Search Results

Search found 36234 results on 1450 pages for 'sender id'.

Page 143/1450 | < Previous Page | 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150  | Next Page >

  • jQuery .val() Selector Confusion

    - by Matt Dawdy
    I've kind of written myself into a corner, and was hoping there was an "easy" way out. I'm trying to loop through a series of things on my page, and build a key:value pair. Here is my structure: <div class="divMapTab" id="divMapTab34"> <div class="divFieldMap"> <select class="selSrc" id="selTargetnamex"><options....></select> </div> </div> <div class="divMapTab" id="divMapTab87"> <div class="divFieldMap"> <select class="selSrc" id="selTargetnamex"><options....></select> </div> </div> It's way more complicated than that, and there are many select elements inside of each divFieldMap div. Here is my JS function that is building my string: function Save() { var sSaveString = ''; $('.divMapTab').each(function() { var thisId = this.id; $('.selSrc', "#" + thisId).each(function() { var thisSubId = this.id; //alert(thisSubId); <-- HERE IS THE PROBLEM var sTargetCol = thisSubId.replace('selTarget', ''); var sValue = this.val(); sSaveString += sTargetCol + '¸' + sValue + '·'; }); }); } On the line that has the alert box and the text "HERE IS THE PROBLEM" is that I'm trying to get the selected value of the "current" select input element, but the id of that element isn't unique (I thought it would be, but I screwed up). Is there a good way, inside of an "each" type of jQuery statement, to use "this" to get the exact select element that I really am looking for, even if it doesn't have a unique id?

    Read the article

  • jQuery: part of a function not executing

    - by SODA
    Hi. I have a tabbed setup on the page and I want to automatically make corresponding menu tab highlighted as well as corresponding content div show depending on # hash. Example: http://design.vitalbmx.com/user_menu/member_profile_so.html -- no hash, opens 1st tab http://design.vitalbmx.com/user_menu/member_profile_so.html#setup -- #setup, should open "Setup" tab As you can see it works for highlighting "Setup" tab. But content div does not change. The script is below: var tab_content_current = 1; switch (window.location.hash) { case '#activity': tab_content_current = 1; break; case '#friends': tab_content_current = 2; break; case '#photos': tab_content_current = 3; break; case '#videos': tab_content_current = 4; break; case '#setup': tab_content_current = 5; break; case '#forum': tab_content_current = 6; break; case '#blog': tab_content_current = 7; break; case '#comments': tab_content_current = 8; break; case '#favorites': tab_content_current = 9; break; case '#profile-comments': tab_content_current = 10; break; default: tab_content_current = 1; } if (tab_content_current != 1) { change_active_tab (tab_content_current); } function tabs_toggle (id) { if (id != tab_content_current) { change_active_tab (id); tab_content_current = id; } } function change_active_tab (id) { $j('.profile_tabs li').removeClass('active'); if (id < 8) $j('.profile_tab_'+id).addClass('active'); $j('.profile_content').hide(); $j('#profile_content_'+id).fadeIn(); } Note that it works when you actually click menu tabs. Any help to fix this problem would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Getting array of Values of Textboxes with the same class

    - by nCdy
    I setup custom CSS class for array of dynamic TextBoxes (inputs as HTML) so... now I need to get array of it : <input type="text" style="width: 50px;" class="DynamicTB" id="ctl00_ContentPlaceHolder1_GridView1_ctl02_id" readonly="readonly" value="1" name="ctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$GridView1$ctl02$id"> sure client don't really knows the count of inputs. That's why I use class and here is what I'm trying to make : $.each( { id : $("input.DynamicTB").css("value") }, function(id){ CallPageMethod("SelectBook", success, fail, "id",id); }); I'm not sure if this $("input.DynamicTB").css("value") will works correct :( but How can I transfer whole array of values to SelectBook Method ? My javascript is bad and my debugger don't show me javascript errors but it just doesn't works because of something wrong with each. And ... finally I just need to get array of values of dynamic textboxes and transfer them to server side ... mt [WebMethode] can't see server side :( [Web.Services.WebMethod] public static SelectBook(id : array) : string { id } And sure I have no idea how can I use jQuery .live and binding here.

