Search Results

Search found 3840 results on 154 pages for 'mister r2'.

Page 144/154 | < Previous Page | 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151  | Next Page >

  • asp.net C# windows authentication iss config

    - by user1566209
    I'm developing a webpage where a need to know the users windows authentication values, more precisely the name. Others developments have been done with this kind of authentication but sadly for me their creators are long gone and i have no contact or documentation. I'm using Visual Studio 2008 and i'm accessing a webservice that is in a remote server. The server is a windows server 2008 r2 standard and is using ISS version 7.5. Since i have the source code of the other developments what i did was copy paste and was working fine when i was calling the webservice that was in my machine (localhost). The code is the following: //1st way WindowsPrincipal wp = new WindowsPrincipal(WindowsIdentity.GetCurrent()); string strUser = wp.Identity.Name;//ALWAYS GET NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE //2nd way WindowsIdentity winId = WindowsIdentity.GetCurrent(); WindowsPrincipal winPrincipal = new WindowsPrincipal(winId); string user = winPrincipal.Identity.Name;//ALWAYS GET NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE //3rd way IIdentity WinId = HttpContext.Current.User.Identity; WindowsIdentity wi = (WindowsIdentity)WinId; string userstr = wi.Name; //ALWAYS GET string empty btn_select.Text = userstr; btn_cancelar.Text = strUser; btn_gravar.Text = user; As you can see i have here 3 ways to get the same and in a sad manner show my user's name. As for my web.config i have: <authentication mode="Windows"/> <identity impersonate="true" /> In the IIS manager i have tried lots of combination of enable and disable between Anonymous Authentication, ASP.NET Impersonation, Basic Authentication, Forms Authentication and Windows Authentication. Can please someone help me?? NOTE: The respective values i get from each try are in the code

    Read the article

  • Folder permission and submit button

    - by bob
    I want to create a simple installation script. Below are simple code. <ul> <?php function check_perms($path,$perm) { clearstatcache(); $configmod = substr(sprintf('%o', fileperms($path)), -4); $css = (($configmod != $perm) ? " class='error r2'" : " class='none'"); echo "<li".$css.">\n"; echo '<span style="float:left; padding-right:20px;">'.$path.'</span>'; echo '<span style="float:right; width:100px; text-align:right;"> <strong>'.$perm.'</strong></span>'; echo '<span style="float:right; padding-right:100px;"><strong>'.$configmod.'</strong></span>'; echo '<div class="clear"></div>'; echo "</li>"; } check_perms("config.php","0777"); check_perms("themes","0777"); check_perms("themes/images","0777"); check_perms("useruploads","0777"); ?> </ul> How to make if all file and folder is valid permission to 777 will appear Submit button. <input type='submit' name='submit' value='Submit' /> If there still have incorrect permission do not show the Submit button Let me know.

    Read the article

  • VS2010 error: Unable to start debugging on the web server

    - by GarDavis
    I get error message "Unable to start debugging on the web server" in Visual Studio 2010. I clicked the Help button and followed the related suggestions without success. This happens with a newly created local ASP.Net project when modified to use IIS instead of Cassini (which works for debugging). It prompts to set debug="true" in the web.config and then immediately pops up the error. Nothing shows up in the Event Viewer. I am able to attach to w3wp to debug. It works but is not as convenient as F5. I also have a similar problem with VS2008 on the same PC. Debugging used to work for both. I have re-registered Framework 4 (aspnet_regiis -i). I ran the VS2010 repair (this is the RTM version). I am running on a Windows Server 2008 R2 x64 box. I do have Resharper V5 installed. There must be some configuration setting or registry value that survives the repair causing the problem. I'd appreciate any ideas. Thanks, Gary Davis ([email protected])

    Read the article

  • How do I create a simple Windows form to access a SQL Server database?

