but we have students in our classes that don't have entries in our AD, and we need to know who they are to allow them internet access. Once these LDAP users login using pGINA, they are all redirected to the same AD account, a 'kiosk' account with GPOs in place to prevent anything malicious. My concern is that my users will accidentally save personal login information or files in that shared profile, and another user may login later and have access to a previous user's Gmail account, as the AppData folder on each computer is shared by anyone logging into the kiosk user. I've looked into MS's 'roll-your-own' SteadyState but it didn't seem to have what I wanted. I tried to write a PS script to copy a pre-saved clean version of the profile from a network share, but I just kept running into issues with CredSSP delegation and accessing the share from the UNC path. Others have recommended something like DeepFreeze but I'd like to do it without 3rd party tools if possible.

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• How to find the source of a cryptic event viewer log

  - by mlsteeves

  I'm looking at the eventviewer logs, and I see a bunch Error entries in the Application log. (Windows Server 2008 R1). There is an error written to the logs about every 4 seconds. I need to find out which application is causing these events, is there anyway to find this out? Here is what each look like: Error 12/2/2010 12:00:09 PM Application 0 None The details for each error: Log Name: Application Source: Application Date: 12/2/2010 12:00:09 PM Event ID: 0 Task Category: None Level: Error Keywords: Classic User: N/A Computer: computer.domain Description: The description for Event ID 0 from source Application cannot be found. Either the component that raises this event is not installed on your local computer or the installation is corrupted. You can install or repair the component on the local computer. If the event originated on another computer, the display information had to be saved with the event. The following information was included with the event: the message resource is present but the message is not found in the string/message table Event Xml: <Event xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/win/2004/08/events/event"> <System> <Provider Name="Application" /> <EventID Qualifiers="0">0</EventID> <Level>2</Level> <Task>0</Task> <Keywords>0x80000000000000</Keywords> <TimeCreated SystemTime="2010-12-02T20:00:09.000Z" /> <EventRecordID>237167</EventRecordID> <Channel>Application</Channel> <Computer>computer.domain</Computer> <Security /> </System> <EventData> <Binary>534F434B...</Binary> </EventData> </Event>

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• P2V Wouldn't Boot, Rebuilt initrd, Need to Clean Up

  - by Mike Soule

  We have a CentOS 5.4 server (build 2.6.18-164.el5xen). We went to P2V this server so we can have redundancy, the physical only has one PSU. The P2V only completed 99% of the way, we have a VMWare ticket opened, but they marked the ticket as low priority. I was able to boot into a rescue disc of Red Hat 5.4 and rebuild the initrd with the help of this blog post. Now the only issue is the original server had a modified initrd, which was also from a different OS build and made by an outside provider. We do not have a document outlining modifications. My question is, is it at all possible to copy the initrd off of the physical server and replace it on the virtual and some how have the virtual machine boot? Thanks for any input. Edit: I copied the initrd img from the physical and it recreated the original issue. Here is a screen capture of the error. http://i.imgur.com/MqC73.jpg Edit2: echo Scanning logical volumes lvm vgscan --ignorelockingfailure echo Activating logical volumes lvm vgchange -ay --ignorelockingfailure VolGroup00 resume /dev/VolGroup00/LogVol01 echo Creating root device. mkrootdev -t ext3 -o defaults,ro /dev/VolGroup00/LogVol00 echo Mounting root filesystem. mount /sysroot

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• Can a website see/know my MAC address even if I use a VPN?

