Search Results

Search found 4426 results on 178 pages for 'bunch'.

Page 143/178 | < Previous Page | 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150  | Next Page >

  • Duplicate elements when adding XElement to XDocument

    - by Andy
    I'm writing a program in C# that will go through a bunch of config.xml files and update certain elements, or add them if they don't exist. I have the portion down that updates an element if it exists with this code: XDocument xdoc = XDocument.Parse(ReadFile(_file)); XElement element = xdoc.Elements("project").Elements("logRotator") .Elements("daysToKeep").Single(); element.Value = _DoRevert; But I'm running into issues when I want to add an element that doesn't exist. Most of the time part of the tree is in place and when I use my code it adds another identical tree, and that causes the program reading the xml to blow up. here is how I am attempting to do it xdoc.Element("project").Add(new XElement("logRotator", new XElement("daysToKeep", _day))); and that results in a structure like this(The numToKeep tag was already there): <project> <logRotator> <daysToKeep>10</daysToKeep> </logRotator> <logRotator> <numToKeep>13</numToKeep> </logRotator> </project> but this is what I want <project> <logRotator> <daysToKeep>10</daysToKeep> <numToKeep>13</numToKeep> </logRotator> </project>

    Read the article

  • _dl_runtime_resolve -- When do the shared objects get loaded in to memory?

    - by windfinder
    We have a message processing system with high performance demands. Recently we have noticed that the first message takes many times longer then subsequent messages. A bunch of transformation and message augmentation happens as this goes through our system, much of it done by way of external lib. I just profiled this issue (using callgrind), comparing a "run" of just one message with a "run" of many messages (providing a baseline of comparison). The main difference I see is the function "do_lookup_x" taking up a huge amount of time. Looking at the various calls to this function, they all seem to be called by the common function: _dl_runtime_resolve. Not sure what this function does, but to me this looks like the first time the various shared libraries are being used, and are then being loaded in to memory by the ld. Is this a correct assumption? That the binary will not load the shared libraries in to memory until they are being prepped for use, therefore we will see a massive slowdown on the first message, but on none of the subsequent? How do we go about avoiding this? Note: We operate on the microsecond scale.

    Read the article

  • Dangling pointers and double free

    - by user151410
    After some painful experiences, I understand the problem of dangling pointers and double free. I am seeking proper solutions. aStruct has a number of fields including other arrays. aStruct *A=NULL, *B = NULL; A = (aStruct*) calloc(1, sizeof(sStruct)); B = A; free_aStruct(A); ... //bunch of other code in various places. ... free_aStruct(B); Is there any way to write free_aStruct(X) so that free_aStruct(B) exists gracefully?? void free_aStruct(aStruct *X){ if (X ! = NULL){ if (X->a != NULL){free(X->a); x->a = NULL;} free(X); X = NULL; } } Doing above only sets A = NULL when free_aStruct(A); is called. B is now dangling. How can this situation be avoided / remedied? Is reference counting the only viable solution? or, are there other "defensive" free approaches, to prevent free_aStruct(B); from exploding? Thanks, Russ

    Read the article

  • What options exist to get text/ list items to appear in columns?

    - by alex
    I have a bunch of HTML markup coming from an external source, and it is mainly h3 elements and ul elements. I want to have the content flow in 3 columns. I know there is something coming in CSS3, but what options do I have to get this content to flow nicely into the 3 columns at the time being? I'm not that concerned about IE6 (as long as it degrades gracefully). Am I stuck using jQuery to parse the markup and chop it up into 3 divs which float? Thank you Update As per request, here is some of the HTML I am working with <h3>Tourism Industry</h3> <ul> <li><a href="">Something</a></li> <li><a href="">Something</a></li> <li><a href="">Something</a></li> <li><a href="">Something</a></li> </ul> <h3>Small Business</h3> <ul> <li><a href="">Something</a></li> <li><a href="">Something</a></li> <li><a href="">Something</a></li> <li><a href="">Something</a></li> <li><a href="">Something</a></li> </ul> And a whole lot more following the same format.