    - by NoCatharsis
    I believe this is a very novice question, and if I'm using the wrong forum to ask, please advise. I have a basic understanding of databasing with MS SQL Server, and programming with C++ and C#. I'm trying to teach myself more by setting up my own database with MS SQL Server Express 2008 R2 and accessing it via Windows forms created in C# Express 2010. At this point, I just want to keep it to free or Express dev tools (not necessarily Microsoft though). Anyway, I created a database using the instructions provided here and I set the data types appropriately for each column (no errors in setup at least). Now I'm designing the GUI in C# Express but I've kind of hit a wall as far as the database connection. Is there a simple way to access the database I created locally using C# Express? Can anyone suggest a guide that has all this spelled out already? I am a self-learner so I look forward to teaching myself how to use these applications, but any pointers to start me off in the right direction would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Using Kerberos authentication for SQL Server 2008

    - by vivek m
    I am trying to configure my SQL Server to use Kerberos authentication. My setup is like this - My setup is like this- I have 2 virtual PCs in a Windows XP Pro SP3 host. Both VPCs are Windows Server 2003 R2. One VPC acts as the DC, DNS Server, DHCP server, has Active Directory installed and the SQL Server default instance is also running on this VPC. The second VPC is the domain member and it acts as the SQL Server client machine. I configured the SPN on the SQL Server service account to get the Kerberos working. On the client VPC it seems like it is using Kerberos authentication (as desired)- C:\Documents and Settings\administrator.SHAREPOINTSVC>sqlcmd -S vm-winsrvr2003 1> select auth_scheme from sys.dm_exec_connections where session_id=@@spid 2> go auth_scheme ---------------------------------------- KERBEROS (1 rows affected) 1> but on the server computer (where the SQL Server instance is actually running) it looks like it is still using NTLM authentication- . This is not a remote instance, the sql server is local to this machine. C:\Documents and Settings\Administrator>sqlcmd 1> select auth_scheme from sys.dm_exec_connections where session_id=@@spid 2> go auth_scheme ---------------------------------------- NTLM (1 rows affected) 1> What can i do so that it uses Kerberos on the server computer as well ? (or is this something that I should not expect)

    Read the article

  • Error accessing uncompiled pages using ISA Server 2006 SP1

    - by Bravax
    We are in the processing of configuring a portal to use ISA Server as our front end security provider. So we are using ISA Server 2006 SP1. Unfortunately when we access .net applications through ISA Server, the first time they are accessed. i.e. They are not compiled yet, the following error appears: Error Code: 500 Internal Server Error. The parameter is incorrect. (87) In the ISA Monitoring logs, this shows: Failed Connection Attempt Log type: Web Proxy (Reverse) Status: 87 The parameter is incorrect. Once the application is compiled, the error never appears. Does anyone know how to resolve this, so the site works correctly the first time? Some additional information: The websites accessed are running on windows server 2008 64 bit - standard edition, and occurs for Sharepoint as well as standard .net websites. ISA Server is running on Windows server 2003 R2 SP2 Standard eidtion The firewall on the windows server 2008 box allows all access. (To rule this out.) Nothing odd appears in the IIS logs or firewall logs.

    Read the article

  • Prototype function to set onclick event observer in checkboxes

    - by xain
    Hi, I want to set an observer for each of the following checkboxes: <div id="listr"> <ul id="lr" style="list-style-type: none"> <p class="tir">Text 1</p> <li class="ro"><input type="checkbox" name="r1" id="r1"/>A1</li> <li class="ro"><input type="checkbox" name="r2" />A2</li> <p class="tir">Text 2</p> <li class="rubro"><input type="checkbox" name="r3" />B1</li> <p class="tir">Text 3</p> <li class="ro"><input type="checkbox" name="r4" />B2</li> </ul> </div> It works if I write one observer per checkbox, but I want to do it in a short fashion, so I need something like $$('listr.lr.li.input').invoke('observe',click,function(field) { alert(this.name + ' clicked ' + this.checked); // other stuff ... }); Which is not working Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Accessing global variables of custom controls in ASP.NET

    - by CL4NCY
    Hi, I have built lots of custom asp.net controls which work really well separately but I want to somehow allow global access to all their variables from anywhere on the page. I have a central control called the ContentManager which I can use to store these variables. The problem I have is that all the controls are bound at different times so I only want the variables available after they're bound. For example I have many custom repeaters on the page which when bound I want to add a reference in the content manager so all their variables are then available to use. <Custom:ContentManager ID="cm" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r1" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r2" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r3" runat="server"/> Then I want a tag which can access all variables from any of these controls. <%= cm.controls["r1"].Items[0]["name"] %> The problem with this is that the variable isn't available until the repeater is bound so I might need to use events to push out the value to tags on the page like so: <Custom:Var ID="v1" control="r1" value="Items[0]["name"]" runat="server"/> Is this possible or can you recommend a better approach?