  - by ilhan

  I have searched other results and read many of them but I could not get an enough information. My question is that can a website see my MAC address or can they have an information about that I'm the same person under these conditions: I am using a VPN and I use two IPs: first one is normal one, the second one is the VPN's IP. I use two browsers to hide behind browser fingerprinting. I use both browsers with Incognito Mode. I always use one for normal IP, one for the VPN IP. I do not know that if the website uses cookies or not. But can they collect an enough information to prove that these two identities belong to same person? Is there any other way for them to see that I am the same person? I use different IPs, different browsers and I use both browsers in incognito mode. I even changed one of browsers language to only English. So even if they collect my info from browser, they will see two browsers using different languages. (Addition after edit): So I have changed my IP and browser information and the website can not reach this information anymore to prove that I am the same person using two accounts. Then let's come to the title: Can they see my MAC address? Because I think that it is the last way that they can identify me and my main question is that. I wrote the information above to mention that I changed IPs and I have some precautions to avoid browser fingerprinting (btw my VPN provider already has a service about blocking it). I wrote them because I read similar advices in some related questions but my question is that can they see my MAC address (or anything else that can make me detected) despite all these precautions. And lastly, Is there an extra way to be anonymized that I can do? For example, can my system clock or anything else give an information? Thanks in advance.

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• Troubles with apache and virtual hosts

  - by xZero

  I have a BIG problem. I have VPS with Debian OS, and LAMP installed. Fresh install. For control panel i using Webmin. Now i trying to setup multiple sub-domains on my server using webmin for example: downloads.my-domain.com cpanel.my-domains.com forum.my-domains.com But problem what is happening is next, while i using no virtual hosts, everything works perfectly when i accessing it using my-domain.com, but when i add Virtual host, i cann access it but my-domain.com becomes unavilable because it redirects to virtual hosts i added. When i add more than 2 virtual hosts, problem is still here. Also, when i try to access to virtual server for example downloads.my-domain.com, it redirects again to cpanel.my-domains.com When i delete virtual hosts, access to my-domain.com is succesfull... What i known: - That is not problem with my domain provider. I correctly added subdomains and added host record to my VPS IP. - I added unique name to every single virtual host. - There are no two same virtual hosts - Every virtaul hosts have own directory: for example: downloads.my-domain.com have own WWW dir: /var/downloads Can somebody help me? Thanks.

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• Can a Windows Domain play along with a Hosted Exchange service?

  - by benzado

  I'm setting up a computer network for a small (10-20 people) company. They are currently using a Hosted Exchange service they are totally happy with. Other than that, they are starting from scratch (office doesn't even have furniture yet). They will need some kind of file sharing server set up in their office. If I set up a machine as a file server and nothing more, users will have three passwords to deal with: local machine, file server, and email. If I set up a Domain Controller, identities for local machine and file server will be the same. But what about the Hosted Exchange server? Must the users have a separate email password, or is it possible to combine the two? (I realize it might depend on the specific hosting provider, but is it possible?) If not, it seems like I have these options: Deal with it: users have a separate email password. Host Exchange on the local server: more than they want to manage in-house? Purchase a hosted VPS, make it part of the domain, and host Exchange there. (Or can/should a VPS be a domain controller?) I realize I have a lot of questions in there. The main one: is there any reason to use a Hosted Exchange service if I'm setting up other Windows services?

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• How can I start hostednetwork on Windows 7?

  - by Pirozek

  When I type in admin console command to start hostednetwork netsh wlan start hostednetwork it gives me this: The hosted network couldn't be started. The group or resource is not in the correct state to perform the requested operation. There is a hotfix from Microsoft but it didn't help me. Any advice? C:\Users\Pirozek>netsh wlan show driver Interface name: Wireless Network Connection 3 Driver : D-Link AirPlus DWL-G520 Wireless PCI Adapter(rev .B) Vendor : Atheros Communications Inc. Provider : Atheros Communications Inc. Date : 8.7.2009 Version : 8.0.0.171 INF file : C:\Windows\INF\oem108.inf Files : 2 total C:\Windows\system32\DRIVERS\athrx.sys C:\Windows\system32\drivers\vwifibus.sys Type : Native Wi-Fi Driver Radio types supported : 802.11b 802.11g FIPS 140-2 mode supported : Yes Hosted network supported : Yes Authentication and cipher supported in infrastructure mode: Open None Open WEP-40bit Shared WEP-40bit Open WEP-104bit Shared WEP-104bit Open WEP Shared WEP WPA-Enterprise TKIP WPA-Personal TKIP WPA2-Enterprise TKIP WPA2-Personal TKIP Vendor defined TKIP WPA2-Enterprise Vendor defined Vendor defined Vendor defined WPA-Enterprise CCMP WPA-Personal CCMP WPA2-Enterprise CCMP Vendor defined CCMP WPA2-Enterprise Vendor defined Vendor defined Vendor defined WPA2-Personal CCMP Authentication and cipher supported in ad-hoc mode: Open None Open WEP-40bit Open WEP-104bit Open WEP WPA2-Personal CCMP

