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• VNC Address Book - Window Invisible? Working as intended?

  - by user1445967

  I have VNC Server and VNC Viewer on the same PC with Windows 7 Ultimate x64. Is VNC Address Book supposed to have a main application window? I can't tell if this is bugged or working as intended. When I start VNC Address book, it creates an item in the task list and also an icon in the notification area. If I click the task list item once, nothing happens. If I click again, it disappears from the task list but remains in the notification area**. If I right-click the icon on the notification area, there is an option 'open address book', which if chosen, creates the item in the task list again, with the exact same behavior. If I left or right click on the address book icon, I have ways to connect to servers in the address book. However I have no way to add/remove/edit servers in the address book. **Note that this behavior is identical to that of an application with a main window where there is an option to 'minimize to system tray / notification area'. Only here, no main window is visible, ever. If fixing this problem is beyond the scope of this site, that's fine, but at this point I have no real way to tell if the program is malfunctioning on my pc or if it is far more minimalist than I expected. There appears to be no forum on realvnc.com where I can ask about this, perhaps this is to prevent me from getting any help unless I pay to register?

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• What is the main reason of adsl modem/routers dying ?

  - by ldigas

  The other day my home adsl modem/router (dwg 684t in this case) died. A guy from the telecom company came, brought another so no problem in day to day operation, but he also left this one. Now, I'm interested ... it didn't fall, it wasn't electrocuted ... but it just doesn't work. What could be the problem ? Can they be fixed ? Is it worth it (in which case I would have two which is always nice) ... What are the usual problems that occur with them ? In this case, I can connect to the router, I can see its settings, I just can't connect to the internet. With the new one everything works. Weird. Edit: Additional question: Can those things be fixed ? I mean, is it worth giving it to a local tinker for him to experiment on it ? I'm not looking for a definite opinion, just your personal advice ... (although in the end I think I'm gonna archive it in the "cylinder register")

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• This web site needs a different Google Maps API key. A new key can be generated at http://code.googl

  - by MJI

  Apologies in advance if this is the wrong place to post. I tried searching for this issue and all that seemed to come up were questions posted from people who had this issue with their web pages. I couldn't find questions related to this issue from a laypersons perspective. I'm not a developer. I have no domain, nor wish to have one at the time. Rather I'm just a regular person who likes to upload photos to some photo related sites. My uploading process constantly gets interrupted by one of these annoying API errors. I get it at least two times, one when I click the page to upload, and also right after it has uploaded. It also pops up if I go to edit a photo or delete it. This interrupts my browsing experience until I click okay. I just want a fix for the annoying without having to register for a key. I tried before and it required a web domain. I rather not have to create a domain and go through such hoops just to fix this. Is there a solution for this problem that doesn't require registration? Another thing to note: I have used two computers. One has the message pop-up and the other doesn't. What is different about the two computers?

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• Looking to get a small server – need web, PHP, PostgreSQL.

  - by Javawag

  Hi all! I'm looking to get a cheap (low end) server to serve web pages (xHTML/PHP), but I also need to be able to set up PostGreSQL on the system too. Ideally the server would have low power consumption, run Linux (I prefer Mac OS X but a Mac Mini, although the size I'm looking for, is too much money!) and be around £100 (~$160US). EDIT: Just to make it clearer, I'm looking to purchase the server hardware myself – but I want something about Mac Mini sized. I don't want to pay for hosting! Also, quick question – if it's to serve web pages from my home (standard ISP connection, no static IP!), what do I need in place to get this working. I'm guessing I would sign up with some service like no-ip, and register a domain to point to my no-ip address (then install the no-ip software on the server to update that with the current IP). I know the idea of running a server behind a normal ISP connection isn't very elegant, but I'd prefer to have the server where I can see it then pay over the odds for a hosting service where I have little to no control over what happens. Also, I could write my own server software for apps/etc to connect to as well. Anyways I'm rambling! What do you guys think?! Javawag

