Search Results

Search found 4893 results on 196 pages for 'expect'.

Page 144/196 | < Previous Page | 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151  | Next Page >

  • VB .Net - Reflection: Reflected Method from a loaded Assembly executes before calling method. Why?

    - by pu.griffin
    When I am loading an Assembly dynamically, then calling a method from it, I appear to be getting the method from Assembly executing before the code in the method that is calling it. It does not appear to be executing in a Serial manner as I would expect. Can anyone shine some light on why this might be happening. Below is some code to illustrate what I am seeing, the code from the some.dll assembly calls a method named PerformLookup. For testing I put a similar MessageBox type output with "PerformLookup Time: " as the text. What I end up seeing is: First: "PerformLookup Time: 40:842" Second: "initIndex Time: 45:873" Imports System Imports System.Data Imports System.IO Imports Microsoft.VisualBasic.Strings Imports System.Reflection Public Class Class1 Public Function initIndex(indexTable as System.Collections.Hashtable) As System.Data.DataSet Dim writeCode As String MessageBox.Show("initIndex Time: " & Date.Now.Second.ToString() & ":" & Date.Now.Millisecond.ToString()) System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(5000) writeCode = RefreshList() End Function Public Function RefreshList() As String Dim asm As System.Reflection.Assembly Dim t As Type() Dim ty As Type Dim m As MethodInfo() Dim mm As MethodInfo Dim retString as String retString = "" Try asm = System.Reflection.Assembly.LoadFrom("C:\Program Files\some.dll") t = asm.GetTypes() ty = asm.GetType(t(28).FullName) 'known class location m = ty.GetMethods() mm = ty.GetMethod("PerformLookup") Dim o as Object o = Activator.CreateInstance(ty) Dim oo as Object() retString = mm.Invoke(o,Nothing).ToString() Catch Ex As Exception End Try return retString End Function End Class

    Read the article

  • C#: Accessing PerformanceCounters for the ".NET CLR Memory category"

    - by Mads Ravn
    I'm trying to access the performance counters located in ".NET CLR Memory category" through C# using the PerformanceCounter class. However a cannot instantiate the categories with what I would expect was the correct category/counter name new PerformanceCounter(".NET CLR Memory", "# bytes in all heaps", Process.GetCurrentProcess().ProcessName); I tried looping through categories and counters using the following code string[] categories = PerformanceCounterCategory.GetCategories().Select(c => c.CategoryName).OrderBy(s => s).ToArray(); string toInspect = string.Join(",\r\n", categories); System.Text.StringBuilder interestingToInspect = new System.Text.StringBuilder(); string[] interestingCategories = categories.Where(s => s.StartsWith(".NET") || s.Contains("Memory")).ToArray(); foreach (string interestingCategory in interestingCategories) { PerformanceCounterCategory cat = new PerformanceCounterCategory(interestingCategory); foreach (PerformanceCounter counter in cat.GetCounters()) { interestingToInspect.AppendLine(interestingCategory + ":" + counter.CounterName); } } toInspect = interestingToInspect.ToString(); But could not find anything that seems to match. Is it not possible to observe these values from within the CLR or am I doing something wrong. The environment, should it matter, is .NET 4.0 running on a 64-bit windows 7 box.

    Read the article

  • Accuracy of OpenGL ES Instrument

    - by Rob Jones
    I'm developing a game for the iPhone. I've decided that 30FPS is plenty so I've written some code that only allows the App to present the render buffer every 1/30 of a second. When I tried to verify this with Instruments I got varying information. On an iPod Touch (2009 edition, 32G) it reports 30 FPS for Core Animation Frames Per Second. On an iPhone 3G I get wildly varying results. And not just less than 30 FPS. I see 30 FPS on a regular basis. It actually seems to hang closer to 36-39. To investigate this anomaly I added my own FPS to the app and update it once per second. I stays right at 29 FPS on both devices. So, does anyone have any suggestions as to what might be going on? I expect Instruments to be accurate so it really concerns me that it appears inaccurate. It makes me think I have a bug somewhere, but I sure can't find it.