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• Hyper-v and sql server connections for web apps

  - by Rick Ratayczak

  I have a physical machine running win8, and two VMs in hyper-v client: 1 web server, 1 sql server. The web server works fantastic. The sql is the one that is giving me the problem. I can connect to it with server explorer in visual studio or management studio just fine, and it's blazing fast. The problem happens when I use the same connection string I am using in visual studio server explorer in the web.config for an app. data source=VMSQL1;initial catalog=OtherShell;persist security info=True;user id=OtherShell;password=****;network library=dbmssocn;MultipleActiveResultSets=True;App=EntityFramework I made sure it was also using tcp-ip, but it doesn't connect with or without the network library part of the connection string. A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: SQL Network Interfaces, error: 26 - Error Locating Server/Instance Specified) This is driving my batty for the last two days, any ideas? It fails from the web vm too, but works in management studio with the same connection string.

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• Can't reliably ping 6224 router from directly-attached system

  - by David Mackintosh

  OK, here's my situation. This is on the internet. The 6224 is the router in this picture and physically resides in Kanata. Both VLAN 1697 and 3994 are provided by an internet service provider. These VLANs are provided through a single 1Gb ethernet wire. The Kanata hosts are directly attached to the 6224; the other two sites are remote. VLAN 3994 is a single IP address space, so theoretically it shouldn't matter physically where the hosts on that subnet are. Here's the problem. I have a monitoring system which is connected further into the internet, so probes from the monitor would come in to this diagram on the 1697 VLAN. When I ping hosts at Albert or Bells Corners from the internet, there is 0 loss. The connection looks perfect. When I ping hosts at Kanata, I lose anywhere from 10 to 40% of the pings. The loss is not predictable, but: when I do lose them, I always lose at least 3, usually 4, rarely more, pings in a bunch. I have attached a monitor directly to the 6224 in Kanata on 3994.. When the monitor pings the 6224 routing interface, I see exactly the same loss pattern -- but NOT at the same time as the loss from the remote system. Ping time is around 1ms. When the monitor pings another system directly attached to the 6224, there is 0 loss. Ping time is about 0.1ms, one-tenth of the time to ping the router. Anyone know what is going on here?

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• Emails sent from Coldfusion using the same SMTP/Exchange server works from one machine but fails for another

  - by Peter Herdenborg

  First, apologies if this question is too vague or has too little information to really be answerable. I am not normally working with these issues, and I don't have full access to the environment. However, the hosting provider seems to have a hard time tracking down the issue, so I am hoping that someone can at least provide me with some qualified guesses about the most likely problem. Here goes: A client I work for has a hosted IT environment, based on virtual machines running Windows 2008 R2 Standard. Our website, based on Coldfusion 9 was recently migrated from one virtual machine to another, and though Coldfusion is configured in the exact same way, using the same SMTP server, i.e. the client's Exchange server hosted in the same environment and in the same AD as both web servers, sending emails to external recipients is no longer working. It is still working fine when testing from the old machine. This is what I've learnt so far (all emails are sent using a valid from-address on the client's domain): Emails sent to other recipients on the same domain are delivered without any problem. Emails sent to external recipients on other domains are never delivered. When sending emails to both internal and external recipients, no emails are delivered. When receiving one of these emails to an internal address, the sender is now indicated as "[email protected]", while when sent from the old machine, it used to say just "sender". This seems to me that it could hint that the Exchange machine "recognizes" the old web server while it is a stranger to the new. In Coldfusion's mail log, all messages appear to be successfully delivered to the SMTP server. Any ideas what settings to look at, what log entries to search for or how to compare the old web server with the new one will be highly appreciated.