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• Xubuntu stuck after login

  - by viraptor

  How can I debug an issue with Xubuntu 12.04 (fresh install) which just waits idle after a login for about 30 seconds? The login screen is delayed correctly. After login, I get my desktop background, but no panels or auto-starting apps. It doesn't seem to be an authentication/pam issue, because I can login without delay at the console while the graphical session is still stuck. There's no disk or cpu activity and no obvious respawning of any process when I look at htop. There's nothing obviously wrong in .xsession-errors. Most interesting errors: openConnection: connect: No such file or directory cannot connect to brltty at :0 WARNING: gnome-keyring:: couldn't connect to: /tmp/keyring-wFn4VR/pkcs11: No such file or directory ... (polkit-gnome-authentication-agent-1:2131): polkit-gnome-1-WARNING **: Failed to register client: GDBus.Error:org.freedesktop.DBus.Error.ServiceUnknown: The nam e org.gnome.SessionManager was not provided by any .service files ** Message: applet now removed from the notification area ** Message: using fallback from indicator to GtkStatusIcon ... (xfce4-indicator-plugin:2176): libindicator-WARNING **: IndicatorObject class does not have an accessible description. ... (xfce4-indicator-plugin:2176): Indicator-Application-WARNING **: Unable to get application list: Operation was cancelled Bootchart seems to end before I login, so it's not that helpful. Where else can I look for information?

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• Firefox v15.0 about:newtab inaccessible via the back button

  - by Willem

  As of this morning I upgraded my Firefox to version 15.0. Or well, it did it for me. That's when my issue began. I've configured Firefox so that when I open up a new tab via Ctrl-T that it loads the about:newtab page which was released in version 14.x(?). I use this functionality extensively. I visit a page from the about:newtab page, read it, press the back button and pick another frequent website from the display I want to visit. However as of v15.0 the latter part is no longer functioning, after visiting a website from the about:newtab page the back button will not let me go back to the about:newtab page. Firefox acts as if that history entry was never there. I've tried searching the release notes to see if this change was intentional or a reported bug, but I have not found anything related so far. Is there anyway to (re)configure the new Firefox v15.0 to let me access the about:newtab page via a tab's history? EDIT: It appears that this only affects the initial 'visit' to the about:newtab page when opening a new tab, manually visiting about:newtab will register it as a history entry and allow it to be navigated to via the back and forward buttons. So I guess this changes my question to 'How can I make Firefox 15.0 treat the inital page from a newtab as a history entry'.

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• how to import existing VM in vmware workstation 8 inventory

  - by Wimmel

  I like to add existing vmware (player) virtual machines to the vmware workstation 8 inventory on linux. When I create a new virtual machine, it is stored in /var/lib/vmware/Shared VMs/. But copying new directories to that folder, does not make them appear in the workstation window. I found out, the inventory is stored in /etc/vmware/hostd/vmInventory.xml; <ConfigRoot> <ConfigEntry id="0000"> <objID>1</objID> <vmxCfgPath>/var/lib/vmware/Shared VMs/test 1234/test 1234.vmx</vmxCfgPath> </ConfigEntry> </ConfigRoot> But I don't know if I break anything when adding entries myself, and giving it an unique ID. Besides, adding a large number of VMs this way is a bit cumbersome. On ESX, it was possible to use vmware-cmd -s register, but I don't have a vmware-cmd installed. In another question it was suggested to use vmware converter. But vmware converter 5 (on windows) only allows a destination file location when I select workstation as destination type. When I select vmware infrastructure as destination type, it says the destination is unsupported; it required vmware vcenter server.

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• How can I stop SipVicious ('friendly-scanner') from flooding my SIP server?

  - by a1kmm

  I run an SIP server which listens on UDP port 5060, and needs to accept authenticated requests from the public Internet. The problem is that occasionally it gets picked up by people scanning for SIP servers to exploit, who then sit there all day trying to brute force the server. I use credentials that are long enough that this attack will never feasibly work, but it is annoying because it uses up a lot of bandwidth. I have tried setting up fail2ban to read the Asterisk log and ban IPs that do this with iptables, which stops Asterisk from seeing the incoming SIP REGISTER attempts after 10 failed attempts (which happens in well under a second at the rate of attacks I'm seeing). However, SipVicious derived scripts do not immediately stop sending after getting an ICMP Destination Host Unreachable - they keep hammering the connection with packets. The time until they stop is configurable, but unfortunately it seems that the attackers doing these types of brute force attacks generally set the timeout to be very high (attacks continue at a high rate for hours after fail2ban has stopped them from getting any SIP response back once they have seen initial confirmation of an SIP server). Is there a way to make it stop sending packets at my connection?

