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  • Mini keyboard has no home/end keys; how to type them?

    - by Steve Crane
    Some months ago I needed a small keyboard and bought an Okion KM229 without noticing that it has no Home or End key. This makes it tricky to type as I'm so used to using these keys. I haven't yet figured out if there is a key combination that issues Home and End keystrokes. Does anyone have experience of these keyboards and know how to issue those keystrokes? The keyboard is used on a PC running Windows XP. I have used the contact form on the Okion USA web site to ask this question but received no response. Wikipedia suggests that Home and End keystrokes are issued with Fn-Left and Fn-Right on some limited size keyboards. I may have tried those but don't remember for sure. I will try them again though when I am on site again in a week or so. Any other thoughts would be welcomed in the meantime.

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  • cygWin connect by SSH using RSA key; ssh.exe couldn't create /home/user/.ssh

    - by Kirzilla
    I'm using Win XP and I'm trying to connect by SSH to remote host using RSA key. I've investigated that cygWin recognizes Documents and Settings dir as home directory Z:\app\cwRsync\bin>cygpath -H /cygdrive/c/Documents and Settings I've created .ssh directory in Documents and Settings/user/.ssh and moved known_hosts, id_rsa, id_rsa.pub there. Now, I'm trying to connect via ssh.exe to remote host Z:\app\cwRsync\bin>ssh -p 22 [email protected] Could not create directory '/home/user/.ssh'. The authenticity of host '[remotehost.com]:22 ([remotehost.com]:22)' can't be established. RSA key fingerprint is f7:f4:2c:e0:c6:7e:d2:a4:45:70:63:df:bf:f2:84:46. Are you sure you want to continue connecting (yes/no)? What I'm doing wrong? Why ssh.exe couldn't create directory /home/user/.ssh? Thank you.

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  • Can two Linux installations share the same /home partition?

    - by huahsin68
    I am currently using OpenSuse 11.4 and Windows XP in laptop. I was planning to remove the Windows and switch to install Kubuntu. My current situation is that I have my root (/) and /home partition separated in OpenSuse. Can I share the /home partition between OpenSuse and Kubuntu? How do I configure Kubuntu to use the existing /home partition during the installation? BTW, the most recent Kubuntu is using ext3 file system whereas my OpenSuse is using ext3. Will this a matter for me to install Kubuntu? Any other issue I need to take care of?

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  • How do I remote desktop to my work's Windows box from my Mac at home through VPN?

    - by CT.
    I would like to remote desktop from my Macbook to my Work's laptop from home. I connect to the work's network via Cisco VPN. My Cisco VPN clients connects fine in Mac OS X but I am unable to remote desktop. I am also unable to ping my work laptop. The laptop is powered on and not sleeping. I can access it via LogMeIn. If I were to actually pug into our network at the building. I can remote desktop to my work laptop from my Macbook. If I use a Windows virtual machine and connect using the Windows Cisco VPN client, I am able to RDP and ping my work laptop. What is wrong with my OS X VPN connection?

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  • How do I remote desktop to my work's Windows box from my Mac at home through VPN?

    - by CT
    I would like to remote desktop from my Macbook to my Work's laptop from home. I connect to the work's network via Cisco VPN. My Cisco VPN clients connects fine in Mac OS X but I am unable to remote desktop. I am also unable to ping my work laptop. The laptop is powered on and not sleeping. I can access it via LogMeIn. If I were to actually pug into our network at the building. I can remote desktop to my work laptop from my Macbook. If I use a Windows virtual machine and connect using the Windows Cisco VPN client, I am able to RDP and ping my work laptop. What is wrong with my OS X VPN connection?

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  • Ubuntu: crypt user's home directory and protect from admin ?

    - by Luc
    I have the following problem: I need to run some scripts on a Ubuntu machine but I do not want those scripts to be visible by anybody. What could be the best way to do that ? I was thinking of the following: create a particular user Add the scripts in this user's home directory Protect + crypt the user's home directory = Can I run the script from outside if the directory is crypted ? Can superuser see the content of the home dir ? Is there a right way to do this ? UPDATE I thing the best way would be that root own those scripts. In this case I would need to allow an another user to modify the network configuration. Is it possible to ONLY provide network rights to a user ? (via sudo or else)

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  • Is it possible to use Linux to route between my office (which uses IPSec) and home network?