    Read the article

  • switching C compiler causes: Error Initializer cannot be specified for a flexible array member

    - by user1054210
    I am trying to convert our code from one IDE to be used in a different one. The current one uses gcc which allows for this structure to be initialized from a variable array. The new tool does not use gcc gives me an error "Initializer cannot be specified for a flexible array member". So can someone help me understand how to set this up? Should I set up a blank array of variable size and then somewhere assign the #define array as seen below? Here would be an example of the code…(this is current implementation current IDE) In one header file that is Build switchable so we can build this on different hardware platforms we have the following #define #define GPIOS \ /* BANK, PIN, SPD, MODE,… */ GPIOINIT( A, 0, 2, AIN, …) \ GPIOINIT( A, 1, 2, AIN, …) \ GPIOINTINIT(A, 2, 2, AIN, …) \ . . . Then in a different header file that is used in all builds we have PLATFORM_CONFIG_T g_platformConfig = { .name = {PLATFORM_NAME}, (bunch of other stuff), .allGpios = { GPIOS /* here I get the error */ }, }; So I am thinking I can make the error line a variable array and assign to it later in some other way? The problem is the actual array "GPIO" is of different types and pin orders on different designs are different.

    Read the article

  • How do I create a hyperlink in java?

    - by Justin984
    I'm going through the google app engine tutorials at https://developers.google.com/appengine/docs/java/gettingstarted/usingusers I'm very new to google app engine, java and web programming in general. So my question is, at the bottom of the page it says to add a link to allow the user to log out. So far I've got this: public void doGet(HttpServletRequest req, HttpServletResponse resp) throws IOException { UserService userService = UserServiceFactory.getUserService(); User user = userService.getCurrentUser(); if(user != null){ resp.setContentType("text/plain"); resp.getWriter().println("Hello, " + user.getNickname()); String logoutLink = String.format("<a href=\"%s\">Click here to log out.</a>", userService.createLogoutURL(req.getRequestURI())); resp.getWriter().println(logoutLink); }else { resp.sendRedirect(userService.createLoginURL(req.getRequestURI())); } } However instead of a link, the full string is printed to the screen including the tags. When I look at the page source, I have no tags or any of the other stuff that goes with a webpage. I guess that makes sense considering I've done nothing to output any of that. Do I just do a bunch of resp.GetWriter().println() statements to output the rest of the webpage, or is there something else I don't know about? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Spring can't find a lib and webapp doesn't start up in tomcat 6

    - by gotch4
    I've this problem using STS: I'm building a simple Spring app, just to try out features like MVC and persistence. Now I've created something very simple, out of a bunch of tutorials for Spring 3, that I'm using. The application fails with this, during server startup: Code: org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanCreationException: Error creating bean with name 'org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping#0': Initialization of bean failed; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.factory.CannotLoadBeanClassException: Cannot find class [org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.annotation.AnnotationSessionFactoryBean] for bean with name 'mySessionFactory' defined in ServletContext resource [/WEB-INF/spring/appServlet/servlet-context.xml]; nested exception is java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.annotation.AnnotationSessionFactoryBean but I've org.springframework.orm in web-inf/classes folder (I even tried putting it in web-inf/lib). As I copied these libs there, the came out in Web App Libraries folder. Building this project in STS works fine as this dependency is set up in build path throught project properties, but how do I transfer the libs to the web app? (I'm using Tomcat 6 as it is the server I'm going to use sometime in the future for production). Is this a config problem of my XML? Or am I just missing the right way to put this lib? (I encountered the same problem before, but adding the needed lib in classes worked it out). More than this I that if I browse inside my workspace to the folder where the working folder of tomcat should be, I can't find any work directory and any commo

    Read the article

  • php sessions in database only writing part of information to the table...