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• How to use the outcome of a formula as the value for Vlookup or another IF formula

  - by Steven

  Ok I will try to explain my issue effectively. I am making a GPA sheet in which the value out of 100 is computer in to a GPA value and then in to a letter. In cell N5 i have the value of all their grades (formula: =H3+H4+H5) Now in cell (j6) I have a formula which is giving them a number depending on the value calculated in N5 (Formula: =IF(AND(N5>=60,N5<=63.999),"2.0",IF(AND(N5>=64,N5<=66.999),"2.25",IF(AND(N5>=67,N5<=69.999),"2.4",IF(AND(N5>=70,N5<=73.999),"2.5",IF(AND(N5>=74,N5<=76.999),"2.75",IF(AND(N5>=77,N5<=79.999),"2.9",IF(AND(N5>=80,N5<=83.999),"3.0",IF(AND(N5>=84,N5<=86.999),"3.25",IF(AND(N5>=87,N5<=89.999),"3.4",IF(AND(N5>=90,N5<=93.999),"3.50",IF(AND(N5>=94,N5<=96.999),"3.75",IF(AND(N5>=97,N5<=100),"4",IF(AND(N5<=59.999),"0"))))))))))))) Still no problem... as the values I was looking for comes out (example 84.2 shows up as 3.25 as I wanted). However here comes the problem.... I have tried to use the outcome in J6 to do Vlookup or another if formula, however excel does not seem to recognize the value in J6. For example: =VLOOKUP(j6,B3:C15,2,FALSE)... this returns N/A however if I enter =VLOOKUP(3.25,B3:C15,2,FALSE) it gives me what im looking for. It seems that excel will not register the outcome of my formula as a number. What can I do please?

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• what is the reason behind window service stopped ,whether its due to LAN problems or any other issues

  - by Steve

  I have a windowservice which named Trunk which stopped one day i just want to know the reason behind it? this is an entry in the logs, Nov 15 17:54:04.318 :Trunk-1516:Trunk:handle_control_event:Received CTRL_LOGOFF_EVENT, ignore it Nov 25 15:54:52.157 :Trunk-1516:Trunk:ERROR - Process Restart Count (5) Exceeded for:C:\Program Files\secon\11.1.4\bin\vmd Nov 25 15:54:52.157 :Trunk-1516:Trunk:Stopping Trunk ... Nov 25 15:54:52.314 :Trunk-1516:Trunk:Shutting down, signaled C:\Program F Nov 20 15:54:20.345 :SCBridge.RegisterBridge:Exception in method: ScUtility.ScCommandException (0xa08990002): Exception from HRESULT: 0xa08990002 Supplemental Information: None available. at ScServer.ScServiceProcessorRegistryManager.Attach(String serviceProcessor, ScClientInformation clientInfo, FORCE_ATTACH_SPEC forceAttachToMaster) at ScServer.ScServiceProcessorRegistry.Attach(String serviceProcessor, Object clientInfo) at ScServer.ScServiceProcessorRegistry.Attach(String serviceProcessor) at ServerControlInterface.SCBridge.RegisterBridge(String SPName) for system APOLLOSP0 attempting to attach and register with the Bridge i had seen service is registered with specific account, so i thought that user logged off from the machine that may be the reason behind it or any LAN disconnection problem . But Having taken another look at the above entry we seem to have a constant failure being generated in vmd which causes Trunk to detect vmd requires a restart. Most of the time it works OK and the restart count is anything up to 4. In this case the Trunk log confirms that the Restart Count is 5 and so is considered to be exceeded. Presumably, this triggers the termination of the other services and Trunk is actually doing its job.So, coould this just be a timing issue and we need to increase the tolerance level (i.e restart count) or do we need to address the 0xa08990002 error in vmd?