    - by Sam
    First of all, apologies if this seems vague - I'm not an admin of anything more than a home network. I have a Ubuntu box sitting on my network which does various odd tasks for me - svn serving, some file serving, Apache/MySQL/PHP which is all raring to go. I've started a new job and at the moment I'm using ShrewSoft VPN software to establish a VPN link to the office as I need it. I'd prefer to have something always running on my home network just for convenience. My home modem/router doesn't support holding a VPN connection open. What I would like to do is set up my Linux box to hold open a VPN connection to my office and keep it open permanently, and then all applicable traffic for the office be routed through this box. I'm not sure if this is possible, or how to configure the routing on the desktop PCs (Windows 7). Would appreciate any guides, etc that could help me out.

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  • Tracking my home IP from anywhere on the internet?

    - by oKtosiTe
    I have an ISP that serves semi-permanent IPv4 addresses. They can't promise fixed IP addresses, but unexpected changes are quite rare. This begs me to ask however: what would be the easiest/most reliable way to track my home IP address so I can access my (Windows 7) home server even in the case of an address change? Please note: for reasons that I don't want to go in to, I'd like to avoid using any "dynamic DNS" type services. Instead I'd prefer some way to perhaps have the home server leave an occasional/triggered "address stamp" on a remote, off-site server (by SSH, HTTP post or similar, preferably over an encrypted connection).

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  • pscp: how to copy a file from a windows machine to a non-home location on another windows machine?

    - by help
    I want to copy a file from C:\temp on MachineA to C:\final on MachineB. I tried to use the following command, but it gave me an error (permission denied): C:\PROGRA~1\putty\pscp.exe -i C:\PROGRA~1\cwRsync\home\rcadmin\.ssh\id_rsa_private.ppk [email protected]:C:\final\test.txt C:\temp\test.txt It turned out I can only access C:\users\direcpc in my source computer. So if I put the file in C:\users\direcpc\text.txt, then it would work: C:\PROGRA~1\putty\pscp.exe -i C:\PROGRA~1\cwRsync\home\rcadmin\.ssh\id_rsa_private.ppk [email protected]:/test.txt C:\temp\test.txt But I want to access any location on my source computer instead of just my user home directory, is there a way to do this?

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  • Symlink to /Documents /Pictures etc. in OS X Home Directory?

    - by Larry O'Brien
    I have just purchased a 120GB SSD with the intent of making it my boot drive. I'd like to keep it as lean as possible since, y'know, it's so small (Heaven help me). I've read Can I move my home folder in Mac OS X? and Moving Mac OS X user folders? which discourage moving the entire home dir to a data drive. Is it possible and less-dangerous to leave the home directory on the boot drive but move the big data directories to a slower drive and symlink to them? I have the same thoughts with the /Applications directory, but maybe I should make that a separate question?

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  • How to run webcam software only when I am not home (phone is not on the LAN)?

    - by endolith
    Currently I've got cron starting Motion when I typically leave for work, and then killing it when I typically get home, so I can watch my cat/burglars/etc. But it would be better if it could detect when I'm actually home and disable the webcam during those times, and enable it at other times. I was thinking my presence could be detected by my Android phone joining the LAN. So something like A script that checks every few minutes whether my phone's hostname or MAC address is currently on the LAN or A Tasker script on my phone that contacts the home computer in some way (simple web server?) when it joins a certain SSID or ... Any better ideas or advice about how to implement one of these?

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  • Moq Testing a private method .Many posts but still cannot make one example work

    - by devnet247
    Hi, I have seen many posts and questions about "Mocking a private method" but still cannot make it work and not found a real answer. Lets forget the code smell and you should not do it etc.... From what I understand I have done the following: 1) Created a class Library "MyMoqSamples" 2) Added a ref to Moq and NUnit 3) Edited the AssemblyInfo file and added [assembly: InternalsVisibleTo("DynamicProxyGenAssembly2")] [assembly: InternalsVisibleTo("MyMoqSamples")] 4) Now need to test a private method.Since it's a private method it's not part of an interface. 5) added the following code [TestFixture] public class Can_test_my_private_method { [Test] public void Should_be_able_to_test_my_private_method() { //TODO how do I test my DoSomthing method } } public class CustomerInfo { public string Name { get; set; } public string Surname { get; set; } } public interface ICustomerService { List<CustomerInfo> GetCustomers(); } public class CustomerService: ICustomerService { public List<CustomerInfo> GetCustomers() { return new List<CustomerInfo> {new CustomerInfo {Surname = "Bloggs", Name = "Jo"}}; } protected virtual void DoSomething() { } } Could you provide me an example on how you would test my private method? Thanks a lot