    - by Ronedog
    I'm having difficulty figuring out what's going on here, hoping some one can help me out. I have been using php, mysql storing my session information in the database. The app is only running on localhost, vista. In the php.ini file I commented out the "session.save_handler = files" line and am using a php class to handle the session writes/reads, etc. My login process is this: Submit login credentials via login.php. login.php calls loginprocess.php. loginprocess.php verifies user, and if valid starts a new session and adds data to the session vars, then it redirects to index.php. Here's the problem. the loginprocess.php page has a bunch of session vars that get set like $_SESSION['account_id'] = $account_id; etc. but when I go to index.php and do a var_dump($_SESSION) it just says "array() empty". However, if I do a var_dump($_SESSION) in loginprocess.php, just before the redirection line header("Location: ../index.php"); then it shows all the data in the session variable. If I look in the database where the session information is stored, there is data in the session_id field, created_ts field, and expires field, but the session_data field has nothing inside of it and in the past this is the field where all my session data was stored. How could I be able to var_dump the session in loginprocess.php, but the data not exist in the db table, is it using some kind of caching? I cleared my cookies, etc...but no change. Why is the session_id, being written to the table, but the actual session data is not? Any ideas are appreciated. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How can I marshal JSON to/from a POJO for BlackBerry Java?

    - by sowbug
    I'm writing a RIM BlackBerry client app. BlackBerry uses a simplified version of Java (no generics, no annotations, limited collections support, etc.; roughly a Java 1.3 dialect). My client will be speaking JSON to a server. We have a bunch of JAXB-generated POJOs, but they're heavily annotated, and they use various classes that aren't available on this platform (ArrayList, BigDecimal, XMLGregorianCalendar). We also have the XSD used by the JAXB-XJC compiler to generate those source files. Being the lazy programmer that I am, I'd really rather not manually translate the existing source files to Java 1.3-compatible JSON-marshalling classes. I already tried JAXB 1.0.6 xjc. Unfortunately, it doesn't understand the XSD file well enough to emit proper classes. Do you know of a tool that will take JAXB 2.0 XSD files and emit Java 1.3 classes? And do you know of a JSON marshalling library that works with old Java? I think I am doomed because JSON arrived around 2006, and Java 5 was released in late 2004, meaning that people probably wouldn't be writing JSON-parsing code for old versions of Java. However, it seems that there must be good JSON libraries for J2ME, which is why I'm holding out hope.

    Read the article

  • submitting the form even if the form is in invalid state

    - by Abu Hamzah
    i am using asp.net web forms and i am using bassistance.de jquery validation.. i have bunch of fields in the form and its validatating how it suppose to but its still executing my code behind code, why is it doing that? here is my code: form: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#aspnetForm").validate({ rules: { <%=txtVisitName.UniqueID %>: { maxlength:1, //minlength: 12, required: true } ................. }, messages: { <%=txtVisitName.UniqueID %>: { required: "Enter visit name", minlength: jQuery.format("Enter at least {0} characters.") } ............ }, success: function(label) { label.html("&nbsp;").addClass("checked"); } }); $("#aspnetForm").validate(); }); </script> <div > <h1> Page</h1> <asp:Label runat="server" ID='Label1'>Visit Name:</asp:Label> <asp:TextBox ID="txtVisitName" runat='server'></asp:TextBox> ............ ............... <button id="btnSubmit" name="btnSubmit" type="submit"> Submit</button> </div> and i have a external .js file referencing to my web form page. $(document).ready(function() { $("#btnSubmit").click(function() { SavePage(); }); }); i have a WebMethod .cs and i have bookmark and it does hitting that line of code even thoug my page is in invalid state. how would i fix this? thanks.

    Read the article

  • DataReader already open when using LINQ

    - by Jamie Dixon
    I've got a static class containing a static field which makes reference to a wrapper object of a DataContext. The DataContext is basically generated by Visual Studio when we created a dbml file & contains methods for each of the stored procedures we have in the DB. Our class basically has a bunch of static methods that fire off each of these stored proc methods & then returns an array based on a LINQ query. Example: public static TwoFieldBarData[] GetAgesReportData(string pct) { return DataContext .BreakdownOfUsersByAge(Constants.USER_MEDICAL_PROFILE_KEY, pct) .Select(x => new TwoFieldBarData(x.DisplayName, x.LeftValue, x.RightValue, x.TotalCount)) .ToArray(); } Every now and then, we get the following error: There is already an open DataReader associated with this Command which must be closed firs This is happening intermittently and I'm curious as to what is going on. My guess is that when there's some lag between one method executing and the next one firing, it's locking up the DataContext and throwing the error. Could this be a case for wrapping each of the DataContext LINQ calls in a lock(){} to obtain exclusivity to that type and ensure other requests are queued?