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• VPS goes slow at more than 20 users online at the same time

  - by hachiari

  I have 512 MB VPS (brustable to 1GB) Somehow, the site goes slow when there are about 10 users, and becomes impossible to load at 20 users online at the same time. I wonder what could be the problem for this. The bandwidth connection of the VPS is 1Gbps. Here is some settings in my VPS: KeepAlive Off <IfModule prefork.c> StartServers 7 MinSpareServers 7 MaxSpareServers 10 ServerLimit 64 MaxClients 64 MaxRequestsPerChild 0 </IfModule> my.cnf settings - calculated Max Memory 300MB Output from UNIXBENCH INDEX VALUES TEST BASELINE RESULT INDEX Dhrystone 2 using register variables 376783.7 13429727.4 356.4 Double-Precision Whetstone 83.1 1137.5 136.9 Execl Throughput 188.3 1637.4 87.0 File Copy 1024 bufsize 2000 maxblocks 2672.0 148868.0 557.1 File Copy 256 bufsize 500 maxblocks 1077.0 79430.0 737.5 File Read 4096 bufsize 8000 maxblocks 15382.0 1410009.0 916.7 Pipe Throughput 111814.6 4419722.0 395.3 Pipe-based Context Switching 15448.6 561505.1 363.5 Process Creation 569.3 10272.7 180.4 Shell Scripts (8 concurrent) 44.8 514.3 114.8 System Call Overhead 114433.5 3537373.8 309.1 ========= FINAL SCORE 295.0 I am afraid that the VPS company limit the number of connection to the VPS... is it possible? The server is in Japan, but the site has global traffic (some of the traffic are from countries with low speed connection). Could this be the problem? This is a serious problem :( my site just cant grow if this keeps on happening... please tell me if you have any idea. Thank You, Bryant

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• CPU usage always below 10% in windows server 2008 r2 x64

  - by ???

  I am using a server with windows server 2008 r2 running on it to run my program. The CPU of the server is Intel xeon x5570 2.93GHz with 2 processors, 8 cores per processer. However, I found that the cpu usage is almost always below 10% even I use 32 threads in my program. And I also found that sometimes the cpu usage could reach as high as 93% through the task manager when running my program and at that moment my program has processed over 1000 files per second while normally, it only processed over 50 files per second. However, this does not happen often. I use tools downloaded from the internet to make sure no core sleeps when the server is on, nothing changed. Also, I edited the windows register to make sure that I, as an administer, have no cpu usage limit. But it changed nothing. Is there anyway that I can make full use of my cpu? That is to say that each core runs a thread of my program and the total cpu usage could reach over 50% when I use a reasonable number of threads in my program. Did this happen to anyone of you? And could you help me with this ? Thank you!

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• Remotely port forward/launch process or a client-less remote desktop app?

  - by DC177E

  I have an XP box running Logmein at a remote location behind a linksys router, which was running well for a whole of four days, until we had a power failure. Our ISP gave us a new IP, the machine restarted, and logmein did not autorun (or, at least, it did not automatically sign in), and our service (which may or may not be a Minecraft server with non-backed-up save files) also did not run upon startup. Logmein does not register the new IP (it still displays the old one). I have a DDNS updater service, so I do know the new dynamic address. I have tried using the built in XP remote desktop service, but, as with almost all non-cloud-based remote desktop services, it requires a port forward. Thus, I would appreciate it if anyone has any ideas as to: A: Any way of accessing our router remotely to forward the remote desktop port. I've seen the Remote Management option (forwarding the setup page to port 8080), but I do not have it enabled. I've tried UPnP, but again, the setup page for our router is not forwarded. B: Any way of remotely launching a process that does not require port forwarding (or uses ports 255XX, 18XXX, or 9000.), such as a remote console service built into XP. I realize this is a near impossibility. C: A Way to remotely start logmein, and sign in, which is likely a definite impossibility. Sorry if this is too specific for Stackexchange, or if I've put it into the wrong section (is SuperUser the correct place for this?). Ideas would, again be much appreciated, as shot-in-the-dark-like this may be.

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• Free blog sites where the blogs can (if the template does) validate as XHTML Strict 1.0?