    Read the article

  • Sanitizing usser input before adding it to the DOM in Javascript

    - by I GIVE TERRIBLE ADVICE
    I'm writing the JS for a chat appication I'm working on in my free time, and I need to have HTML identifiers that change according to user submitted data. This is usually something conceptually shaky enough that I would not even attempt it, but I don't see myself having much of a choice this time. What I need to do then is to escape the HTML id to make sure it won't allow for XSS or breaking HTML. Here's the code: var user_id = escape(id) var txt = '<div class="chut">'+ '<div class="log" id="chut_'+user_id+'"></div>'+ '<textarea id="chut_'+user_id+'_msg"></textarea>'+ '<label for="chut_'+user_id+'_to">To:</label>'+ '<input type="text" id="chut_'+user_id+'_to" value='+user_id+' readonly="readonly" />'+ '<input type="submit" id="chut_'+user_id+'_send" value="Message"/>'+ '</div>'; What would be the best way to escape id to avoid any kind of problem mentioned above? As you can see, right now I'm using the built-in escape() function, but I'm not sure of how good this is supposed to be compared to other alternatives. I'm mostly used to sanitizing input before it goes in a text node, not an id itself.

    Read the article

  • submit in html on sql query

    - by user1644661
    i need to run this sql query , which give me a list of Id and Dates i want to click each result and take with me the Id value to the next form i wrote this query above but i see in the debager that the hidden ID get his value but not pass to the next form i think i have a problem with the submit() . where should i put him ? thanks anat function ShowAllCarts($user_email) { $connB = new ProductDAO(); $connB->Connect(); $pro_query = "SELECT * FROM Cart WHERE `Email`='$user_email';"; $db_result = $connB->ExecSQL($pro_query); $html_result = '<div data-role="content"> <ul data-role="listview" data-theme="b"> '; $html_result .= '<form action="PreviouscartProduct.php" method="POST"/>'; while($row_array = $db_result->fetch_array(MYSQLI_ASSOC)) { $Id= $row_array['Id']; $Date= $row_array['Date']; //$html_result // $html_result .="<li><a href='PreviouscartProduct.php'>Cart number: $Id from Date: $Date><input type='hidden' name='Id' value'<?=$Id?>'</input></a></li>'"; $html_result .= '<a onclick="this.form.submit();" </a>; } $html_result .= ' </ul> </div>'; $html_result .= '</form>'; $connB->Disconnect(); return $html_result; } //display all carts $func_result = ShowAllCarts($Email);

    Read the article

  • Can AutoMapper create a map for an interface and then map with a derived type?

    - by TheCloudlessSky
    I have an interface IFoo: public interface IFoo { int Id { get; set; } } And then a concrete implementation: public class Bar : IFoo { public int Id { get; set; } public string A { get; set; } } public class Baz : IFoo { public int Id { get; set; } public string B { get; set; } } I'd like to be able to map all IFoo but specifying their derived type instead: Mapper.CreateMap<int, IFoo>().AfterMap((id, foo) => foo.Id = id); And then map (without explicitly creating maps for Bar and Baz): var bar = Mapper.Map<int, Bar>(123); // bar.Id == 123 var baz = Mapper.Map<int, Baz>(456); // baz.Id == 456 But this doesn't work in 1.1. I know I could specify all Bar and Baz but if there are 20 of these, I'd like to not have to manage them and rather just have what I did above for creating the map. Is this possible?

    Read the article

  • How do I use jquery to both download & delete files dynamically from servlet

    - by Adam
    Is it possible to a jquery $.get() to call a servlet and use it to both download a file or update the page without reloading the page? (Or more basically, can I download a file without reloading the page?) For example, I am using a servlet that either returns a file to download of mimetype "application/octet-stream", or returns text to be update in the page of type "text/html". I can write a form with a submit, but then it reloads the page, so I've been trying to use $.get()... but the download doesn't work. <script type="text/javascript"> jQuery(document).ready(function(){ $("#handleFileOptions button").button(); }); function handleFilesSubmit(requestType) { $.get('FileServlet', {filename: $('#radioFileList input:radio:checked').button("widget").text(), requestType: requestType}, function(data){ ...?... }); } </script> In the html: <div id = "handleFiles"> <div id ="radioFileList"> <div id="radioFileList"> <input value="file0.txt" type="radio" id="fileitem0><label for="fileitem0">file0.txt</label> <input value="file1.txt" type="radio" id="fileitem1><label for="fileitem0">file1.txt</label> </div> </div> <div id="handleFileOptions"> <button id="handleFileOption0" onclick="handleFilesSubmit('Download')">Download</button> <button id="handleFileOption1" onclick="handleFilesSubmit('Delete')">Delete</button> </div> </div>