    Read the article

  • Core Data: Overkill for simple, static UITableView-based iPhone App?

    - by David Foster
    Hello! I have a rather simple iPhone app consisting of numerous views containing a single, grouped table view. These views are held together in navigation controllers which are grouped in a tab bar. Simple stuff. My table views do little more than list text (like "Dog", "Cat" and "Weasel") and this data is being served from a collection of plists. It's perhaps worth mentioning too that these tables are 'static' in the sense that their data is pre-determined and will only ever be amended—and if so, very rarely indeed—by the developer (in this case, moi). This rudimentary approach has reached its limits though, and I think I'm going to need something a bit more relational. I have worked a tad with Core Data in the past, but only with apps whose data is determined by user input. I have four closely related questions: Is Core Data overkill for an app consisting mainly of a selection of simple table views? Do you recommend using Core Data to manage data which is predetermine and extremely unlikely to ever change? Can one lock Core Data down so that its data can't change, thereby relinquishing my responsibility as the developer to handle the editing and saving of the managed object context? How do I go about giving Core Data my predetermined data, and in a format I know that it can work with? Thanks a bunch guys.

    Read the article

  • Using Tcl DSL in Python

    - by Sridhar Ratnakumar
    I have a bunch of Python functions. Let's call them foo, bar and baz. They accept variable number of string arguments and does other sophisticated things (like accessing the network). I want the "user" (let's assume he is only familiar with Tcl) to write scripts in Tcl using those functions. Here's an example (taken from Macports) that user can come up with: post-configure { if {[variant_isset universal]} { set conflags "" foreach arch ${configure.universal_archs} { if {${arch} == "i386"} {append conflags "x86 "} else { if {${arch} == "ppc64"} {append conflags "ppc_64 "} else { append conflags ${arch} " " } } } set profiles [exec find ${worksrcpath} -name "*.pro"] foreach profile ${profiles} { reinplace -E "s|^(CONFIG\[ \\t].*)|\\1 ${conflags}|" ${profile} # Cures an isolated case system "cd ${worksrcpath}/designer && \ ${qt_dir}/bin/qmake -spec ${qt_dir}/mkspecs/macx-g++ -macx \ -o Makefile python.pro" } } } Here, variant_issset, reinplace are so on (other than Tcl builtins) are implemented as Python functions. if, foreach, set, etc.. are normal Tcl constructs. post-configure is a Python function that accepts, well, a Tcl code block that can later be executed (which in turns would obviously end up calling the above mentioned Python "functions"). Is this possible to do in Python? If so, how? from Tkinter import *; root= Tk(); root.tk.eval('puts [array get tcl_platform]') is the only integration I know of, which is obviously very limited (not to mention the fact that it starts up X11 server on mac).

    Read the article

  • Can I add a portrait layout on top of a landscape Camera SurfaceView?

    - by Uwe Krass
    My application should hold a camera preview surface. The camera is fixed to landscape view via AndroidMainfest.xml <application android:icon="@drawable/icon" android:label="Camera"> <uses-library android:name="com.google.android.maps" /> <uses-feature android:name="android.hardware.camera" /> <uses-feature android:name="android.hardware.camera.autofocus" /> <activity android:name=".CameraPreview" android:label="Camera" android:screenOrientation="landscape"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER" /> </intent-filter> </activity> </application> If there is another way to get the camera preview itself to behave correctly, please let me know. Now I need to have an overlay that holds a bunch of buttons. Due to usability, the user interface should be set to portrait view (or even better orientation aware). Is there a way to have a transparent layout (for buttons and other GUI elements) in portrait orientation? I tried to write a special rotated layout by extending a RelativeLayout, but the onDraw method isn't called at anytime. public class RotatedOverlay extends RelativeLayout { private static final String TAG = "RotatedOverlay"; public RotatedOverlay(Context context, AttributeSet attrs ) { super(context, attrs); } @Override protected void onDraw(Canvas canvas) { canvas.rotate(90); super.onDraw(canvas); } I am quite new to the Android plattform programming. Of course I dont know much about the programming tricks and workarounds yet. I did a lot of research over the last two weeks (even studied the native Camera implementation), but couldnt find a good solution so far. Maybe it works with two seperate Activities, but I dont think, that this can the right solution.