  - by Deleted

  I'm looking for a site where I may register a free blog and have the blog validate as XHTML Strict 1.0. On the surface this may seem like a trivial problem only related to the theme/template in use, but that's unfortunately not the case. One example of a provider which can't fullfill this requirement is Blogger. Altough the pages of the blogs there presents themselfs as XHTML 1.0 Strict it is impossible to actually comply with the requirements inheritied by that markup type in the blog (as the XHTML which is generated by Blogger makes the page as a whole invalid). I've sent a mail to Tumblr to see if it was possible with them, but so far my reply consists of them having forwarded my mail with a "suggestion" to the development department. I don't know if we had a communication error or if I'm actually going to receive a proper answer later. Time will tell. I haven't had time to investigate Tumblr myself, so they may very well be the solution to this problem. To sum things up, I'm looking for any provider: Of a free blog. The blog must have the capability to validate as XHTML Strict 1.0. With capability I mean that the system shouldn't get in the way of creating/using a theme which complies as XHTML Strict 1.0. Preferably is large or at least likely to stay around for a couple of years to come. But I'm willing to take my chances if none of the established providers are up to the task. Thank you for reading! I hope you know of any provider which would be suitable, preferably with proof by linking to a blog there which validates. I'm not looking for suggestions to look into, as there are far to many to investigate and far too little time. If you know of something for sure, I'd be very happy to know about it.

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• sendmail appends server name to external domains when relaying

  - by Chris

  My server is set to send all email to a corporate relay server. For the company domain, it works perfectly. I've recently found emails being sent to an outside domain are getting the hostname of my server appended to the email prior to being sent. Here is the log entry for one such attempt. Nov 6 09:46:45 myservername sendmail[45023]: rA6EkjiI045023: [email protected], delay=00:00:00, xdelay=00:00:00, mailer=relay, pri=30590, relay=[127.0.0.1] [127.0.0.1], dsn=2.0.0, stat=Sent (rA6Ekj2g045037 Message accepted for delivery) Nov 6 09:46:45 myservername sendmail[45061]: rA6Ekj2g045037: to=<[email protected]>, delay=00:00:00, xdelay=00:00:00, mailer=relay, pri=120885, relay=relay.company.com [x.x.x.x], dsn=2.0.0, stat=Sent (ok: Message 342335947 accepted) Notice the email address difference between it being accepted by my server for delivery (correct email address), and being sent and accepted by the corporate relay (incorrect with server name appended). To make it more interesting, the application on my server uses email for user account verification/activation. In August, this particular user was able to register his account and activate it. I have made no configuration changes to mail since setting the server up over a year ago. DNS is also a corporate service. I've never touched my /etc/resolv.conf configuration. domain company.com nameserver <ip1> nameserver <ip2> search myservername Thanks!

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• Can I install windows on an SSD and access data from my old windows HDD?

  - by nzifnab

  I purchased new computer components, switching my hardware from AMD and Radeon to Intel and Nvidia. I kept components from my old computer like the powersupply and two HDDs. Everything appeared to install correctly and the system booted into the BIOS just fine (after a brief snafu with the CPU fan). My goal was to use the two harddrives and just be able to turn on the computer and load up my old windows install with all the files, programs, and documents. I expected to have to call Microsoft to re-register the windows install for the new hardware (since I had to do that last time I upgraded w/ the same windows version). When the computer attempts to boot into windows it briefly flashes a bluescreen and then restarts. System recovery gives a message something like "BadDriver Failover" something something. I assume this is because it's trying to use amd drivers for an intel chipset (or something...?) and I've been as-yet unsuccessful in getting it to boot into my old windows partition. SO! I decided eff it, maybe I'll go visit my nearest Micro Center and buy a 200 GB SSD, install windows onto that, and then... be able to access just the contents of both of my other harddrives? I don't intend on running any of the programs but there were some saved files I would like to salvage from the 500 GB harddrive, The 1.5 TB harddrive only had files on it, no OS or applications so I'd also expect to still be able to access it. Is this possible? Can I install the SSD and only format/install windows onto it and still access the contents from my two transferred-over drives?