    Read the article

  • JS best practice for member functions

    - by MickMalone1983
    I'm writing a little mobile games library, and I'm not sure the best practice for declaring member functions of instantiated function objects. For instance, I might create a simple object with one property, and a method to print it: function Foo(id){ this.id = id; this.print = function(){ console.log(this.id); }; }; However, a function which does not need access to 'private' members of the function does not need to be declared in the function at all. I could equally have written: function print(){ console.log(this.id); }; function Foo(id){ this.id = id; this.print = print; }; When the function is invoked through an instance of Foo, the instance becomes the context for this, so the output is the same in either case. I'm not entirely sure how memory is allocated with JS, and I can't find anything that I can understand about something this specific, but it seems to me that with the first example all members of Foo, including the print function, are duplicated each time it is instantiated - but with the second, it just gets a pointer to one, pre-declared function, which would save any more memory having to be allocated as more instances of Foo are created. Am I correct, and if I am, is there any memory/performance benefit to doing this?

    Read the article

  • limiting mysql results by range of a specific key INCLUDING DUPLICATES

    - by aVC
    I have a query SELECT p.*, m.*, (SELECT COUNT(*) FROM newPhotoonAlert n WHERE n.userIDfor='$id' AND n.threadID=p.threadID and n.seen='0') AS unReadCount FROM posts p JOIN myMembers m ON m.id = p.user_id LEFT JOIN following f ON (p.user_id = f.user_id AND f.follower_id='$id' AND f.request='0' AND f.status='1') JOIN myMembers searcher ON searcher.id = '$id' WHERE ((f.follower_id = searcher.id) OR m.id='$id') AND p.flagged <'5' ORDER BY p.threadID DESC,p.positionID It brings result as expected but I want to add Another CLAUSE to limit the results. Say a sample (minimal shown) set of data looks like this with the above query. threadID postID positionID url 564 1254 2 a.com 564 1245 1 a1.com 541 1215 3 b1.com 541 1212 2 b2.com 541 1210 1 b3.com 523 745 1 c1.com 435 689 2 d2.com 435 688 1 a4.com 256 345 1 s3.com 164 316 1 f1.com . . I want to get ROWS corresponding to 2 DISTINCT threadIDs starting from MAX, but I want to include duplicates as well. Something like AND p.threadID IN (Select just Two of all threadIDs currently selected, but include duplicate rows) So my result should be threadID postID positionID url 564 1254 2 a.com 564 1245 1 a1.com 541 1215 3 b1.com 541 1212 2 b2.com 541 1210 1 b3.com

    Read the article

  • Help with java threads or executors: Executing several MySQL selects, inserts and updates simmultane

    - by Martin
    Hi. I'm writing an application to analyse a MySQL database, and I need to execute several DMLs simmultaneously; for example: // In ResultSet rsA: Select * from A; rsA.beforeFirst(); while (rsA.next()) { id = rsA.getInt("id"); // Retrieve data from table B: Select * from B where B.Id=" + id; // Crunch some numbers using the data from B // Close resultset B } I'm declaring an array of data objects, each with its own Connection to the database, which in turn calls several methods for the data analysis. The problem is all threads use the same connection, thus all tasks throw exceptios: "Lock wait timeout exceeded; try restarting transaction" I believe there is a way to write the code in such a way that any given object has its own connection and executes the required tasks independent from any other object. For example: DataObject dataObject[0] = new DataObject(id[0]); DataObject dataObject[1] = new DataObject(id[1]); DataObject dataObject[2] = new DataObject(id[2]); ... DataObject dataObject[N] = new DataObject(id[N]); // The 'DataObject' class has its own connection to the database, // so each instance of the object should use its own connection. // It also has a "run" method, which contains all the tasks required. Executor ex = Executors.newFixedThreadPool(10); for(i=0;i<=N;i++) { ex.execute(dataObject[i]); } // Here where the problem is: Each instance creates a new connection, // but every DML from any of the objects is cluttered in just one connection // (in MySQL command line, "SHOW PROCESSLIST;" throws every connection, and all but // one are idle). Can you point me in the right direction? Thanks