    Read the article

  • Nicely representing a floating-point number in python

    - by dln385
    I want to represent a floating-point number as a string rounded to some number of significant digits, and never using the exponential format. Essentially, I want to display any floating-point number and make sure it “looks nice”. There are several parts to this problem: I need to be able to specify the number of significant digits. The number of significant digits needs to be variable, which can't be done with with the string formatting operator. I need it to be rounded the way a person would expect, not something like 1.999999999999 I've figured out one way of doing this, though it looks like a work-round and it's not quite perfect. (The maximum precision is 15 significant digits.) >>> def f(number, sigfig): return ("%.15f" % (round(number, int(-1 * floor(log10(number)) + (sigfig - 1))))).rstrip("0").rstrip(".") >>> print f(0.1, 1) 0.1 >>> print f(0.0000000000368568, 2) 0.000000000037 >>> print f(756867, 3) 757000 Is there a better way to do this? Why doesn't Python have a built-in function for this?

    Read the article

  • Resolving Circular References for Objects Implementing ISerializable

    - by Chris
    I'm writing my own IFormatter implementation and I cannot think of a way to resolve circular references between two types that both implement ISerializable. Here's the usual pattern: [Serializable] class Foo : ISerializable { private Bar m_bar; public Foo(Bar bar) { m_bar = bar; m_bar.Foo = this; } public Bar Bar { get { return m_bar; } } protected Foo(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { m_bar = (Bar)info.GetValue("1", typeof(Bar)); } public void GetObjectData(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { info.AddValue("1", m_bar); } } [Serializable] class Bar : ISerializable { private Foo m_foo; public Foo Foo { get { return m_foo; } set { m_foo = value; } } public Bar() { } protected Bar(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { m_foo = (Foo)info.GetValue("1", typeof(Foo)); } public void GetObjectData(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { info.AddValue("1", m_foo); } } I then do this: Bar b = new Bar(); Foo f = new Foo(b); bool equal = ReferenceEquals(b, b.Foo.Bar); // true // Serialise and deserialise b equal = ReferenceEquals(b, b.Foo.Bar); If I use an out-of-the-box BinaryFormatter to serialise and deserialise b, the above test for reference-equality returns true as one would expect. But I cannot conceive of a way to achieve this in my custom IFormatter. In a non-ISerializable situation I can simply revisit "pending" object fields using reflection once the target references have been resolved. But for objects implementing ISerializable it is not possible to inject new data using SerializationInfo. Can anyone point me in the right direction?

    Read the article

  • T-SQL - Left Outer Joins - Fileters in the where clause versus the on clause.

    - by Greg Potter
    I am trying to compare two tables to find rows in each table that is not in the other. Table 1 has a groupby column to create 2 sets of data within table one. groupby number ----------- ----------- 1 1 1 2 2 1 2 2 2 4 Table 2 has only one column. number ----------- 1 3 4 So Table 1 has the values 1,2,4 in group 2 and Table 2 has the values 1,3,4. I expect the following result when joining for Group 2: `Table 1 LEFT OUTER Join Table 2` T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- 2 2 NULL `Table 2 LEFT OUTER Join Table 1` T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- NULL NULL 3 The only way I can get this to work is if I put a where clause for the first join: PRINT 'Table 1 LEFT OUTER Join Table 2, with WHERE clause' select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table1 LEFT OUTER join table2 --****************************** on table1.number = table2.number --****************************** WHERE table1.groupby = 2 AND table2.number IS NULL and a filter in the ON for the second: PRINT 'Table 2 LEFT OUTER Join Table 1, with ON clause' select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table2 LEFT OUTER join table1 --****************************** on table2.number = table1.number AND table1.groupby = 2 --****************************** WHERE table1.number IS NULL Can anyone come up with a way of not using the filter in the on clause but in the where clause? The context of this is I have a staging area in a database and I want to identify new records and records that have been deleted. The groupby field is the equivalent of a batchid for an extract and I am comparing the latest extract in a temp table to a the batch from yesterday stored in a partioneds table, which also has all the previously extracted batches as well. Code to create table 1 and 2: create table table1 (number int, groupby int) create table table2 (number int) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (1, 1) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (2, 1) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (1, 2) insert into table2 (number) values (1) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (2, 2) insert into table2 (number) values (3) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (4, 2) insert into table2 (number) values (4)