    Read the article

  • Castle windsor security exception

    - by Sunil
    I developed a small WCF service that uses Castle Windsor IoC container and it works fine on my PC. When I deploy it onto a Win 2008 R2 server and host the WCF service in IIS 7 it fails with the following error. I checked the server level web.config and the trust level is set to "Full". What do I need to do to get this to work. As a test I deployed the same service as it is onto a Windows 2003 server with the trust level set to "Full" and it works fine. I am unable to figure out what setting/configuration I am missing on the 2008 server that is making the service fail. Stack Trace: [SecurityException: That assembly does not allow partially trusted callers.] Castle.Windsor.WindsorContainer..ctor() +0 WMS.ServiceContractImplementation.IoC.IoCInstanceProvider..ctor(Type serviceType) in D:\WCF\WCFProofOfConcept\WMSServices \WMS.ServiceContractImplementation\IoC\IoCInstanceProvider.cs:19 WMS.ServiceContractImplementation.IoC.IoCServiceBehavior.ApplyDispatchBehav­ior(ServiceDescription serviceDescription, ServiceHostBase serviceHostBase) in D:\WCF \WCFProofOfConcept\WMSServices\WMS.ServiceContractImplementation\IoC \IoCServiceBehavior.cs:24 System.ServiceModel.Description.DispatcherBuilder.InitializeServiceHost(Ser­viceDescription description, ServiceHostBase serviceHost) +377 System.ServiceModel.ServiceHostBase.InitializeRuntime() +37 System.ServiceModel.ServiceHostBase.OnBeginOpen() +27 System.ServiceModel.ServiceHostBase.OnOpen(TimeSpan timeout) +49 System.ServiceModel.Channels.CommunicationObject.Open(TimeSpan timeout) +261 System.ServiceModel.HostingManager.ActivateService(String normalizedVirtualPath) +121 System.ServiceModel.HostingManager.EnsureServiceAvailable(String normalizedVirtualPath) +479

    Read the article

  • How to write a JOIN statement to combine data from disparate tables

    - by Amarundo
    I have the following 2 procedures that I use as my source for a report. As of now, I'm presenting 2 different tables in my SQL Server Reporting Services 2008 R2 report, because it doesn't let me put them together as they belong to 2 different data sets. I want to present them in a single table, but I have not been successful trying to use JOIN here. How do I do that? NOTE: cName in IAgentQueueStats corresponds to UserId in AgentActivityLog. /*** Aggregate values for Call Center Agents for calls, talk and hold time ***/ /*** The detail/row values is per 30-minute interval ***/ ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[sp_IAgentQueueStats_OnlyCalls_Grouped] @p_StartDate datetime, @p_EndDate datetime, @p_Agents varchar(8000) AS SELECT [cName] ,sum([nAnswered]) SumNAnswered ,sum([nAnsweredAcd]) SumNAnsweredAcd ,sum([tTalkAcd]) SumTTalkAcd ,sum([nHoldAcd]) SumNHoldAcd ,sum([tHoldAcd]) SumTHoldAcd ,sum([tAcw]) SumTAcw FROM [I3_IC].[dbo].[IAgentQueueStats] WHERE dIntervalStart between @p_StartDate and DATEADD(s, 86400-1, @p_EndDate) AND CHARINDEX ( cName ,@p_Agents)> 0 AND cReportGroup <> '*' AND cHKey3 = '*' and cHKey4 ='*' AND nEnteredAcd > 0 AND cReportGroup <> 'CCFax Email' GROUP BY cName And here is the second one: /*** Aggregate values for Call Center Agents for status/activity time ***/ /*** The detail/row values is per start-time/end-time ***/ ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[sp_AgentActivity_Grouped] @p_StartDate datetime, @p_EndDate datetime, @p_Agents varchar(8000) AS SELECT [UserId],[StatusCategory],SUM([StateDuration]) [StatusDuration] FROM ( SELECT [UserId] ,[StatusGroup] ,[StatusKey] , CASE [StatusKey] WHEN 'Available' THEN 'Productive' WHEN 'Follow Up' THEN 'Productive' WHEN 'Campaign Call' THEN 'Productive' WHEN 'Awaiting Callback' THEN 'Productive' WHEN 'In a Meeting' THEN 'Not Your Fault' WHEN 'Project Work' THEN 'Not Your Fault' WHEN 'At a Training Session'THEN 'Not Your Fault' WHEN 'System Issues' THEN 'Not Your Fault' WHEN 'Test' THEN 'Not Your Fault' WHEN 'At Lunch' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'Available, Forward' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'Available, Follow-Me' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'At Play' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'AcdAgentNotAnswering' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'Do Not Disturb' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'Available, No ACD' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'Away from desk' THEN 'Non Productive' ELSE [StatusKey] END StatusCategory ,stateduration FROM [I3_IC].[dbo].[AgentActivityLog] WHERE [StatusDateTime] between @p_StartDate and DATEADD(s, 86400-1, @p_EndDate) AND CHARINDEX ( [UserId] ,@p_Agents)> 0 AND [StatusKey] not in ('Gone Home','Out of the Office','On Vacation','Out of Town') ) a GROUP BY [UserId],[StatusCategory] ORDER BY [UserId], [StatusCategory] desc BTW, if I take some time to comment/reply on your posts, it's not lack of interest, but of understanding...