    Read the article

  • JQuery:bind.blur() is not working

    - by user198880
    Hello, I need to add a row to a table.I am using jQuery to add the row.But i my Add() function everyhing is working fine except that the blur function for the input fild "txtQuantity" is not getting triggered for the newly added row.Here is my function, function Add() { var rowPart = $('#trPart0').clone(true).show().insertAfter('#tblPart tbody>tr:last'); var index = document.getElementById("hdnMaxPartId").value; $("#tblPart tbody>tr:last").attr("id", "trPart" + index); $("td:eq(0) img", rowPart).attr("id", "imgPartDelete" + index).attr("onclick", ""); $("td:eq(1) input:eq(0)", rowPart).attr("id", "hdnWODefPartId" + index); $("td:eq(1) input:eq(1)", rowPart).attr("id", "hdnPartCost" + index); $("td:eq(1) input:eq(3)", rowPart).attr("id", "txtPart" + index).attr("name", "txtPart" + index).attr("onkeyup", ""); $("td:eq(2) input", rowPart).attr("id", "txtQuantity" + index).attr("onblur", ""); $("td:eq(3) div", rowPart).attr("id", "divPartCost" + index); $("td:eq(4) div", rowPart).attr("id", "divPartUnit" + index); $("#imgPartDelete" + index).unbind().bind('click', function() { DeletePart(index); } ); $("#txtPart" + index).unbind().bind('keyup', function() { ajax_showOptions(this,"getPartForAC",event,2,"replace","div_part_list"+index); } ); $("#txtQuantity" + index).unbind().bind('blur', function() { ChangeClassForObject(this,"clsSpText_blur"); CalculateCost(index,this,"divPartCost"+index); } ); }

    Read the article

  • Sanitizing user input before adding it to the DOM in Javascript

    - by I GIVE TERRIBLE ADVICE
    I'm writing the JS for a chat application I'm working on in my free time, and I need to have HTML identifiers that change according to user submitted data. This is usually something conceptually shaky enough that I would not even attempt it, but I don't see myself having much of a choice this time. What I need to do then is to escape the HTML id to make sure it won't allow for XSS or breaking HTML. Here's the code: var user_id = escape(id) var txt = '<div class="chut">'+ '<div class="log" id="chut_'+user_id+'"></div>'+ '<textarea id="chut_'+user_id+'_msg"></textarea>'+ '<label for="chut_'+user_id+'_to">To:</label>'+ '<input type="text" id="chut_'+user_id+'_to" value='+user_id+' readonly="readonly" />'+ '<input type="submit" id="chut_'+user_id+'_send" value="Message"/>'+ '</div>'; What would be the best way to escape id to avoid any kind of problem mentioned above? As you can see, right now I'm using the built-in escape() function, but I'm not sure of how good this is supposed to be compared to other alternatives. I'm mostly used to sanitizing input before it goes in a text node, not an id itself.

    Read the article

  • Fastest container or algorithm for unique reusable ids in C++

    - by gman
    I have a need for unique reusable ids. The user can choose his own ids or he can ask for a free one. The API is basically class IdManager { public: int AllocateId(); // Allocates an id void FreeId(int id); // Frees an id so it can be used again bool MarkAsUsed(int id); // Let's the user register an id. // returns false if the id was already used. }; Assume ids happen to start at 1 and progress, 2, 3, etc. This is not a requirement, just to help illustrate. IdManager mgr; mgr.MarkAsUsed(3); printf ("%d\n", mgr.AllocateId()); printf ("%d\n", mgr.AllocateId()); printf ("%d\n", mgr.AllocateId()); Would print 1 2 4 Because id 3 has already been declared used. What's the best container / algorithm to both remember which ids are used AND find a free id? If you want to know the a specific use case, OpenGL's glGenTextures, glBindTexture and glDeleteTextures are equivalent to AllocateId, MarkAsUsed and FreeId

    Read the article

  • How should I solve this MySql problem (PHP) ? (Beginner)

    - by Camran
    I have several tables in a MySql database. I have a classifieds website, and at the bottom I display the users last visited classifieds. I do this by storing the ID:s of the ads to an array in the cookie. Now, my db is made up like this kindof: Main Table: // Stores global information, ie these fields have to be filled out in every record, never be blank ID Price category Seller Item Table: // Stores descriptive info about whats for sale ID AD_ID (FK) //This is the same as ID in the MAIN TABLE Color Size Mileage etc My problem is that I need to know what category the ad is in, in order to query mysql for the right information I think. So I need two variables, but the cookie only has one (ID) stored. Offcourse I could make two queries, first one just matching the ID to the main_table and fetch the category from the Main_table. Then make the second query and fetch all other info from the right table. Here is an example if the category was Vehicles: SELECT * FROM main_table, vehicles_table, WHERE main_table.id=$id_from_cookie AND main_table.ad_id=vehicles_table.ad_id As you can see above, I need the category to write in what table to check, right? But I think there must be a smarter way, like fetching them in one single query using only one variable (id from cookie)? How should I do this? Understand? Let me know if you need more input... Thanks