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• Server 2008 email on Event variables

  - by Jeff Miles

  One of the new features of Server 2008 is the ability to attach a task to a specific event in the event logs. One of the actions available is to send an email through a SMTP server. This is working great, however it would be ideal if in the message body, the Event contents could be placed. I have tried using $eventdescription and %eventdescription%, but those are just shots in the dark. Any amount of googling produces no results. Does anyone know if this is possible? Update: Sparks' suggestion below is a step in the right direction I believe, however that method doesn't seem to work for all values. For example, I can pull the RecordID, Severity and Channel as shown, but I can't use the same method to retreive the EventID, or most importantly the description. Here's the raw XML from one event: [Event xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/win/2004/08/events/event"] [System] [Provider Name="DFSR" /] [EventID Qualifiers="16384"]4412[/EventID] [Level]4[/Level] [Task]0[/Task] [Keywords]0x80000000000000[/Keywords] [TimeCreated SystemTime="2009-05-14T18:18:09.000Z" /] [EventRecordID]45692[/EventRecordID] [Channel]DFS Replication[/Channel] [Computer]servername.domain.com[/Computer] [Security /] [/System] [EventData] [Data]9046C3F4-843E-4A53-B941-4B20764072E5[/Data] [Data]D:\departments\Geomatics\Plan Quality\Data Processing\CG3533017 2009-05-13 KT FIXED[/Data] [Data]D:\departments[/Data] [Data]{26D5F604-E603-4F87-8EC3-DE9A945DA8FD}-v927199[/Data] [Data]Departments[/Data] [Data]domain.ca\files\departments[/Data] [Data]B8242CE2-F5EB-47DA-BA5B-1DD2F7EE3AB9[/Data] [Data]DFAA7A54-66CB-4C31-81A0-0F861382C32C[/Data] [Data]CG3533017 2009-05-13-{26D5F604-E603-4F87-8EC3-DE9A945DA8FD}-v927199[/Data] [/EventData] [/Event] I have tried using a ValueQuery for EventData, but it returns no data.

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• Map path server with workgroup to other server with domain

  - by bzamfir

  I have the following situation, and I need some help to setup properly I have two VPS (hosted with the same provider, maximumasp). Server A is 2008R2, set with WORKGROUP, and server B is 2012, set with domain, maximumasp.local. On server A I have an old web app, which uses a special folder, c:\MyUploads, to store uploaded files. App is using this using an appSetting. It will be kept running for a while for safety / compatibility reasons. I installed a new version of the application on server B, running under AppPoolIdentity. Both instances of the app (A and B) will connect to the same database, so I need them to share also the access to upload folder c:\MyUploads. How should I setup the app on machine B to access the folder c:\MyUploads ? My idea is to share the folder as \A\MyUploads, and then map it to server B. But the problem is, I don't know to give Read/write to c:\MyUploads on machine A to IIS AppPools\ on machine B I was trying a test, and shared the c:\MyUploads to Everyone, ReadWrite. I was able to access it from machine B using \\MyUploads But when app from machine B tried to access a file, it gave error. Any idea how can I accomplish this? Some advice on best practices for such situation would be great. Thank you

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• Separate domains vs. one domain with alias-domains