    Read the article

  • OOP - Handling Automated Instances of a Class - PHP

    - by dscher
    This is a topic that, as a beginner to PHP and programming, sort of perplexes me. I'm building a stockmarket website and want users to add their own stocks. I can clearly see the benefit of having each stock be a class instance with all the methods of a class. What I am stumped on is the best way to give that instance a name when I instantiate it. If I have: class Stock() { ....doing stuff..... } what is the best way to give my instances of it a name. Obviously I can write: $newStock = new Stock(); $newStock.getPrice(); or whatever, but if a user adds a stock via the app, where can the name of that instance come from? I guess that there is little harm in always creating a new child with $newStock = new Stock() and then storing that to the DB which leads me to my next question! What would be the best way to retrieve 20 user stocks(for example) into instances of class Stock()? Do I need to instantiate 20 new instances of class Stock() every time the user logs in or is there something I'm missing? I hope someone answers this and more important hope a bunch of people answer this and it somehow helps someone else who is having a hard time wrapping their head around what probably leads to a really elegant solution. Thanks guys!

    Read the article

  • resizing images with imagemagick via shell script

    - by jml
    Hi there, I don't really know that much about bash scripts OR imagemagick, but I am attempting to create a script in which you can give some sort of regexp matching pattern for a list of images and then process those into new files that have a given filename prefix. for example given the following dir listing: allfiles01.jpg allfiles02.jpg allfiles03.jpg i would like to call the script like so: ./resisemany.sh allfiles*.jpg 30 newnames*.jpg the end result of this would be that you get a bunch of new files with newnames, the numbers match up, so far what i have is: IMAGELIST=$1 RESIEZFACTOR=$2 NUMIMGS=length($IMAGELIST) for(i=0; i<NUMIMGS; i++) convert $IMAGELIST[i] -filter bessel -resize . RESIZEFACTOR . % myfile.JPG Thanks for any help... The parts that I obviously need help with are 1. how to give a bash script matching criteria that it understands 2. how to use the $2 without having it match the 2nd item in the image list 3. how to get the length of the image list 4. how to create a proper for loop in such a case 5. how to do proper text replacement for a shell command whereby you are appending items as i allude to. jml

    Read the article

  • Joining Tables Based on Foreign Keys

    - by maestrojed
    I have a table that has a lot of fields that are foreign keys referencing a related table. I am writing a script in PHP that will do the db queries. When I query this table for its data I need to know the values associated with these keys not the key. How do most people go about this? A 101 way to do this would be to query this table for its data including the foreign keys and then query the related tables to get each key's value. This could be a lot of queries (~10). Question 1: I think I could write 1 query with a bunch of joins. Would that be better? This approach also requires the querying script to know which table fields are foreign keys. Since I have many tables like this but all with different fields, this means writing nice generic functions is hard. MySQL InnoDB tables allow for foreign constraints. I know the database has these set up correctly. Question 2: What about the idea of querying the table and identifying what the constraints are and then matching them up using whatever process I decide on from Question 1. I like this idea but never see it being used in code. Makes me think its not a good idea for some reason. I would use something like SHOW CREATE TABLE tbl_name; to find what constraints/relationships exist for that table. Thank you for any suggestions or advice.

    Read the article

  • How to convert Unicode strings (\u00e2, etc) into NSString for display?

    - by karlbecker_com
    I am trying to support arbitrary unicode from a variety of international users. They have already put a bunch of data into sqlite databases on their iPhones, and now I want to capture the data into a database, then send it back to their device. Right now I am using a php page that is sending data back to from an internet mysql database. The data is saved in the mysql database properly, but when it's sent back it comes out as unicode text, such as Frank\u00e2\u0080\u0099s iPad instead of just Frank's iPad where the apostrophe should really be a curly apostrophe. The answer posted to another question indicates that there is no built-in Cocoa methods to convert the "\u00e2\u0080\u0099" portion of the unicode string from the webserver to an NSString object. Is this correct? That seems really surprising (and scarily disappointing), since Cocoa definitely allows input from many different Unicode characters, and I need to support any arbitrary language that I have never heard of, and all of the possible characters. I save them to and from the local sqlite database just fine now, but once I send it to a web server, then perhaps pull down different data, I want to ensure the data pulled from the web server is correctly formatted.