    Read the article

  • Create rails record from two ids

    - by Michael Luby
    The functionality I'm trying to build allows Users to Visit a Restaurant. I have Users, Locations, and Restaurants models. Locations have many Restaurants. I've created a Visits model with user_id and restaurant_id attributes, and a visits_controller with create and destroy methods. Thing is, I can't create an actual Visit record. Any thoughts on how I can accomplish this? Or am I going about it the wrong way. Here's the code: Model: class Visit < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :restaurant_id, :user_id belongs_to :user belongs_to :restaurant end View: <% @restaurants.each do |restaurant| %> <%= link_to 'Visit', location_restaurant_visits_path(current_user.id, restaurant.id), method: :create %> <% @visit = Visit.find_by_user_id_and_restaurant_id(current_user.id, restaurant.id) %> <%= @visit != nil ? "true" : "false" %> <% end %> Controller: class VisitsController < ApplicationController before_filter :find_restaurant before_filter :find_user def create @visit = Visit.create(params[:user_id => @user.id, :restaurant_id => @restaurant.id]) respond_to do |format| if @visit.save format.html { redirect_to location_restaurants_path(@location), notice: 'Visit created.' } format.json { render json: @visit, status: :created, location: @visit } else format.html { render action: "new" } format.json { render json: @visit.errors, status: :unprocessable_entity } end end end def destroy @visit = Visit.find(params[:user_id => @user.id, :restaurant_id => @restaurant.id]) @restaurant.destroy respond_to do |format| format.html { redirect_to location_restaurants_path(@restaurant.location_id), notice: 'Unvisited.' } format.json { head :no_content } end end private def find_restaurant @restaurant = Restaurant.find(params[:restaurant_id]) end def find_user @user = current_user end end

    Read the article

  • Replace beginning words

    - by Newbie
    I have the below tables. tblInput Id WordPosition Words -- ----------- ----- 1 1 Hi 1 2 How 1 3 are 1 4 you 2 1 Ok 2 2 This 2 3 is 2 4 me tblReplacement Id ReplacementWords --- ---------------- 1 Hi 2 are 3 Ok 4 This The tblInput holds the list of words while the tblReplacement hold the words that we need to search in the tblInput and if a match is found then we need to replace those. But the problem is that, we need to replace those words if any match is found at the beginning. i.e. in the tblInput, in case of ID 1, the words that will be replaced is only 'Hi' and not 'are' since before 'are', 'How' is there and it is not in the tblReplacement list. in case of Id 2, the words that will be replaced are 'Ok' & 'This'. Since these both words are present in the tblReplacement table and after the first word i.e. 'Ok' is replaced, the second word which is 'This' here comes first in the list of ID category 2 . Since it is available in the tblReplacement, and is the first word now, so this will also be replaced. So the desired output will be Id NewWordsAfterReplacement --- ------------------------ 1 How 1 are 1 you 2 is 2 me My approach so far: ;With Cte1 As( Select t1.Id ,t1.Words ,t2.ReplacementWords From tblInput t1 Cross Join tblReplacement t2) ,Cte2 As( Select Id, NewWordsAfterReplacement = REPLACE(Words,ReplacementWords,'') From Cte1) Select * from Cte2 where NewWordsAfterReplacement <> '' But I am not getting the desired output. It is replacing all the matching words. Urgent help needed*.( SET BASED )* I am using SQL Server 2005. Thanks