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• Outlook 2010 IMAP account - send on behalf

  - by Master of Celebration

  So I was looking for a possibility to manage the mail distribution of online shops, newsfeeds, etc. and have a nice solution via distribution groups aka. alias addresses. In example, I register an account on eBay using "[email protected]" (where org.com is my company obviously). That address is an alias and can be managed on my on-premise mail server setting destination to somebody's mailbox independent from logging on to eBay - in case somebody else shall do the eBay-stuff, I can quick change the destination of that alias :-) So far, so good - and now to the problem: Using Microsoft Outlook 2010 and an IMAP account on our mail server, I cannot figure out how to remove that "on behalf of"-string visible in the from-field when sending a message under that [email protected] address. That's quite a pity, because especially eBay doesn't accept/forward mails not coming from the registered address.. Using other mail clients (e.g. Mozilla Thunderbird), the problem does not occur so I guess it's Outlook specific. I cannot "grant" permission to "send as", because that address is not a mailbox, but rather an alias only. Furthermore, the mail accounts are not Exchange, but IMAP! Does anybody have any other ideas to "remove" that annoying string? Consideration: We have to use Microsoft Outlook for some reason! :-)

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• Understanding where an amazon ec2 instance run?

  - by kenzo450D

  I am currently using the aws api from my local desktop. I can successfully take backups of my amazon volumes, and even create an ami from it. Now when i wanted to run the instance to be built from this ami, where does the instance run? In their Elastic Cloud or the computer from which the command was issued. Suppose I want to create the new instance in a new region? (locations as defined in ec2-describe-regions) How would I do that? It seems i have a bad knowledge about how the relation between amazon volumes and instances? Please explain it. I am only allowed to use the CLI tools to do all of my work. I made a new snapshot of the existing instance, made an ami using ec2-register, made a keypair, and then followed these steps, http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSEC2/latest/UserGuide/launching-an-instance.html#launching-an-instance-cli but i got an error as this Client.InvalidParameterValue: The requested instance type's architecture (i386) does not match the architecture in the manifest for aki-fc37bacc (x86_64) my local computer is 32bit. But I do not want to load instance on the local computer but on amazon servers?

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• How to route outbound traffic to specific domain "XYZ.org" via a specific NIC or public/static IP?

  - by user139943

  Within the next week or so, I'll be setting up an AT&T U-verse modem with 5 usable static public IP addresses. I plan to register a domain name to 1 of the 5 static IPs (remaining 4 unregistered), and run a website from a single server setup in my home LAN. I'll skip the long winded reason why, but I need to somehow route outbound traffic (originating from my server) destined for one public domain (i.e. http://www.sample.org) through one of the UNREGISTERED static IP addresses ONLY. Basically, I want this public domain to see connections coming from an IP address and not my domain name. If it makes it easier, this can apply to all outbound traffic from my server as long as it doesn't impact users browsing my website! Inbound connections should go through the domain name / registered public IP. Can I accomplish this with my single server with one or multiple NICs? Do I need multiple servers and set one up as a proxy? Please help as my background is in software and not networking, and I don't think I can accomplish this at a software level (e.g. Java). Thanks.

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• What method of MySQL mirroring should I use for this?

  - by user45745

  I'm running an web application hosting service (basically hosting forums for free), and I have two remote servers at my disposal. The code for the application is stored on both servers and isn't a problem, but I'm wondering how to deal with the databases. When someone goes onto a site *.example-host.com, they are sent to one of the two servers and both must be capable of loading the forums from a database. The database must also have write access, for when new members register or post topics etc. The main requirement is speed, but uptime is also important (if a server goes out, the site should still work). I have a few options, but I'm inexperienced and not sure which to go with: 1) [PHP] Split the forum records 50:50 between the two servers. If a server does not have the record for a forum requested, it can request it from the other by remote MySQL and load it. This idea sounded okay, until I realised that 50% of the time, users would be waiting significantly longer for pages to load. I also realised that if one of the servers went down, half the forums would be inaccessible and registrations would have to be disabled. 2) [MySQL] Dual master replication. This would attempt to mirror the two databases and sounds perfect, but I've heard that it can be very problematic. I don't know how fast this is. 3) [MySQL] Use a standard replication, distribute read only queries on both nodes and read/write queries to the master. This sounds like a good option, but again, I'm not sure on speed. I also don't know what would happen if the master server went down. If you have any other suggestions, please post them :)