    Read the article

  • divert asp.net child controls

    - by Eric
    Hi Folks, I am trying to create an asp.net custom control that acts as a hosting container for any other controls, similar to the existing ‘Panel’ control. Basically, I need to build a web control that groups a bunch of other controls. It will consist of a header and a body pane, similar to a normal window in desktop application. The header will contain some simple text and some JavaScript driven code that shows/hides the body pane. The body pane simply hosts any number of other controls. +------------------------------------------------------+ | User Details Show/Hide | +------------------------------------------------------+ | Name: [Eric ] | | Address: [Some where] | | Date of Birth: [01/01/1980] | | | | (any other fields goes on) | | | | | +------------------------------------------------------+ Ideally I want to create a control that packs the whole thing together, so at design time I could use the following markup. <myCtl:SuperContainer runat=”server” Title=”User Details”> <asp:label id=”lblName” runat=”server” text=”Name:”/> <asp:textbox id=”txtName” runat=”server”/> <asp:label id=”lblDOB” runat=”server” text=”Date of Birth:”/> <asp:textbox id=”txtDOB” runat=”server”/> (…other controls definition…) </myCtl:SuperContainer> I plan to include two panels in my control, one for the header and another one for the body, but as you can see, the key issue is to find a way to ‘divert’ the child controls that are defined in the markup to the body panel, instead of the default parent container. I feel it can be some how simply override (manipulate) the control property, but don’t know how to properly do so. Can any one give some idea about how to implement this ‘SuperContainer’ control? Many thank, Eric

    Read the article

  • JQuery load help

    - by mtwallet
    Hi. I am trying to use load() to place some html into a div on a page. I have a bunch of links like this: <div id="slideshow"> <div id="slides"> <div class="projects"> <a href="work/mobus.html" title="Mobus Fabrics Website"> <img src="images/work/mobus.jpg" alt="Mobus Fabrics Website" width="280" height="100" /> </a> <a href="work/eglin.html" title="Eglin Ltd Website"> <img src="images/work/eglin.jpg" alt="Eglin Ltd Website" width="280" height="100" /> </a> <a href="work/first-brands.html" title="First Brands Website"> <img src="images/work/first-brands.jpg" alt="First Brands Website" width="280" height="100" /> </a> </div> <a id="prev"></a> <a id="next"></a> </div> and my jquery code looks like this: $('.projects a').click(function() { $('#work').load(this.href); }); The problem is when clicked the html is placed in the #work div the html is loaded in another page. Please can anyone help?

    Read the article

  • Multiple calls to preg_replace alters result

    - by Hurpe
    I have a bunch of files that were named in a somewhat standard format. The standard form is basically this: [integer]_word1_word2_word3_ ... _wordn where a word could really be anything, but all words are separated by an underscore. There is really only 3 things I want to do to the text: 1.) I want to modify the integer, which is always at the beginning, so that something like "200" would become $ 200.00. 2.) replace any "words" of the form "with", "With", "w/", or "W/" with "with". 3.) Replace all underscores with a space. I wrote three different preg_replace calls to do the trick. They are as follows: 1.) $filename = preg_replace("/(^[0-9]+)/","$ $1.00",$filename) 2.) $filename = preg_replace("/_([wW]|[wW]ith)_/"," with ",$filename) 3.) $filename = preg_replace("/_/"," ",$filename); Each replacement works as expected when run individually, but when all three are run, the 2nd replacement is ignored. Why would something like that occur? Thanks for the help!