    Read the article

  • MySQL replication - rapidly growing relay bin logs

    - by Rob Forrest
    Morning all, I've got a really strange situation here this morning much like a reportedly fixed MySQL bug. http://bugs.mysql.com/bug.php?id=28421 My relay bin logs are rapidly filling with an infinite loop of junk made of this sort of thing. #121018 5:40:04 server id 101 end_log_pos 15598207 #Append_block: file_id: 2244 block_len: 8192 # at 15598352 #121018 5:40:04 server id 101 end_log_pos 15606422 #Append_block: file_id: 2244 block_len: 8192 # at 15606567 ... # at 7163731 #121018 5:38:39 server id 101 end_log_pos 7171801 #Append_block: file_id: 2243 block_len: 8192 WARNING: Ignoring Append_block as there is no Create_file event for file_id: 2243 # at 7171946 #121018 5:38:39 server id 101 end_log_pos 7180016 #Append_block: file_id: 2243 block_len: 8192 WARNING: Ignoring Append_block as there is no Create_file event for file_id: 2243 These log files grow to 1Gb within about a minute before rotating and starting again. These big files are interspersed with 1 or 2 smaller files with just this in /*!40019 SET @@session.max_insert_delayed_threads=0*/; /*!50003 SET @OLD_COMPLETION_TYPE=@@COMPLETION_TYPE,COMPLETION_TYPE=0*/; DELIMITER /*!*/; # at 4 #121023 9:43:05 server id 100 end_log_pos 106 Start: binlog v 4, server v 5.1.61-log created 121023 9:43:05 BINLOG ' mViGUA9kAAAAZgAAAGoAAAAAAAQANS4xLjYxLWxvZwAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAA AAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAEzgNAAgAEgAEBAQEEgAAUwAEGggAAAAICAgC '/*!*/; # at 106 #121023 9:43:05 server id 100 end_log_pos 156 Rotate to mysqld-relay-bin.000003 pos: 4 DELIMITER ; # End of log file ROLLBACK /* added by mysqlbinlog */; /*!50003 SET COMPLETION_TYPE=@OLD_COMPLETION_TYPE*/; We're running a master-master replication setup with the problematic server running mysql 5.1.61. The other server which is, for the moment, stable is running 5.1.58. Has anyone got any ideas what the solution is to this and moreover, what might have caused this?

    Read the article

  • How can I set Thunderbird's "Recipient" column to display my email address rather than a friendly na

    - by Howiecamp
    After configuring a single, unified Inbox within Outlook 2007 to unify multiple email accounts, I found Thunderbird 3's Smart Folder feature. It works great, providing individual inboxes for each of your email accounts and a unified inbox which provides a unified, virtual view of those other inboxes. Thunderbird is smart enough so what when I reply to an email addressed to a specific email account, the reply is "From" that email address. In order to know which inbound email was to which of my accounts, I added the "Recipient" column to the inbox Smart Folder: What's displayed in the Recipient column depends on how the sender/sender's email client addresses the email. If they send it to just "[email protected]" without specifying a friendly name, the Recipient column displays "[email protected]" and there's no ambiguity about which account the email was sent to. However, if the sender has me in their address book (likely stored with a friendly name), it will be addressed as "Howard Camp [[email protected]]" and then show in the Recipient column as "Howard Camp". The problem is that if someone emails me with a friendly name at another of my email accounts (e.g. "Howard Camp [[email protected]]", the Recipient column will also display "Howard Camp" and I can't tell which account it's to until I open the message and/or look at the details. How can I configure Thunderbird to always display my email address rather than the sender-specified friendly name in the Recipient column?

    Read the article

  • Ways of marking a total match

    - by user331898
    I have two columns of matched data. One column contains the ID and the other column contains if there was a match(1) or no match(0) with that ID. There would be times when the all rows with the same ID will have all matched values of 1 and there would times where there were a mix of 0 and 1. I would like a third column to indicate where I have the same ID and all matched values are 1. Sample of what I have below column number and title of column: COLUMN 1: ID COLUMN 2: Match=1,No Match=0 1 1 1 0 2 1 2 1 3 0 3 0 3 1 This is what I would like: COLUMN # & TITLE COLUMN 1:ID COLUMN 2: Match=1, No Match=0 COLUMN 3: All ID Match & Match=1 1 1 N 1 0 N 2 1 Y 2 1 Y 3 0 N 3 0 N 3 1 N Is there a formula or way in excel 2010 that would make this possible? I would still like to keep the rows intact. Appreciate your help. Thank you in advance.