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  • WPF TextBox.SelectAll () doesn't work

    - by Zoliq
    Hi! I have used the following template in my project: <DataTemplate x:Key="textBoxDataTemplate"> <TextBox Name="textBox" ToolTip="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource Self}, Path=(Validation.Errors)[0].ErrorContent}" Tag="{Binding}" PreviewKeyDown="cellValueTextBoxKeyDown"> <TextBox.Text> <MultiBinding Converter="{StaticResource intToStringMultiConverter}"> <Binding Path="CellValue" Mode="TwoWay"> <Binding.ValidationRules> <y:MatrixCellValueRule MaxValue="200" /> </Binding.ValidationRules> </Binding> <Binding RelativeSource="{RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type y:MatrixGrid}}" Path="Tag" Mode="OneWay" /> </MultiBinding> </TextBox.Text> </TextBox> </DataTemplate> I used this template to create an editable matrix for the user. The user is able to navigate from cell to cell within the matrix and I would like to highlight the data in the selected textbox but it doesn't work. I called TextBox.Focus () and TextBox.SelectAll () to achieve the effect but nothing. The Focus () works but the text never gets highlighted. Any help is welcome and appreciated.

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  • android.intent.action.SCREEN_ON doesn't work as a receiver intent filter

    - by Jim Blackler
    I'm trying to get a BroadcastReceiver invoked when the screen is turned on. In my AndroidManifest.xml I have specified : <receiver android:name="IntentReceiver"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.SCREEN_ON"></action> </intent-filter> </receiver> However it seems the receiver is never invoked (breakpoints don't fire, log statements ignored). I've swapped out SCREEN_ON for BOOT_COMPLETED for a test, and this does get invoked. This is in a 1.6 (SDK level 4) project. A Google Code Search revealed this, I downloaded the project and synced it, converted it to work with latest tools, but it too is not able to intercept that event. http://www.google.com/codesearch/p?hl=en#_8L9bayv7qE/trunk/phxandroid-intent-query/AndroidManifest.xml&q=android.intent.action.SCREEN_ON Is this perhaps no longer supported? Previously I have been able to intercept this event successfully with a call to Context.registerReceiver() like so registerReceiver(new BroadcastReceiver() { @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { // ... } }, new IntentFilter(Intent.ACTION_SCREEN_ON)); However this was performed by a long-living Service. Following sage advice from CommonsWare I have elected to try to remove the long-living Service and use different techniques. But I still need to detect the screen off and on events.

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  • Why doesn't TransactionScope work with Entity Framework?

    - by NotDan
    See the code below. If I initialize more than one entity context, then I get the following exception on the 2nd set of code only. If I comment out the second set it works. {"The underlying provider failed on Open."} Inner: {"Communication with the underlying transaction manager has failed."} Inner: {"Error HRESULT E_FAIL has been returned from a call to a COM component."} Note that this is a sample app and I know it doesn't make sense to create 2 contexts in a row. However, the production code does have reason to create multiple contexts in the same TransactionScope, and this cannot be changed. Edit Here is a previous question of me trying to set up MS-DTC. It seems to be enabled on both the server and the client. I'm not sure if it is set up correctly. Also note that one of the reasons I am trying to do this, is that existing code within the TransactionScope uses ADO.NET and Linq 2 Sql... I would like those to use the same transaction also. (That probably sounds crazy, but I need to make it work if possible). http://stackoverflow.com/questions/794364/how-do-i-use-transactionscope-in-c Solution Windows Firewall was blocking the connections to MS-DTC. using(TransactionScope ts = new System.Transactions.TransactionScope()) { using (DatabaseEntityModel o = new DatabaseEntityModel()) { var v = (from s in o.Advertiser select s).First(); v.AcceptableLength = 1; o.SaveChanges(); } //-> By commenting out this section, it works using (DatabaseEntityModel o = new DatabaseEntityModel()) { //Exception on this next line var v = (from s1 in o.Advertiser select s1).First(); v.AcceptableLength = 1; o.SaveChanges(); } //-> ts.Complete(); }