  - by Quasdunk

  I have tried to ask this question a few days ago but I'm afraid it was not clear enough, so here's another try. I have set up a LAMP-server using ISPConfig 3 for the administration. PHP is running over Fast-CGI. I have several domains, like my_site.com, my_site.net and my_site.org, but they all point to the same application/website. Each domain has its own web-root-folder and is running under its own user. The application itself is in a common directory which is owned by another user, like so: # path to my_application (owned by web1) /var/www/clients/client1/web1/web/my_application/ # sym-link to my_application from my_site.com-web-root (owned by web5) /var/www/my_site.com/web -> /var/www/clients/client1/web1/web/ # sym-link to my_application from my_site.net (owned by web4) /var/www/my_site.net/web -> /var/www/clients/client1/web1/web/ With a setup like this I have encountered a few problems concerning the permissions when performing filesystem-operations with PHP. For instance, if the application is called via my_site.com, the user web5 is trying to write something to the application-folder. But the application-folder is owned by the user web1, so web5 is not allowed to write there. As far as I unterstand, this is how Fast-CGI works. After some research and asking a few people, the solution seems to be to break it all down to one domain (e.g. my_site.com) and define the other domains (my_site.org, my_site.net) as alias for this one domain. That way, there would be only one user who has all necessary permissions. However, this would mean that we'd have to buy a multidomain SSL-certificate - but we already have an SSL-certificate for each domain. We were able to use them with our previous provider (managed hosting), and there we also had only one web-directory and multiple domains. So if this was possible, I wonder: Is putting all the domains together into one v-host with one main- and several alias-domains the right approach in this case? Or may I have misunderstood something?

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• Understanding Unix Permissions (w/ ACL)

  - by Dr. DOT

  I am trying to set permissions on my server properly. Currently I have a number of directories and files chmod'd at 0777 -- but I am not comfortable with it being this way. So at the advice of a serverfault specialist, I had my hosting provider install ACL on my shared virtual server. When I FTP to the server as my FTP user account "abc", I can do everything I need to do (and rightfully so) because all my dirs and files are owned by "abc", the group is "abc", and the 1st octet is set to 7 (rwx). That much I get. But here's where it gets dark gray for me. PHP is set to user "nobody". so when someone browses on of my web pages that either ends in .php or has some embedded PHP, I assume the last octet controls the access. Because all my dirs and files are owned by "abc" and assigned to group "abc", if the last octet was a 4 (r--) then the server would let the browser read the file. If it were a 6 (rw-) then the server would let the browser also write to the file or directory, correct? what if the web document does not end in .php or does not have any PHP embedded? What is the user then? how can I use ACL to not set the permission to 6 (rw-) or even 7 (rwx)? [not sure what execute does or means] Just looking for some sort of policy settings to best lock down my dirs and files while allowing my PHP scripts to do uploads and write to files (so my users don't call me to tell me "permission denied". Ok, thanks to anyone out there willing to lend me a hand. It is greatly appreciated.

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• Connect USB hard drive to wireless router on RJ45 port? Possible?

  - by lawphotog

  just a quick story behind. I was trying to set up wireless networked hard drive at home. My wireless router doesn't take USB. I am considering few options. First i was considering to get something like WD My Cloud. My router is an old one provided by service provider. It only has 10/100 Ethernet. WD My Cloud has Gigabit interface. So unless i changed a new router, data transfer will be slow. So upgrading the router is a must if i want fast transfer speed. Plus I already own an external hard drive with USB 3.0 interface. So if I get a router like Netgear D6300, i can get a decent speed wireless shared drive at home. And i can use my existing HDD instead of WD My Cloud. But the router isn't cheap so I am saving up for that. In the meantime I found out the existence of USB to RJ45 adaptor. I read the reviews and some say it works for them and for some don't. They didn't really say what they were trying to do so I'm confused. So if i bought an adaptor like this, can i connect my existing HDD (USB) with my existing router (RJ45) and use it as a shared drive for data transfer? I know it will be slow as the adaptor will only have USB 2.0 and 10/100 for Ethernet. But it's fine as it's for temporary until i got my new router.