    Read the article

  • convert a logical partition to a primary partition

    - by ant2009
    Hello, Fedora 14 xfce I have the following partition setup. I would like to know how can I convert the logical partition sda6 to a primary partition. Disk /dev/sda: 320.1 GB, 320072933376 bytes 255 heads, 63 sectors/track, 38913 cylinders, total 625142448 sectors Units = sectors of 1 * 512 = 512 bytes Sector size (logical/physical): 512 bytes / 512 bytes I/O size (minimum/optimal): 512 bytes / 512 bytes Disk identifier: 0x1707a8a5 Device Boot Start End Blocks Id System /dev/sda1 2048 1026047 512000 83 Linux /dev/sda2 1026048 205844479 102409216 83 Linux /dev/sda3 205844480 214228991 4192256 82 Linux swap / Solaris /dev/sda4 214228992 625141759 205456384 5 Extended /dev/sda5 214231040 573562879 179665920 83 Linux /dev/sda6 573564928 625141759 25788416 7 HPFS/NTFS Filesystem Size Used Avail Use% Mounted on /dev/sda2 97G 5.0G 91G 6% / tmpfs 494M 176K 494M 1% /dev/shm /dev/sda1 485M 68M 392M 15% /boot /dev/sda5 169G 26G 135G 16% /home # partition table of /dev/sda unit: sectors /dev/sda1 : start= 2048, size= 1024000, Id=83 /dev/sda2 : start= 1026048, size=204818432, Id=83 /dev/sda3 : start=205844480, size= 8384512, Id=82 /dev/sda4 : start=214228992, size=410912768, Id= 5 /dev/sda5 : start=214231040, size=359331840, Id=83 /dev/sda6 : start=573564928, size= 51576832, Id= 7 I would like to convert sda6 to a primary partition, the reason for this it to install windows 7 starter. Many thanks for any suggestions,

    Read the article

  • Why does Exchange 2003 silently reject emails with large attachments?

    - by Cypher
    Our environment: Exchange Server 2003 Standard, single instance, running on Windows Server 2003 Standard. configured to not send/receive mail with attachments larger than 10 MB. NDRs are not enabled. The issue: When an external sender sends an email with an attachment larger than 10MB, Exchange, as configured, does not receive the message. However, the sender of that message does not receive any notifications from his own mail server that the message could not be delivered due to attachment size. However, if an external user tries to send an email to a non-existent user, they do receive a message from their mail server indicating that the user does not exist. Why is that, and is there anything I can do about it? It would be nice if the sender received notification that the attachment file size exceeds our limits and their message was never received... Update The Exchange server has a SpamAssassin box in front of it... could that have something to do with it? Here is one of the last lines from SpamAssassin's logs when searching for my test e-mails: mail postfix/smtp[19133]: 2B80917758: to=, relay=10.0.0.8[10.0.0.8]:25, delay=4.3, delays=2.6/0/0/1.7, dsn=2.6.0, status=sent (250 2.6.0 Queued mail for delivery) My assumption is that Spam Assassin thinks the message is OK and is forwarding it off to Exchange. Update I've verified that Exchange is receiving the message and generating an NDR. However, delivery of NDRs are disabled to prevent Backscatter. Is there something that I can do to get Exchange to send a bounce message to the sending mail server (or verify that message is being sent) so the sending mail server can notify its sender of the bounce?

    Read the article

  • Anonymous Login attemps from IPs all over Asia, how do I stop them from being able to do this?

    - by Ryan
    We had a successful hack attempt from Russia and one of our servers was used as a staging ground for further attacks, actually somehow they managed to get access to a Windows account called 'services'. I took that server offline as it was our SMTP server and no longer need it (3rd party system in place now). Now some of our other servers are having these ANONYMOUS LOGIN attempts in the Event Viewer that have IP addresses coming from China, Romania, Italy (I guess there's some Europe in there too)... I don't know what these people want but they just keep hitting the server. How can I prevent this? I don't want our servers compromised again, last time our host took our entire hardware node off of the network because it was attacking other systems, causing our services to go down which is really bad. How can I prevent these strange IP addresses from trying to access my servers? They are Windows Server 2003 R2 Enterprise 'containers' (virtual machines) running on a Parallels Virtuozzo HW node, if that makes a difference. I can configure each machine individually as if it were it's own server of course... UPDATE: New login attempts still happening, now these ones are tracing back to Ukraine... WTF.. here is the Event: Successful Network Logon: User Name: Domain: Logon ID: (0x0,0xB4FEB30C) Logon Type: 3 Logon Process: NtLmSsp Authentication Package: NTLM Workstation Name: REANIMAT-328817 Logon GUID: - Caller User Name: - Caller Domain: - Caller Logon ID: - Caller Process ID: - Transited Services: - Source Network Address: 94.179.189.117 Source Port: 0 For more information, see Help and Support Center at http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/events.asp. Here is one from France I found too: Event Type: Success Audit Event Source: Security Event Category: Logon/Logoff Event ID: 540 Date: 1/20/2011 Time: 11:09:50 AM User: NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON Computer: QA Description: Successful Network Logon: User Name: Domain: Logon ID: (0x0,0xB35D8539) Logon Type: 3 Logon Process: NtLmSsp Authentication Package: NTLM Workstation Name: COMPUTER Logon GUID: - Caller User Name: - Caller Domain: - Caller Logon ID: - Caller Process ID: - Transited Services: - Source Network Address: 82.238.39.154 Source Port: 0 For more information, see Help and Support Center at http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/events.asp.