    Read the article

  • Sharepoint fails to load a C++ dll on windows 2008

    - by Nathan
    I have a sharepoint DLL that does some licensing things and as part of the code it uses an external C++ DLL to get the serial number of the hardisk. When i run this application on windows server 2003 it works fine, but on 2008 the whole site (loaded on load) crashes and resets continually. This is not 2008 R2 and is the same in 64 or 32 bits. If i put a debugger.break before the dll execution then I see the code get to the point of the break then never come back into the dll again. I do get some debug assertion warnings from within the function, again only in 2008, but im not sure this is related. I created a console app that runs the c# dll, which in turn loads the c++ dll, and this works perfectly on 2008 (although does show the assertion errors, but I have suppressed these now). The assertion errors are not in my code but within ICtypes.c and not something I can debug. If i put a breakpoint in the DLL it is never hit and the compiler says : "step in: Stepping over non user code" if i try to debug into the DLL using VS. I have tried wrapping the code used to call the DLL in: SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges(delegate() but this also does not help. I have the sourcecode for this DLL so that is not a problem. If i delete the DLL from the directory I get an error about a missing DLL, if i replace it back to no error or warning just a complete failure. If i replace this code with a hardcoded string the whole application works fine. Any advice would be much appreciated, I can't understand why it works as a console app yet not when run by sharepoint, this is with the same user account, on the same machine... This is the code used to call the DLL: [DllImport("idDll.dll", EntryPoint = "GetMachineId", SetLastError = true)] extern static string GetComponentId([MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPStr)]String s); public static string GetComponentId() { Debugger.Break(); if (_machine == string.Empty) { string temp = ""; id= ComponentId.GetComponentId(temp); } return id; }

    Read the article

  • ORDER BY in a Sql Server 2008 view

    - by eidylon
    Hi all... we have a view in our database which has an ORDER BY in it. Now, I realize views generally don't order, because different people may use it for different things, and want it differently ordered. This view however is used for a VERY SPECIFIC use-case which demands a certain order. (It is team standings for a soccer league.) The database is Sql Server 2008 Express, v.10.0.1763.0 on a Windows Server 2003 R2 box. The view is defined as such: CREATE VIEW season.CurrentStandingsOrdered AS SELECT TOP 100 PERCENT *, season.GetRanking(TEAMID) RANKING FROM season.CurrentStandings ORDER BY GENDER, TEAMYEAR, CODE, POINTS DESC, FORFEITS, GOALS_AGAINST, GOALS_FOR DESC, DIFFERENTIAL, RANKING It returns: GENDER, TEAMYEAR, CODE, TEAMID, CLUB, NAME, WINS, LOSSES, TIES, GOALS_FOR, GOALS_AGAINST, DIFFERENTIAL, POINTS, FORFEITS, RANKING Now, when I run a SELECT against the view, it orders the results by GENDER, TEAMYEAR, CODE, TEAMID. Notice that it is ordering by TEAMID instead of POINTS as the order by clause specifies. However, if I copy the SQL statement and run it exactly as is in a new query window, it orders correctly as specified by the ORDER BY clause.