    Read the article

  • How to test if raising an event results in a method being called conditional on value of parameters

    - by MattC
    I'm trying to write a unit test that will raise an event on a mock object which my test class is bound to. What I'm keen to test though is that when my test class gets it's eventhandler called it should only call a method on certain values of the eventhandlers parameters. My test seems to pass even if I comment the code that calls ProcessPriceUpdate(price); I'm in VS2005 so no lambdas please :( So... public delegate void PriceUpdateEventHandler(decimal price); public interface IPriceInterface{ event PriceUpdateEventHandler PriceUpdate; } public class TestClass { IPriceInterface priceInterface = null; TestClass(IPriceInterface priceInterface) { this.priceInterface = priceInterface; } public void Init() { priceInterface.PriceUpdate += OnPriceUpdate; } public void OnPriceUpdate(decimal price) { if(price > 0) ProcessPriceUpdate(price); } public void ProcessPriceUpdate(decimal price) { //do something with price } } And my test so far :s public void PriceUpdateEvent() { MockRepository mock = new MockRepository(); IPriceInterface pi = mock.DynamicMock<IPriceInterface>(); TestClass test = new TestClass(pi); decimal prc = 1M; IEventRaiser raiser; using (mock.Record()) { pi.PriceUpdate += null; raiser = LastCall.IgnoreArguments().GetEventRaiser(); Expect.Call(delegate { test.ProcessPriceUpdate(prc); }).Repeat.Once(); } using (mock.Playback()) { test.Init(); raiser.Raise(prc); } }

    Read the article

  • UIView animation only animating some of the things I ask it to

    - by Ben
    I have a series of (say) boxes on the screen in a row, all subviews of my main view. Each is a UIView. I want to shift them all left and have a new view also enter the screen from the right in lockstep. Here's what I'm doing: // First add a dummy view offscreen UIView * stagingView = /* make this view, which sets up its width/height */ CGRect frame = [stagingView frame]; frame.origin.x = /* just off the right side of the screen */; [stagingView setFrame:frame]; [self stagingView]; And then I set up animations in one block for all of my subviews (which includes the one I just added): [UIView beginAnimations:@"shiftLeft" context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationCurve:UIViewAnimationCurveEaseInOut]; [UIView setAnimationDelegate:self]; [UIView setAnimationDidStopSelector:@selector(_animationDidStop:context:)]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.3]; for (UIView * view in [self subviews]) { CGRect frame = [view frame]; frame.origin.x -= (frame.size.width + viewPadding); [view setFrame:frame]; } [UIView commitAnimations]; Here's what I expect: The (three) views already on screen get shifted left and the newly staged view marches in from the right at the same time. Here's what happens: The newly staged view animates in exactly as expected, and the views already on the screen do not appear to move at all! (Or possibly they jump without animation to their end locations). And! If I comment out the whole business of creating the new subview offscreen... the ones onscreen do animate correctly! Huh? (Thanks!)

    Read the article

  • Mac CoreLocation Services does not ask for permissions

    - by Ryan Nichols
    I'm writing a Mac App that needs to use CoreLocation services. The code and location works fine, as long as I manually authenticate the service inside the security preference pane. However the framework is not automatically popping up with a permission dialog. The documentation states: Important The user has the option of denying an application’s access to the location service data. During its initial uses by an application, the Core Location framework prompts the user to confirm that using the location service is acceptable. If the user denies the request, the CLLocationManager object reports an appropriate error to its delegate during future requests. I do get an error to my delegate, and the value of +locationServicesEnabled is correct on CLLocationManager. The only part missing is the prompt to the user about permissions. This occurs on my development MPB and a friends MBP. Neither of us can figure out whats wrong. Has anyone run into this? Relevant code: _locationManager = [CLLocationManager new]; [_locationManager setDelegate:self]; [_locationManager setDesiredAccuracy:kCLLocationAccuracyKilometer]; ... [_locationManager startUpdatingLocation]; UPDATE: Answer It seems there is a problem with Sandboxing in which the CoreLocation framework is not allowed to talk to com.apple.CoreLocation.agent. I suspect this agent is responsible for prompting the user for permissions. If you add the Location Services Entitlement (com.apple.security.personal-information.location) it only gives your app the ability to use the CL framework. However you also need access to the CoreLocation agent to ask the user for permissions. You can give your app access by adding the entitlement 'com.apple.security.temporary-exception.mach-lookup.global-name' with a value of 'com.apple.CoreLocation.agent'. Users will be prompted for access automatically like you would expect. I've filed a bug to apple on this already.