    Read the article

  • Users getting 'flooded' with not read notifications (NRNs) for old emails and meeting requests

    - by Exile
    I'm being placed under quite a lot of pressure from senior management over a relatively trivial issue. Basically the vast majority of users are complaining that they receive not read notifications (NRNs) for old emails and meeting requests in large numbers multiple times a day. I know something strange is happening because some are delivered at silly times in the morning (i.e 3AM or 4AM). The problem I have is that these some of these NRNs are from meeting requests and messages that are 120 days old, so some users have deleted the original message so I don’t actually know if the NRN is from an email or meeting request. This is typical of what users receive as a NRN: From: Sender Sent: 23 March 2012 04:16 To: Recepient Subject: Not read: Accepted: Status update Your message To: Sender Subject: Accepted: Status update Sent: Wednesday, November 23, 2011 8:59:00 AM (UTC) Dublin, Edinburgh, Lisbon, London was deleted without being read on Friday, March 23, 2012 4:15:32 AM (UTC) Dublin, Edinburgh, Lisbon, London. ... From: Sender Sent: 18 March 2012 01:13 To: Recepient Subject: Not read: Gold delivery - Sourcing module Your message To: Sender Subject: Gold delivery - Sourcing module Sent: Friday, November 18, 2011 9:37:58 AM (UTC) Dublin, Edinburgh, Lisbon, London was deleted without being read on Sunday, March 18, 2012 1:12:37 AM (UTC) Dublin, Edinburgh, Lisbon, London. I have done a search and found the following: http://support.microsoft.com/kb/2544246 http://support.microsoft.com/kb/2471964 But we already installed 'Update Rollup 6 for Exchange Server 2010 Service Pack 1' back in December, so I am not sure what we can do to fix this?

    Read the article

  • Block SMTP connections from mail domains which don't themselves accept SMTP connection.

    - by bignose
    I'm administrating a mail service for a small business. Their mail host's internet connection is an ADSL service with a permanent IP address. Unfortunately, many misconfigured mail systems will happily deliver to this host, but, when the host attempts to send mail back (e.g. a bounce notice, or a normal response from someone), the original sender refuses to receive connections from this host. That misconfiguration makes their system a one-way mail sender, which is a problem. How can I configure Postfix on this customer's mail host to refuse SMTP sessions that declare a sender domain which itself refuses SMTP from this host? That is, if the SMTP client declares a domain that we can't make SMTP connections back to, then there's not much point accepting the incoming connection in the first place. I'm imagining a late check (after the low-cost checks to winnow most of the rubbish connections) that keeps the client on the other end while it attempts an SMTP client connection back to the declared domain of the sender. If that connection is rejected, the incoming one is also rejected. I'm also open to other suggestions for how this problem might be addressed (short of not using this mail host at all, which isn't an option).

    Read the article

  • Can sendmail be configured to discard routed email that has been rejected by the next hop?

    - by Guy Bolton King
    Background: We have a handful of hosts (running sendmail) acting as the MXs for a few domains each. Each domain is handled via the sendmail/cf /etc/mail/virtusertable, with a set of known recipients and a catch-all reject rule. Mail to postmaster on each host is aliased to root, and root is aliased to root+<host>@ourdomain.com. The MX for ourdomain.com is Google Apps, and [email protected] is a simple group that forwards to the admins. Google Apps will reject some emails at the SMTP stage, usually because of illegal attachments (instead of accepting them and filing them as spam). Problem: Given a particular spam email sent to a domain in a virtusertable entry: If the recipient address rejects the mail, then sendmail will try and send a DSN to the sender. If that sender also rejects the mail (because it's a falsified sender, and the MX for the sender rejects the mail as spam), then sendmail sends a DSN to the postmaster. The routing detailed above takes place, and...Google Apps rejects the mail as well. sendmail now gives up with a "savemail panic", and leaves the mail in the queue forever. Our mail queue fills up with garbage Is there any way I can get sendmail to discard messages that have been rejected by the next virtusertable hop (i.e. after step 1 in the Problem description)? Or does anyone have any other solutions to this?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150  | Next Page >