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• Explorer constantly hanging

  - by user978122

  So I'm running Windows 7 Ultimate (x64) an AMD 8150 on an Asus Crosshair V motherboard with all the latest and greatest patches, and I am experiencing frequent Explorer freezes. I've included the information I've grepped from the Event Viewer below: The program Explorer.EXE version 6.1.7601.17567 stopped interacting with Windows and was closed. To see if more information about the problem is available, check the problem history in the Action Center control panel. Process ID: 13a4 Start Time: 01cdb2968999c6fd Termination Time: 0 Application Path: C:\Windows\Explorer.EXE Report Id: c000ba44-1e8b-11e2-9ae7-000272ddf2b0 - System - Provider [ Name] Application Hang - EventID 1002 [ Qualifiers] 0 Level 2 Task 101 Keywords 0x80000000000000 - TimeCreated [ SystemTime] 2012-10-25T10:08:44.000000000Z EventRecordID 14626 Channel Application Computer RyanMain-PC Security - EventData Explorer.EXE 6.1.7601.17567 13a4 01cdb2968999c6fd 0 C:\Windows\Explorer.EXE c000ba44-1e8b-11e2-9ae7-000272ddf2b0 430072006F00730073002D0074006800720065006100640000000000 -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Binary data: In Words 0000: 00720043 0073006F 002D0073 00680074 0008: 00650072 00640061 00000000 In Bytes 0000: 43 00 72 00 6F 00 73 00 C.r.o.s. 0008: 73 00 2D 00 74 00 68 00 s.-.t.h. 0010: 72 00 65 00 61 00 64 00 r.e.a.d. 0018: 00 00 00 00 .... Any idea what "Cross-thread" here means?

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• Server 2008 email on Event variables

  - by Jeff Miles

  One of the new features of Server 2008 is the ability to attach a task to a specific event in the event logs. One of the actions available is to send an email through a SMTP server. This is working great, however it would be ideal if in the message body, the Event contents could be placed. I have tried using $eventdescription and %eventdescription%, but those are just shots in the dark. Any amount of googling produces no results. Does anyone know if this is possible? Update: Sparks' suggestion below is a step in the right direction I believe, however that method doesn't seem to work for all values. For example, I can pull the RecordID, Severity and Channel as shown, but I can't use the same method to retreive the EventID, or most importantly the description. Here's the raw XML from one event: [Event xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/win/2004/08/events/event"] [System] [Provider Name="DFSR" /] [EventID Qualifiers="16384"]4412[/EventID] [Level]4[/Level] [Task]0[/Task] [Keywords]0x80000000000000[/Keywords] [TimeCreated SystemTime="2009-05-14T18:18:09.000Z" /] [EventRecordID]45692[/EventRecordID] [Channel]DFS Replication[/Channel] [Computer]servername.domain.com[/Computer] [Security /] [/System] [EventData] [Data]9046C3F4-843E-4A53-B941-4B20764072E5[/Data] [Data]D:\departments\Geomatics\Plan Quality\Data Processing\CG3533017 2009-05-13 KT FIXED[/Data] [Data]D:\departments[/Data] [Data]{26D5F604-E603-4F87-8EC3-DE9A945DA8FD}-v927199[/Data] [Data]Departments[/Data] [Data]swg.ca\files\departments[/Data] [Data]B8242CE2-F5EB-47DA-BA5B-1DD2F7EE3AB9[/Data] [Data]DFAA7A54-66CB-4C31-81A0-0F861382C32C[/Data] [Data]CG3533017 2009-05-13-{26D5F604-E603-4F87-8EC3-DE9A945DA8FD}-v927199[/Data] [/EventData] [/Event] I have tried using a ValueQuery for EventData, but it returns no data.

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• restrict access to IIS virtual directory from root website

  - by senthilkumar-c

  Hi, I have two domains (domain1.com and domain2.com). Both of them use the same Windows hosting service with IIS7. One of the domains is being called the "primary domain" by my hosting provider and it always points to the root folder that I was given. For the other domain, I have created a virtual directory in IIS and pointed it there. The folder structure is like this - root --Default.aspx --domain2folder ----Default.aspx So, if I type domain1.com, I see the regulakr Default.aspx. But if I type domain2.com, I am shown the contents of domain2folder as if it were a separate web application - I think that is what IIS virtual directory is meant for. Well and good. But the problem is, when I type http://domain1.com/domain2folder/, I see the domain2's website! But I don't want that to be shown when I use the path like that from domain1. Only if they use domain2.com, user should be able to see those contents. How can I do that? Hope I am making sense. Thanks.

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