    Read the article

  • Constructing a WeakReference<T> throws COMException

    - by ChaseMedallion
    The following code: IDisposable d = ... new WeakReference<IDisposable>(d); Has started throwing the following exception on SOME machines. What could cause this? System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException: Unspecified error (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80004005 (E_FAIL)) EDIT: the machines that experience the error are running Windows Server 2008 R2. Windows Server 2012 and desktop machines running windows 7 work fine. (this is true, but I now think a different issue is the relevant difference... see below). EDIT: as an additional note, this occurred right after updating our codebase to Entity Framework 6.1.1.-beta1. In the above code, The IDisposable is a class which wraps an EF DbContext. EDIT: why the votes to close? EDIT: the stack trace of the failure ends at the WeakReference<T> constructor called in the above code: at System.WeakReference`1..ctor(T target, Boolean trackResurrection) // from here on down it's code we wrote/simple LINQ. None of this code has changed recently; // we just upgraded to EF6 and saw this failure start happening at Core.Data.EntityFrameworkDataContext.RegisterDependentDisposable(IDisposable child) at Core.Data.ServiceFactory.GetConstructorParameter[TService](Type parameterType) at System.Linq.Enumerable.WhereSelectListIterator`2.MoveNext() at System.Linq.Buffer`1..ctor(IEnumerable`1 source) at System.Linq.Enumerable.ToArray[TSource](IEnumerable`1 source) at Core.Data.ServiceFactory.CreateService[TService]() at MVC controller action method EDIT: it turns out that the machines having issues with this were running AppDynamics. Uninstalling that seems to have removed the issue.

    Read the article

  • Controller actions appear to be synchronous though on different requests?

    - by Oded
    I am under the impression that the below code should work asynchronously. However, when I am looking at firebug, I see the requests fired asynchronously, but the results coming back synchronously: Controller: [HandleError] public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Status() { return Content(Session["status"].ToString()); } public ActionResult CreateSite() { Session["status"] += "Starting new site creation"; Thread.Sleep(20000); // Simulate long running task Session["status"] += "<br />New site creation complete"; return Content(string.Empty); } } Javascript/jQuery: $(document).ready(function () { $.ajax({ url: '/home/CreateSite', async: true, success: function () { mynamespace.done = true; } }); setTimeout(mynamespace.getStatus, 2000); }); var mynamespace = { counter: 0, done: false, getStatus: function () { $('#console').append('.'); if (mynamespace.counter == 4) { mynamespace.counter = 0; $.ajax({ url: '/home/Status', success: function (data) { $('#console').html(data); } }); } if (!mynamespace.done) { mynamespace.counter++; setTimeout(mynamespace.getStatus, 500); } } } Addtional information: IIS 7.0 Windows 2008 R2 Server Running in a VMWare virutual machine Can anyone explain this? Shouldn't the Status action be returning practically immediately instead of waiting for CreateSite to finish? Edit: How can I get the long running process to kick off and still get status updates?

    Read the article

  • Update on: How to model random non-overlapping spheres of non-uniform size in a cube using Matlab?

    - by user3838079
    I am trying to use MATLAB for generating random locations for non-uniform size spheres (non-overlapping) in a cube. The for loop in the code below never seems to end. I don't know what am missing in the code. I have ran the code for no. of spheres (n) = 10; dims = [ 10 10 10 ] function [ c r ] = randomSphere( dims ) % creating one sphere at random inside [0..dims(1)]x[0..dims(2)]x... % radius and center coordinates are sampled from a uniform distribution % over the relevant domain. % output: c - center of sphere (vector cx, cy,... ) % r - radius of sphere (scalar) r = rand(1); % you might want to scale this w.r.t dims or other consideration c = r + rand( size(dims) )./( dims - 2*r ); % make sure sphere does not exceed boundaries function ovlp = nonOverlapping( centers, rads ) % check if several spheres with centers and rads overlap or not ovlp = false; if numel( rads ) == 1 return; % nothing to check for a single sphere end dst = sqrt( sum( bsxfun( @minus, permute( centers, [1 3 2] ),... permute( centers, [3 1 2] ) ).^2, 3) ); ovlp = dst >= bsxfun( @plus, rads, rads.' ); %' all distances must be smaller than r1+r2 ovlp = any( ovlp(:) ); % all must not overlap function [centers rads] = sampleSpheres( dims, n ) % dims is assumed to be a row vector of size 1-by-ndim % preallocate ndim = numel(dims); centers = zeros( n, ndim ); rads = zeros( n, 1 ); ii = 1; while ii <= n [centers(ii,:), rads(ii) ] = randomSphere( dims ); if nonOverlapping( centers(1:ii,:), rads(1:ii) ) ii = ii + 1; % accept and move on end end