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• Friendly Intranet Addresses

  - by Jmyster

  Relativly new to IIS. I'm attempting to set up multiple sites in my Intranet on one server. The server already has SharePoint Installed on it and has a binding *:80. So when I type //ServerName I get the home page of SharePoint. I get how that works. I set up a new site in IIS and set the Binding to *:30015. On a remote machine if I type //ServerName:30015 in a web browser, I get the new site. Awesome, working as intended. My Questions: Can/How do i set it up so that I can type //DivisionAppName or //Division.AppName and have it resolve itself to //ServerName:30015? Is this something I have to register with my Company's DNS server? I hope not, getting my corprate IT to assist is a nightmare. What I tried: I have added Bindings with the Host Name filled in with both DivisionAppName or Division.AppName and port 30015 but that doesn't seem to work.

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• CNAME vs A records

  - by deb

  I built a small rails app that allow users to make a simple site. It uses subdomain accounts ex: deb.myapp.com Whenever an user wanted to have a domain name associated with their site, they would change their NS records to point to slicehost where the application is hosted and I would manage the DNS records myself. However, as more people are using the application this is not an option for me anymore. I prefer users to keep their nameservers at goddady, register.com, etc, so they can log in and manage their own MX records or whatever else they need to change. My question is, should I have them change the A records to point to my server's ip, or should I have them create a CNAME record? Do they need to delete the default A records to allow the CNAME record to work? Will the A record take precedence and overrule the CNAME record? Thanks in advance. Sorry if this is a very basic question. I've read other posts and I can't find a definite answer.

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• How to remove all data that a website stores on a PC? [on hold]

  - by s.r.a

  I was a member in a computer forum website (sevenforums.com) for months. Two days ago I created a thread and many members participated in it, some of them asked me some irrelevant questions and I said “this question is irrelevant” and didn’t get them the answer. Thread finished and I could get the answer from another website and posted it to that website to arise members’ knowledge. Yesterday like every day I went to that website and faced a massage which was banning me, and my account was disabled. I shocked and I didn’t have even any option to appeal against that wrong decision. So I had to do something. And I did the following works: 1- I disconnected my Internet connection and cleared all the history data on the browser I use, the Google chrome. 2- I then ran “ccleaner” tool and marked almost all the options and then clicked on “run” button. Then it cleared all the data including the cookies. 3- I connected the machine (desktop) to the Internet and immediately changed my IP address. 4- I created a new Hotmail account and tried to register as a new member to that website (sevenforums.com). 5- I succeeded and my new account was enabled so I start to posting to that website. But unfortunately, after less than 1 minute I faced this message: “You are already banned”! My question is that, how they could know me again? How to create a new account without they know me? Thanks in advance.

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• Delphi - WndProc() in thread never called