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  • Explicit casting doesn't work in default model binding

    - by Felix
    I am using ASP.NET MVC2 and Entity Framework. I am going to simplify the situation a little; hopefully it will make it clearer, not more confusing! I have a controller action to create address, and the country is a lookup table (in other words, there is a one-to-many relationship between Country and Address classes). Let's say for clarity that the field in the Address class is called Address.Land. And, for the purposes of the dropdown list, I am getting Country.CountryID and Country.Name. I am aware of Model vs. Input validation. So, if I call the dropdown field formLand - I can make it work. But if I call the field Land (that is, matching the variable in Address class) - I am getting the following error: "The parameter conversion from type 'System.String' to type 'App.Country' failed because no type converter can convert between these types." OK, this makes sense. A string (CountryID) comes from the form and the binder doesn't know how to convert it to Country type. So, I wrote the converter: namespace App { public partial class Country { public static explicit operator Country(string countryID) { AppEntities context = new AppEntities(); Country country = (Country) context.GetObjectByKey( new EntityKey("AppEntities.Countries", "CountryID", countryID)); return country; } } } FWIW, I tried both explicit and implicit. I tested it from the controller - Country c = (Country)"fr" - and it works fine. However, it never got invoked when the View is posted. I am getting the same "no type converter" error in the model. Any ideas how to hint to the model binder that there is a type converter? Thanks

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  • Why won't my progress bar work?

    - by user113164
    I can't get my progress bar to work. Any help is much appreciated! Here's the code: <Window x:Class="BulkSAConfigureControl.BulkSaProgressBar" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Please Wait.." Height="60" Width="300" WindowStyle="ToolWindow" ResizeMode="NoResize" WindowStartupLocation="CenterScreen"> <ProgressBar Name="progressBar" IsIndeterminate="True"> <ProgressBar.Resources> <ResourceDictionary Source="/PresentationFramework.Aero;v3.0.0.0;31bf3856ad364e35;component/themes/aero.normalcolor.xaml" /> </ProgressBar.Resources> </ProgressBar> . public class ProgressBarClass : Window { public ProgressBarClass() { InitializeComponent(); } public void StartProgressBar() { Duration d = new Duration(TimeSpan.FromSeconds(5)); DoubleAnimation anim = new DoubleAnimation(100.0, d); progressBar.BeginAnimation(ProgressBar.ValueProperty, anim); this.Show(); } public void StopProgressBar() { this.Close(); } } . public class DoSomething : UserControl { public void DoSomeStuff() { ProgressBarClass pBar = new ProgressBarClass(); pBar.StartProgressBar(); // Do some stuff here pBar.StopProgressBar(); } }

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  • Making Ninject Interceptors work with async methods

    - by captncraig
    I am starting to work with ninject interceptors to wrap some of my async code with various behaviors and am having some trouble getting everything working. Here is an interceptor I am working with: public class MyInterceptor : IInterceptor { public async void Intercept(IInvocation invocation) { try { invocation.Proceed(); //check that method indeed returns Task await (Task) invocation.ReturnValue; RecordSuccess(); } catch (Exception) { RecordError(); invocation.ReturnValue = _defaultValue; throw; } } This appears to run properly in most normal cases. I am not sure if this will do what I expect. Although it appears to return control flow to the caller asynchronously, I am still a bit worried about the possibility that the proxy is unintentionally blocking a thread or something. That aside, I cannot get the exception handling working. For this test case: [Test] public void ExceptionThrown() { try { var interceptor = new MyInterceptor(DefaultValue); var invocation = new Mock<IInvocation>(); invocation.Setup(x => x.Proceed()).Throws<InvalidOperationException>(); interceptor.Intercept(invocation.Object); } catch (Exception e) { } } I can see in the interceptor that the catch block is hit, but the catch block in my test is never hit from the rethrow. I am more confused because there is no proxy or anything here, just pretty simple mocks and objects. I also tried something like Task.Run(() => interceptor.Intercept(invocation.Object)).Wait(); in my test, and still no change. The test passes happily, but the nUnit output does have the exception message. I imagine I am messing something up, and I don't quite understand what is going on as much as I think I do. Is there a better way to intercept an async method? What am I doing wrong with regards to exception handling?