    Read the article

  • Fix hard-coded display setting without source (24-bit, need 32-bit)

    - by FerretallicA
    I wrote a program about 10 years ago in Visual Basic 6 which was basically a full-screen game similar to Breakout / Arkanoid but had 'demoscene'-style backgrounds. I found the program, but not the source code. Back then I hard-coded the display mode to 800x600x24, and the program crashes whenever I try to run it as a result. No virtual machine seems to support 24-bit display when the host display mode is 16/32-bit. It uses DirectX 7 so DOSBox is no use. I've tried all sorts of decompiler and at best they give me the form names and a bunch of assembly calls which mean nothing to me. The display mode setting was a DirectX 7 call but there's no clear reference to it in the decompilation. In this situation, is there any pointers on how I can: pin-point the function call in the program which is setting the display mode to 800x600x24 (ResHacker maybe?) and change the value being passed to it so it sets 800x600x32 view/intercept DirectX calls being made while it's running or if that's not possible, at least run the program in an environment that emulates a 24-bit display I don't need to recover the source code (as nice as it would be) so much as just want to get it running.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET inline code in a server control

    - by John
    Ok, we had a problem come up today at work. It is a strange one that I never would have even thought to try. <form id="form1" runat="server" method="post" action="Default.aspx?id=<%= ID %>" > Ok, it is very ugly and I wouldn't have ever tried it myself. It came up in some code that was written years ago but had been working up until this weekend after a bunch of updates were installed on a client's web server where the code is hosted. The actual result of this is the following html: <form name="form1" method="post" action="Default.aspx?id=&lt;%= ID %>" id="form1"> The url ends up like this: http://localhost:6735/Default.aspx?id=<%= ID %> Which as you can see, demonstrates that the "<" symbol is being encoded before ASP.NET actually processes the page. It seems strange to me as I thought that even though it is not pretty by any means, it should work. I'm confused. To make matters worse, the client insists that it is a bug in IE since it appears to work in Firefox. In fact, it is broken in Firefox as well, except for some reason Firefox treats it as a 0. Any ideas on why this happens and how to fix it easily? Everything I try to render within the server control ends up getting escaped. Edit Ok, I found a "fix" <form id="form1" runat="server" method="post" action='<%# String.Format("Default.aspx?id={0}", 5) %>' > But that requires me to call DataBind which is adding more of a hack to the original hack. Guess if nobody thinks of anything else I'll have to go with that.

    Read the article

  • activemessaging with stomp and activemq.prefetchSize=1

    - by Clint Miller
    I have a situation where I have a single activemq broker with 2 queues, Q1 and Q2. I have two ruby-based consumers using activemessaging. Let's call them C1 and C2. Both consumers subscribe to each queue. I'm setting activemq.prefetchSize=1 when subscribing to each queue. I'm also setting ack=client. Consider the following sequence of events: 1) A message that triggers a long-running job is published to queue Q1. Call this M1. 2) M1 is dispatched to consumer C1, kicking off a long operation. 3) Two messages that trigger short jobs are published to queue Q2. Call these M2 and M3. 4) M2 is dispatched to C2 which quickly runs the short job. 5) M3 is dispatched to C1, even though C1 is still running M1. It's able to dispatch to C1 because prefetchSize=1 is set on the queue subscription, not on the connection. So the fact that a Q1 message has already been dispatched doesn't stop one Q2 message from being dispatched. Since activemessaging consumers are single-threaded, the net result is that M3 sits and waits on C1 for a long time until C1 finishes processing M1. So, M3 is not processed for a long time, despite the fact that consumer C2 is sitting idle (since it quickly finishes with message M2). Essentially, whenever a long Q1 job is run and then a whole bunch of short Q2 jobs are created, exactly one of the short Q2 jobs gets stuck on a consumer waiting for the long Q1 job to finish. Is there a way to set prefetchSize at the connection level rather than at the subscription level? I really don't want any messages dispatched to C1 while it is processing M1. The other alternative is that I could create a consumer dedicated to processing Q1 and then have other consumers dedicated to processing Q2. But, I'd rather not do that since Q1 messages are infrequent--Q1's dedicated consumers would sit idle most of the day tying up memory.

    Read the article

  • jquery nextUntil has element

    - by Mark
    jquery nextUntil has element I have a bunch of elements like this: <div></div> <span></span> <table></table> <div></div> <span></span> <div></div> I need to check whether or not there's a table element in between the divs, and if so do something. $('div').each(function () { if ($(this).nextUntil('div').include('table')) { $(this).addClass('got-a-table'); } } Something like this? I know that there's no include method, is there something that can get me what I need? Thanks. Result should be like this: <div class='got-a-table'></div> <span></span> <table></table> <div></div> <span></span> <div></div>

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150  | Next Page >