  - by Robert Oschler

  I had code that worked fine when running in the context of the main VCL thread. This code allocated it's own WndProc() in order to handle SendMessage() calls. I am now trying to move it to a background thread because I am concerned that the SendMessage() traffic is affecting the main VCL thread adversely. So I created a worker thread with the sole purpose of allocating the WndProc() in its thread Execute() method to ensure that the WndProc() existed in the thread's execution context. The WndProc() handles the SendMessage() calls as they come in. The problem is that the worker thread's WndProc() method is never triggered. Note, doExecute() is part of a template method that is called by my TThreadExtended class which is a descendant of Delphi's TThread. TThreadExtended implements the thread Execute() method and calls doExecute() in a loop. I triple-checked and doExecute() is being called repeatedly. Also note that I call PeekMessage() right after I create the WndProc() in order to make sure that Windows creates a message queue for the thread. However something I am doing is wrong since the WndProc() method is never triggered. Here's the code below: // ========= BEGIN: CLASS - TWorkerThread ======================== constructor TWorkerThread.Create; begin FWndProcHandle := 0; inherited Create(false); end; // --------------------------------------------------------------- // This call is the thread's Execute() method. procedure TWorkerThread.doExecute; var Msg: TMsg; begin // Create the WndProc() in our thread's context. if FWndProcHandle = 0 then begin FWndProcHandle := AllocateHWND(WndProc); // Call PeekMessage() to make sure we have a window queue. PeekMessage(Msg, FWndProcHandle, 0, 0, PM_NOREMOVE); end; if Self.Terminated then begin // Get rid of the WndProc(). myDeallocateHWnd(FWndProcHandle); end; // Sleep a bit to avoid hogging the CPU. Sleep(5); end; // --------------------------------------------------------------- procedure TWorkerThread.WndProc(Var Msg: TMessage); begin // THIS CODE IS NEVER CALLED. try if Msg.Msg = WM_COPYDATA then begin // Is LParam assigned? if (Msg.LParam > 0) then begin // Yes. Treat it as a copy data structure. with PCopyDataStruct(Msg.LParam)^ do begin ... // Here is where I do my work. end; end; // if Assigned(Msg.LParam) then end; // if Msg.Msg = WM_COPYDATA then finally Msg.Result := 1; end; // try() end; // --------------------------------------------------------------- procedure TWorkerThread.myDeallocateHWnd(Wnd: HWND); var Instance: Pointer; begin Instance := Pointer(GetWindowLong(Wnd, GWL_WNDPROC)); if Instance <> @DefWindowProc then begin // Restore the default windows procedure before freeing memory. SetWindowLong(Wnd, GWL_WNDPROC, Longint(@DefWindowProc)); FreeObjectInstance(Instance); end; DestroyWindow(Wnd); end; // --------------------------------------------------------------- // ========= END : CLASS - TWorkerThread ======================== Thanks, Robert

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• WCF Endpoints & Binding Configuration Issues

  - by CodeAbundance

  I am running into a very strange issue here folks. For simplicity I created a project for the sole purpose of testing the issue outside the framework of a larger application and still encountered what is either a bug in WCF within Visual Studio 2010 or something related to my WCF newbie skill set : ) Here is the issue: I have a WCF endpoint I created running inside of an MVC3 project called "SimpleMethod". The method runs inside of a .svc file on the root of the application and it returns a bool. Using the "WCF Service Configuration Editor" I have added the endpoint to my Web.Config along with a called "LargeImageBinding". Here is the service: [OperationContract] public bool SimpleMethod() { return true; } And the Web.Config generated by the Config Tool: <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <wsHttpBinding> <binding name="LargeImageBinding" closeTimeout="00:10:00" /> </wsHttpBinding> </bindings> <services> <service name="WCFEndpoints.ServiceTestOne"> <endpoint address="/ServiceTestOne.svc" binding="wsHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="LargeImageBinding" contract="WCFEndpoints.IServiceTestOne" /> </service> </services> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name=""> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true" /> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="false" /> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> <serviceHostingEnvironment multipleSiteBindingsEnabled="true" /> The service renders fine and you can see the endpoint when you navigate to: http://localhost:57364/ServiceTestOne.svc - Now the issue occurs when I create a separate project to consume the service. I add a service reference to a running instance of the above project, point it to: http://localhost:57364/ServiceTestOne.svc Here is the weird part. The service automatically generates just fine but In the Web.Config the endpoint that is generated looks like this: <client> <endpoint address="http://localhost:57364/ServiceTestOne.svc/ServiceTestOne.svc" binding="wsHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="WSHttpBinding_IServiceTestOne" contract="ServiceTestOne.IServiceTestOne" name="WSHttpBinding_IServiceTestOne"> As you can see it lists the "ServiceTestOne.svc" portion of the address twice! When I make a call to the the service I get the following error: The remote server returned an error: (404) Not Found. I tried removing the extra "/ServiceTestOne.svc" at the end of the endpoint address in the above config, and I get the same exact error. Now what DOES work is if I go back to the WCF application and remove the custom endpoint and binding references in the Web.Config (everything in the "services" and "bindings" tags) then go back to the consumer application, update the reference to the service and make the call to SimpleMethod()....BOOM works like a charm and I get back a bool set to true. The thing is, I need to make custom binding configurations in order to allow for access to the service outside of the defaults, and from what I can tell, any attempt to create custom bindings makes the endpoints seem to run fine, but fail when an actual method call is made. Can anyone see any flaw in how I am putting this together? Thank you for your time - I have been running in circles with this for about a week!

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