    Read the article

  • Can anyone explain this strange behaviour?

    - by partizan
    Hi, guys. Here is the example with comments: class Program { // first version of structure public struct D1 { public double d; public int f; } // during some changes in code then we got D2 from D1 // Field f type became double while it was int before public struct D2 { public double d; public double f; } static void Main(string[] args) { // Scenario with the first version D1 a = new D1(); D1 b = new D1(); a.f = b.f = 1; a.d = 0.0; b.d = -0.0; bool r1 = a.Equals(b); // gives true, all is ok // The same scenario with the new one D2 c = new D2(); D2 d = new D2(); c.f = d.f = 1; c.d = 0.0; d.d = -0.0; bool r2 = c.Equals(d); // false! this is not the expected result } } So, what do you think about this?

    Read the article

  • How to delete a row from a typed dataset and save it to a database?

    - by Zingam
    I am doing this as a small project to learn about disconnected and connected models in .NET 4.0 and SQL Server 2008 R2. I have three tables: Companies (PK CompanyID) Addresses (PK AddressID, FK CompanyID) ContactPersons (PK ContactPersonID, FK CompanyID) CompanyID is assigned manually by the users. The other IDs are auto-generated. Companies has a one-to-many relationship with ContactPerson. I have set any changes to cascade. I display all records in Companies in a DataGridView and when a row is clicked, the corresponding records in ContactPersons are displayed in a second DataGridView. I have successfully implemented updating and inserting new records but I completely fail in my attempts to delete rows and save the changes to the database. I us a typed dataset. If I use this: DataRow[] contactPersonRows = m_SoldaCompaniesFileDataSet.ContactPersons.Select("ContactPersonID = " + this.m_CurrentContactPerson.ContactPersonID); m_SoldaCompaniesFileDataSet.ContactPersons.Rows.Remove(contactPersonRows[0]); The records are displayed properly in the DataGridView but are not saved in the database later. If I use this: DataRow row = m_SoldaCompaniesFileDataSet.ContactPersons.Rows.Find(this.m_CurrentContactPerson.ContactPersonID); row.Delete(); The records are set but I get an exeception: DeletedRowInaccessibleException, when I try to refresh the DataGridView. The exception pop-s up in the auto-generated dataset.design file. I am pretty much stuck at this point since yesterday. I cannot find anything anywhere that remotely resembles my problem. And I cannot understand actually what is going on.

    Read the article

  • c# STILL returning wrong number of cores

    - by Justin
    Ok, so I posted in In C# GetEnvironmentVariable("NUMBER_OF_PROCESSORS") returns the wrong number asking about how to get the correct number of cores in C#. Some helpful people directed me to a couple of questions where similar questions were asked but I have already tried those solutions. My question was then closed as being the same as another question, which is true, it is, but the solution given there didn't work. So I'm opening another one hoping that someone may be able to help realising that the other solutions DID NOT work. That question was How to find the Number of CPU Cores via .NET/C#? which used WMI to try to get the correct number of cores. Well, here's the output from the code given there: Number Of Cores: 32 Number Of Logical Processors: 32 Number Of Physical Processors: 4 As per my last question, the machine is a 64 core AMD Opteron 6276 (4x16 cores) running Windows Server 2008 R2 HPC edition. Regardless of what I do Windows always seems to return 32 cores even though 64 are available. I have confirmed the machine is only using 32 and if I hardcode 64 cores, then the machine uses all of them. I'm wondering if there might be an issue with the way the AMD CPUs are detected. FYI, in case you haven't read the last question, if I type echo %NUMBER_OF_PROCESSORS" at the command line, it returns 64. It just won't do it in a programming environment. Thanks, Justin UPDATE: Outputting PROCESSOR_ARCHITECTURE returns AMD64 from the command line, but x86 from the program. The program is 32-bit running on 64-bit hardware. I was asked to compile it to 64-bit but it still shows 32 cores.