    Read the article

  • jsf immediate="true" question regarding binding to session bean

    - by jamiebarrow
    Hi, I have a listing page that goes to an add page. The add page has a name textbox whose value is bound to a session scoped bean. The listing page has an add button that goes via an action method to the add page. This action method clears the object that the name textbox is bound to. I also have a cancel button on the add page, which is bound to an action method that again clears the value that the name textbox is bound to. If nothing is set to immediate, this all works fine. However, if I set the cancel button to immediate, if I enter values in the name field, and then click cancel, the action method is fired and clears the object in the backing bean and goes to the listing page. If I then click add, the action method clears the object again (ignore if it's best method or not) and then goes to the add page. I would now expect the add page's name textbox to be empty, but it's not?! Surely, since the add button is not immediate, the values should be re-bound and empty? Below is the relevant XHTML for the add button on the listing page <h:commandButton id="addButton" value="Add" action="#{myBean.gotoAdd}"/> Below is the relevant XHTML for the input box on the add page (myBean is session scoped), followed by that of the cancel button on the add page.: <h:inputText id="newName" value="#{myBean.newObject.name}" binding="#{myBean.newNameInput}" styleClass="name" /> <h:commandButton id="cancelButton" value="Cancel" immediate="true" action="#{myBean.cancelAdd}" onclick="return confirm('You sure?');"/>

    Read the article

  • Python Process won't call atexit

    - by Brian M. Hunt
    I'm trying to use atexit in a Process, but unfortunately it doesn't seem to work. Here's some example code: import time import atexit import logging import multiprocessing logging.basicConfig(level=logging.DEBUG) class W(multiprocessing.Process): def run(self): logging.debug("%s Started" % self.name) @atexit.register def log_terminate(): # ever called? logging.debug("%s Terminated!" % self.name) while True: time.sleep(10) @atexit.register def log_exit(): logging.debug("Main process terminated") logging.debug("Main process started") a = W() b = W() a.start() b.start() time.sleep(1) a.terminate() b.terminate() The output of this code is: DEBUG:root:Main process started DEBUG:root:W-1 Started DEBUG:root:W-2 Started DEBUG:root:Main process terminated I would expect that the W.run.log_terminate() would be called when a.terminate() and b.terminate() are called, and the output to be something likeso (emphasis added)!: DEBUG:root:Main process started DEBUG:root:W-1 Started DEBUG:root:W-2 Started DEBUG:root:W-1 Terminated! DEBUG:root:W-2 Terminated! DEBUG:root:Main process terminated Why isn't this working, and is there a better way to log a message (from the Process context) when a Process is terminated? Thank you for your input - it's much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Changing associativity

    - by Sorush Rabiee
    Hi... The associativity of stream insertion operator is rtl, forgetting this fact sometimes cause to runtime or logical errors. for example: 1st- int F() { static int internal_counter c=0; return ++c; } in the main function: //....here is main() cout<<”1st=”<<F()<<”,2nd=”<<F()<<”,3rd=”<<F(); and the output is: 1st=3,2nd=2,3rd=1 that is different from what we expect at first look. 2nd- suppose that we have an implementation of stack data structure like this: // //... a Stack<DataType> class …… // Stack<int> st(10); for(int i=1;i<11;i++) st.push(i); cout<<st.pop()<<endl<<st.pop()<<endl<<st.pop()<<endl<<st.pop()<<endl; expected output is something like: 10 9 8 7 but we have: 7 8 9 10 There is no internal bug of << implementation but it can be so confusing... and finally[:-)] my question: is there any way to change assocativity of an operator by overloading it?