    Read the article

  • Multiple "ObjectChangeTracker" getting created, can it be avoided?

    - by user555937
    Hi, We are working on a POC where we have following architecture (MVVM), WPF(Client) + WCF + Model(DataAccess)+ ADO.Net Entity Framework 4.0 (with SQL Server 2008 R2 as DB) All are different projects. In the DataAccess layer we have created different Entity Models(edmx) based on the functionality. The tables under perticular flow are grouped and created different entity models. We are using self tracking entities to and fro to communicate with the WPF client through wcf service. For Single model everything works fine. But when we created a Multiple models then few issues started coming. Mutliple models have few duplicate tables/entities. Two probels are, 1) When we try to access entities from different models mutiple objects "ObjectChangeTracker" are getting created. E.g. CompanyModel(edmx) - Company(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker, ObjectState ProductModel(edmx) - Customer(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker1, ObjectState1 OrderModel(edmx) - Oder(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker2, ObjectState2 Is there any way to avoid this? 2) There are few tables which shared across the Models, E.g. Company(Entity) is used in All above mdoels. During compile time it does not thow any error. But run time It gives error saying "Schema specified is not valid. Errors: The mapping of CLR type to EDM type is ambiguous because multiple CLR types match the EDM type "Company"".. To resolve this, we renamed the entities with some prefix to make them Unique. Is there any other way we can resolve this without changing the name of the entity in the same assembly? Thanks in advance and appreciate if anyone has approach for these issues. Thanks, Kiran

    Read the article

  • Accomodating Multiple DLL Versions

    - by shadeseeker
    I have an application that uses a Microsoft DLL (Microsoft.ComponentStudio.ComponentPlatformImplementation.dll) which is used for OS deployment and accessing the catalog files. Version 6.0.0.0 is specific to the Windows Server 2008 catalog files. The newer version 6.1.0.0 is specific to Windows Server 2008 R2 catalog files. Attempting to access a catalog file with the incorrect version results in an exception. My application (VB.NET using VS2005) needs to be able to access either version of these catalogs - I'd be happy with two executables (one for each catalog version) but obviously I don't want to maintain two sets of source code for each. Specifying both sets of DLLs in the project reference is not possible as the DLL names are identical. I'd rather not have to manually add and remove the DLL references each time I want to a build. As far as I know the interfaces etc are effectively identical between the two. I've read a few articles here and elsewhere about bindingRedirect, Assembly.Load etc but none seem to be bearing fruit. Any guidance on the best path to follow would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Can I split a single SQL 2008 DB Table into multiple filegroups, based on a discriminator column?

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, I've got a SQL Server 2008 R2 database which has a number of tables. Two of these tables contains a lot of large data .. mainly because one of them is VARBINARY(MAX) and the sister table is GEOGRAPHY. (Why two tables? Read Below if you're interested***) The data in these tables are geospatial shapes, such as zipcode boundaries. Now, the first 70K odd rows are for DataType = 1 the rest 5mil rows are for DataType = 2 Now, is it possible to split the table data into two files? so all rows that are for DataType != 2 goes into File_A and DataType = 2 goes into File_B? This way, when I backup the DB, I can skip adding File_B so my download is waaaaay smaller? Is this possible? I guessing you might be thinking - why not keep them as TWO extra tables? Mainly because in the code, the data is conceptually the same .. it's just happens that I want to split the storage of this model data. It really messes up my model if I now how two aggregates in my model, instead of one. ***Entity Framework doesn't like Tables with GEOGRAPHY, so i have to create a new table which transforms the GEOGRAPHY to VARBINARY, and then drop that into EF.

    Read the article

  • SQL Database Schema Design For Large 3 Billion Relationship Database.

    - by K-Bell
    Get your geek on. Can you solve this? I am designing a products database for SQL Server 2008 R2 Ed. (not Enterprise Ed.) that will be used to store custom product configurations for over 30,000 distinct products. The database will have up to 500 users at a time. Here is the design problem… Each Product has a collection of Parts (up to 50 parts per product). So if I have 30,000 Products and each of them can have up to 50 Parts, that’s 1.5 million distinct Product-to-Part relationships …or as an equation… 30,000 (Products) X 50 (Parts) = 1.5 million Product-to-Parts records. …and If… Each Part can have up to 2000 finish options (A finish is a paint color). NOTE: Only one finish will be selected by a user at run-time. The 2000 finish options I need to store are the allowed options for a specific part on a specific product. So if I have 1.5 million distinct product-to-part relationships/records and each of those parts can have up to 2,000 finishes that is 3 billion allowable product-to-part-to finish relationships/records …or as an equation… 1.5 million (Parts) x 2,000 (Finishes) = 3 Billion Product-to-Part-to-Finishes records. How can I design this database so that I can execute fast and efficient queries for a specific product and return its list of Parts and all the allowable Finishes for each part without 3 Billion Product-to-Part-to-Finish records? Read time is more important then write time. Please post your thoughts/suggestions if you have experience with large databases. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • C# ? Can anyone explain the strange behaviour?

    - by partizan
    Hi, guys. Here is the example with comments: class Program { // first version of structure public struct D1 { public double d; public int f; } // during some changes in code then we got D2 from D1 // Field f type became double while it was int before public struct D2 { public double d; public double f; } static void Main(string[] args) { // Scenario with the first version D1 a = new D1(); D1 b = new D1(); a.f = b.f = 1; a.d = 0.0; b.d = -0.0; bool r1 = a.Equals(b); // gives true, all is ok // The same scenario with the new one D2 c = new D2(); D2 d = new D2(); c.f = d.f = 1; c.d = 0.0; d.d = -0.0; bool r2 = c.Equals(d); // false, oops! this is not the result i've expected for } } So, what do you think about this?

    Read the article

  • Time out when creating a site collection

    - by Daeko
    I am trying to create a site collection programmatically. It has worked for about 6 months, but after the servers have been updated (various patches) it doesn’t work anymore (we have 3 servers: 1 development, 1 test, 1 production). It is still working in my development environment which hasn’t been updated, but not on the two others. I don’t receive any error messages, it just hangs at the code that is supposed to add the site collection (see code below). I am using Windows Server 2003 R2 and Sharepoint 2007 (version 12.0.0.6421 ). It doesn’t give me any errors, it just hangs until Internet Explorer comes with a “request timed out” response. If I try and debug the code, the code just stops there and nothing happens. No error messages or anything. public static string CreateSPAccountSite(string siteName) { string url = ""; SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges(delegate() { SPWeb web = SPContext.Current.Web; using (SPSite siteCollectionOuter = new SPSite(web.Site.ID)) { SPWebApplication webApp = siteCollectionOuter.WebApplication; SPSiteCollection siteCollection = webApp.Sites; SPSite site = siteCollection.Add("sites/" + siteName, siteName, "Auto generated Site collection.", 1033, "STS#0", siteCollectionOuter.Owner.LoginName, siteCollectionOuter.Owner.Name, siteCollectionOuter.Owner.Email); //Hangs here site.PortalName = "Portal"; site.PortalUrl = mainUrl; // https://www.ourdomain.net url = site.Url; } }); return url; //Should be "https://www.outdomain.net/sites/siteName" }

    Read the article

  • C# WTF? Can anyone explain the strange behaviour?

    - by partizan
    Hi, guys. Here is the example with comments: class Program { // first version of structure public struct D1 { public double d; public int f; } // during some changes in code then we got D2 from D1 // Field f type became double while it was int before public struct D2 { public double d; public double f; } static void Main(string[] args) { // Scenario with the first version D1 a = new D1(); D1 b = new D1(); a.f = b.f = 1; a.d = 0.0; b.d = -0.0; bool r1 = a.Equals(b); // gives true, all is ok // The same scenario with the new one D2 c = new D2(); D2 d = new D2(); c.f = d.f = 1; c.d = 0.0; d.d = -0.0; bool r2 = c.Equals(d); // false, oops! this is not the result i've expected for } } So, what do you think about this?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151  | Next Page >