    Read the article

  • mod_rewrite with question marks and ampersands (with PHP)

    - by Chris
    I have a PHP-based web app that I'm trying to apply Apache's mod_rewrite to. Original URLs are of the form: http://example.com/index.php?page=home&x=5 And I'd like to transform these into: http://example.com/home?x=5 Note that while rewriting the page name, I'm also effectively "moving" the question mark. When I try to do this, Apache happily performs this translation: RewriteRule ^/([a-z]+)\?(.+)$ /index.php?page=$1&$2 [NC,L] But it messes up the $_GET variables in PHP. For example, a call to http://example.com/home?x=88 yields only one $_GET variable (page => home). Where did x => 88 go? However, when I change my rule to use an ampersand rather than a question mark: RewriteRule ^/([a-z]+)&(.+)$ /index.php?page=$1&$2 [NC,L] a call like http://example.com/home&x=88 will work just as I'd expect it to (i.e. both the page and x $_GET variables are set appropriately). The difference is minimal I know, but I'd like my URL variables to "start" with a question mark, if it's possible. I'm sure this reflects my own misunderstanding of how mod_rewrite redirects interact with PHP, but it seems like I should be able to do this (one way or another). Thanks in advance! Cheers, -Chris

    Read the article

  • PostgreSQL insert on primary key failing with contention, even at serializable level

    - by Steven Schlansker
    I'm trying to insert or update data in a PostgreSQL db. The simplest case is a key-value pairing (the actual data is more complicated, but this is the smallest clear example) When you set a value, I'd like it to insert if the key is not there, otherwise update. Sadly Postgres does not have an insert or update statement, so I have to emulate it myself. I've been working with the idea of basically SELECTing whether the key exists, and then running the appropriate INSERT or UPDATE. Now clearly this needs to be be in a transaction or all manner of bad things could happen. However, this is not working exactly how I'd like it to - I understand that there are limitations to serializable transactions, but I'm not sure how to work around this one. Here's the situation - ab: => set transaction isolation level serializable; a: => select count(1) from table where id=1; --> 0 b: => select count(1) from table where id=1; --> 0 a: => insert into table values(1); --> 1 b: => insert into table values(1); --> ERROR: duplicate key value violates unique constraint "serial_test_pkey" Now I would expect it to throw the usual "couldn't commit due to concurrent update" but I'm guessing since the inserts are different "rows" this does not happen. Is there an easy way to work around this?

    Read the article

  • error C2512 in precompiled header file?

    - by SoloMael
    I'm having a ridiculously strange problem. When I try to run the program below, there's an error message that says: "error C2512: 'Record' : no appropriate default constructor available". And when I double-click it, it directs me to a precompiled read-only header file named "xmemory0". Do they expect me to change a read-only file? Here's the segment of code in the file it directs me to: void construct(_Ty *_Ptr) { // default construct object at _Ptr ::new ((void *)_Ptr) _Ty(); // directs me to this line } Here's the program: #include <iostream> #include <vector> #include <string> using namespace std; const int NG = 4; // number of scores struct Record { string name; // student name int scores[NG]; double average; // Calculate the average // when the scores are known Record(int s[], double a) { double sum = 0; for(int count = 0; count != NG; count++) { scores[count] = s[count]; sum += scores[count]; } average = a; average = sum / NG; } }; int main() { // Names of the class string names[] = {"Amy Adams", "Bob Barr", "Carla Carr", "Dan Dobbs", "Elena Evans"}; // exam scores according to each student int exams[][NG]= { {98, 87, 93, 88}, {78, 86, 82, 91}, {66, 71, 85, 94}, {72, 63, 77, 69}, {91, 83, 76, 60}}; vector<Record> records(5); return 0; }

    Read the article

  • Twig templates, inheritances and block usage

    - by user846226
    I've created three templates using Twig. The first one has block A defined in it, the second one extends from the first one, but includes a third template which sets the content of block A. When loading, through the browser, the url which renders b.html.twig, the content in block A (defined by the 3th template) is not positioned block _A is defined. Example: <!-- base.html.twig --> {% block _css '' %} {% block _header '' %} {% block _content '' %} {% block _footer '' %} {% block _js '' %} <!-- layout.html.twig --> <!-- header and footer are placed in the raight zone --> {% extends ::base.html.twig %} {% block _header %} {% render "MyBundleBundle:Header:header" %} {% endblock %} {% block _footer %} {% render "MyBundleBundle:Footer:footer" %} {% endblock %} <!-- my_template.html.twig --> <!-- content is also placed in the right zone but css and js blocks in the included template are not placed where declared in base.html.twig --> {% extends MyBundleBundle::layout.html.twig %} {% block _content %} SOME_CONTENT {% include MyBundleBundle::my_included_template.html.twig %} {% endblock %} <!-- my_included_template.html.twig --> {% block _css %} <link.......................> {% endblock %} {% block _js %} <script..................> {% endblock %} MORE CONTENT BELONGING TO THE INCLUDED TEMPLATE What i expect here is, _css blocks content to appear on top of the page and _js block content at the bottom, but that's not happening. I hope you can see where i'm going wrong, thanks!

    Read the article

  • Memory Bandwidth Performance for Modern Machines

    - by porgarmingduod
    I'm designing a real-time system that occasionally has to duplicate a large amount of memory. The memory consists of non-tiny regions, so I expect the copying performance will be fairly close to the maximum bandwidth the relevant components (CPU, RAM, MB) can do. This led me to wonder what kind of raw memory bandwidth modern commodity machine can muster? My aging Core2Duo gives me 1.5 GB/s if I use 1 thread to memcpy() (and understandably less if I memcpy() with both cores simultaneously.) While 1.5 GB is a fair amount of data, the real-time application I'm working on will have have something like 1/50th of a second, which means 30 MB. Basically, almost nothing. And perhaps worst of all, as I add multiple cores, I can process a lot more data without any increased performance for the needed duplication step. But a low-end Core2Due isn't exactly hot stuff these days. Are there any sites with information, such as actual benchmarks, on raw memory bandwidth on current and near-future hardware? Furthermore, for duplicating large amounts of data in memory, are there any shortcuts, or is memcpy() as good as it will get? Given a bunch of cores with nothing to do but duplicate as much memory as possible in a short amount of time, what's the best I can do?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC static-asset aides/practices

    - by shannon
    I want to keep assets that are only used by one view in a view-specific folder, so my Search.aspx properly finds images/*.jpg, and helps me maintain my convention: ~/Areas/Candidate/Views/Job/Search.aspx -> ~/Assets/Candidate/Job/Search/images/*.jpg Perhaps with the ability to easily reference controller- or area-common assets manually or automatically: ~/Assets/Candidate/Job/images/*.jpg ~/Assets/Candidate/images/*.jpg If you wonder why I'm doing this, then speak up; I'm probably missing something. But here's why: I don't want stale static assets sitting in my ASP.NET MVC projects, which I expect to be an automatic outcome of the ~/Assets/Images folder: i.e. As a shared asset loses its last reference-count, who knows to delete it, especially with it being so difficult to trace content link validity in MVC projects? How do you, personally, do this? I can imagine, for example: Implement HtmlHelper extension methods for URL-generation. Extending ViewPage and ViewMasterPage with URL-generation methods. Implementing an inbound request filter to search related folders for static assets. and, are there good libraries out there for this? For example, something that also automatically appends timestamps for .JS and .CSS files, writes the / tags for me, and maybe even that allows me to inject includes in the head section from outside head code?

    Read the article

  • Using Rx to synchronize asynchronous events

    - by Martin Liversage
    I want to put Reactive Extensions for .NET (Rx) to good use and would like to get some input on doing some basic tasks. To illustrate what I'm trying to do I have a contrived example where I have an external component with asyncronous events: class Component { public void BeginStart() { ... } public event EventHandler Started; } The component is started by calling BeginStart(). This method returns immediately, and later, when the component has completed startup, the Started event fires. I want to create a synchronous start method by wrapping the component and wait until the Started event is fired. This is what I've come up with so far: class ComponentWrapper { readonly Component component = new Component(); void StartComponent() { var componentStarted = Observable.FromEvent<EventArgs>(this.component, "Started"); using (var startedEvent = new ManualResetEvent(false)) using (componentStarted.Take(1).Subscribe(e => { startedEvent.Set(); })) { this.componenet.BeginStart(); startedEvent.WaitOne(); } } } I would like to get rid of the ManualResetEvent, and I expect that Rx has a solution. But how?

    Read the article

  • ADO.NET zombie transaction bug? How to ensure that commands will not be executed on implicit transac

    - by TN
    e.g. When deadlock occurs, following SQL commands are successfully executed, even if they have assigned SQL transaction that is after rollback. It seems, it is caused by a new implicit transaction that is created on SQL Server. Someone could expect that ADO.NET would throw an exception that the commands are being executed on a zombie transaction. However, such exception is not thrown. (I think this is a bug in ASP.NET.) Moreover, because of zombie transaction the final Dispose() silently ignores the rollback. Any ideas, how can I ensure that nobody can execute commands on implicit transaction? Or, how to check that transaction is zombie? I found that Commit() and Rollback() check for zombie transaction, however I can call them for a test:) I also found that also reading IsolationLevel will do the check, but I am not sure whether simple calling transaction.IsolationLevel.ToString(); will not be removed by a future optimizer. Or do you know any other safe way invoke a getter (without using reflection or IL emitting)?

    Read the article

  • Switch statement usage - C

    - by Jamie Keeling
    Hello, I have a thread function on Process B that contains a switch to perform certain operations based on the results of an event sent from Process A, these are stored as two elements in an array. I set the first element to the event which signals when Process A has data to send and I have the second element set to the event which indicates when Process A has closed. I have began to implement the functionality for the switch statement but I'm not getting the results as I expect. Consider the following: // //Thread function DWORD WINAPI ThreadFunc(LPVOID passedHandle) { for(i = 0; i < 2; i++) { ghEvents[i] = OpenEvent(EVENT_ALL_ACCESS, FALSE, TEXT("Global\\ProducerEvents")); if(ghEvents[i] == NULL) { getlasterror = GetLastError(); } } dwProducerEventResult = WaitForMultipleObjects( 2, ghEvents, FALSE, INFINITE); switch (dwProducerEventResult) { case WAIT_OBJECT_0 + 0: { //Producer sent data //unpackedHandle = *((HWND*)passedHandle); MessageBox(NULL,L"Test",L"Test",MB_OK); break; } case WAIT_OBJECT_0 + 1: { //Producer closed ExitProcess(1); break; } default: return; } } As you can see if the event in the first array is signalled Process B should display a simple message box, if the second array is signalled the application should close. When I actually close Process A, Process B displays the message box instead. If I leave the first case blank (Do nothing) both applications close as they should. Furthermore Process B sends data an error is thrown (When I comment out the unpacking): Have I implemented my switch statement incorrectly? I though I handled the unpacking of the HWND correctly too, any suggestions? Thanks for your time.

    Read the article

  • Why does adding Crossover to my Genetic Algorithm gives me worse results?

    - by MahlerFive
    I have implemented a Genetic Algorithm to solve the Traveling Salesman Problem (TSP). When I use only mutation, I find better solutions than when I add in crossover. I know that normal crossover methods do not work for TSP, so I implemented both the Ordered Crossover and the PMX Crossover methods, and both suffer from bad results. Here are the other parameters I'm using: Mutation: Single Swap Mutation or Inverted Subsequence Mutation (as described by Tiendil here) with mutation rates tested between 1% and 25%. Selection: Roulette Wheel Selection Fitness function: 1 / distance of tour Population size: Tested 100, 200, 500, I also run the GA 5 times so that I have a variety of starting populations. Stop Condition: 2500 generations With the same dataset of 26 points, I usually get results of about 500-600 distance using purely mutation with high mutation rates. When adding crossover my results are usually in the 800 distance range. The other confusing thing is that I have also implemented a very simple Hill-Climbing algorithm to solve the problem and when I run that 1000 times (faster than running the GA 5 times) I get results around 410-450 distance, and I would expect to get better results using a GA. Any ideas as to why my GA performing worse when I add crossover? And why is it performing much worse than a simple Hill-Climb algorithm which should get stuck on local maxima as it has no way of exploring once it finds a local max?

    Read the article

  • What's the Matlab equivalent of NULL, when it's calling COM/ActiveX methods?

    - by David M
    Hi, I maintain a program which can be automated via COM. Generally customers use VBS to do their scripting, but we have a couple of customers who use Matlab's ActiveX support and are having trouble calling COM object methods with a NULL parameter. They've asked how they do this in Matlab - and I've been scouring Mathworks' COM/ActiveX documentation for a day or so now and can't figure it out. Their example code might look something like this: function do_something() OurAppInstance = actxserver('Foo.Application'); OurAppInstance.Method('Hello', NULL) end where NULL is where in another language, we'd write NULL or nil or Nothing, or, of course, pass in an object. The problem is this is optional (and these are implemented as optional parameters in most, but not all, cases) - these methods expect to get NULL quite often. They tell me they've tried [] (which from my reading seemed the most likely) as well as '', Nothing, 'Nothing', None, Null, and 0. I have no idea how many of those are even valid Matlab keywords - certainly none work in this case. Can anyone help? What's Matlab's syntax for a null pointer / object for use as a COM method parameter? Update: Thanks for all the replies so far! Unfortunately, none of the answers seem to work, not even libpointer. The error is the same in all cases: Error: Type mismatch, argument 2 This parameter in the COM type library is described in RIDL as: HRESULT _stdcall OurMethod([in] BSTR strParamOne, [in, optional] OurCoClass* oParamTwo, [out, retval] VARIANT_BOOL* bResult); The coclass in question implements a single interface descending from IDispatch.

    Read the article

  • How to overload operator<< for qDebug

    - by iyo
    Hi, I'm trying to create more useful debug messages for my class where store data. My code is looking something like this #include <QAbstractTableModel> #include <QDebug> /** * Model for storing data. */ class DataModel : public QAbstractTableModel { // for debugging purposes friend QDebug & operator<< (const QDebug &d, DataModel model); //other stuff }; /** * Overloading operator for debugging purposes */ QDebug & operator<< (QDebug &d, DataModel model) { d << "Hello world!"; return d; } I expect qDebug() << model will print "Hello world!". However, there is alway something like "QAbstractTableModel(0x1c7e520)" on the output. Do you have any idea what's wrong?

    Read the article

  • Unit Testing (xUnit) an ASP.NET Mvc Controller with a custom input model?

    - by Danny Douglass
    I'm having a hard time finding information on what I expect to be a pretty straightforward scenario. I'm trying to unit test an Action on my ASP.NET Mvc 2 Controller that utilizes a custom input model w/ DataAnnotions. My testing framework is xUnit, as mentioned in the title. Here is my custom Input Model: public class EnterPasswordInputModel { [Required(ErrorMessage = "")] public string Username { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Password is a required field.")] public string Password { get; set; } } And here is my Controller (took out some logic to simplify for this ex.): [HttpPost] public ActionResult EnterPassword(EnterPasswordInputModel enterPasswordInput) { if (!ModelState.IsValid) return View(); // do some logic to validate input // if valid - next View on successful validation return View("NextViewName"); // else - add and display error on current view return View(); } And here is my xUnit Fact (also simplified): [Fact] public void EnterPassword_WithValidInput_ReturnsNextView() { // Arrange var controller = CreateLoginController(userService.Object); // Act var result = controller.EnterPassword( new EnterPasswordInputModel { Username = username, Password = password }) as ViewResult; // Assert Assert.Equal("NextViewName", result.ViewName); } When I run my test I get the following error on my test fact when trying to retrieve the controller result (Act section): System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Thanks in advance for any help you can offer!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151  | Next Page >