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  • Does Android XML Layout's 'include' Tag Really Work?

    - by Eric Burke
    I am unable to override attributes when using <include> in my Android layout files. When I searched for bugs, I found Declined Issue 2863: "include tag is broken (overriding layout params never works)" Since Romain indicates this works in the test suites and his examples, I must be doing something wrong. My project is organized like this: res/layout buttons.xml res/layout-land receipt.xml res/layout-port receipt.xml The buttons.xml contains something like this: <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:orientation="horizontal"> <Button .../> <Button .../> </LinearLayout> And the portrait and landscape receipt.xml files look something like: <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:orientation="vertical"> ... <!-- Overridden attributes never work. Nor do attributes like the red background, which is specified here. --> <include android:id="@+id/buttons_override" android:background="#ff0000" android:layout_width="fill_parent" layout="@layout/buttons"/> </LinearLayout> What am I missing?

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  • Activate COM object using website doesn't work in Windows 2003 server

    - by Tarun
    I have been trying really hard to activate and launch a COM object using an ASP.NET web application. The aspx website has a code-behind file that has a reference to this COM object (which is an actual application - a CAD software). When required, the VB code creates (or launches) the application. The complete set-up works in a Win-XP (32-bit) environment both under debugging using visual studio and when the website is accessed by an outside user (through IIS server in XP). But the same application doesn't get activated when it is hosted onto the Win-2003 (32-bit) IIS server. I get "Object reference not set to an instance of an object" error. The way I have setup in Win-XP was to grant ASP user and Internet guest user permissions to the COM object in the DCOM Config and since the windows firewall is enabled, I add the exe file (associated with the COM object) to the exception list. For the case of Win-2003 server, I add the Network Service permission to the COM object. But the setup doesn't seem to work at all. I am not sure what I am missing and how to get the application to launch. Any help will be greatly appreciated.

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  • jQuery scrollTop() doesn't seem to work in Safari or Chrome (Windows)

    - by Pointy
    I've got a simple setup to allow a "help"-style window to be loaded and scrolled to a particular point on the page. More or less the code looks like this: var target = /* code */; target.offsetParent().scrollTop(target.offset().top - fudgeValue); The target of the scroll and the fudge value are determined by a couple of hints dropped on the page, and I'm having no problems with that part of this mechanism anywhere. In Firefox and IE8, the above code works exactly like I want: the scrolled box (in this case, the page body) correctly scrolls the contained stuff to the right point in the window when it's told to do so. In Chrome and Safari, however, the call to scrollTop() apparently does nothing at all. All the numbers are OK, and the target refers to the right thing (and the offsetParent() is indeed the body element), but nothing at all happens. As far as I can tell from googling around, this is supposed to work. Is there something funny about the renderer under Safari and Chrome? This is jQuery 1.3.2 if that matters. Test page: http://gutfullofbeer.net/scrolltop.html

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  • On Windows, how does console window ownership work?

    - by shroudednight
    When a console application is started from another console application, how does console ownership work? I see four possibilities: The second application inherits the console from the first application for its lifetime, with the console returning to the original owner on exit. Each application has its own console. Windows then somehow merges the content of the two into what the "console" visible to the user The second application get a handle to the console that belongs to the first application. The console is placed into shared memory and both applications have equal "ownership" It's quite possible that I missed something and none of these four options adequately describe what Windows does with its consoles. If the answer is close to option 4. My follow-up question is which of the two processes is responsible for managing the window? (Handling graphical updates when the screen needs to be refreshed / redrawn, etc) A concrete example: Run CMD. Then, using CMD, run [console application]. The [console application] will write to what appears to be the same console window that CMD was using.

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  • XSLT: Regular Expression function does not work?

    - by Fedor Steeman
    Ok, this one has been driving me up the wall... I have a xslt function that is supposed to split out the Zip-code part from a Zip+City string depending on the country. I cannot get it to work! This is what I got so far: <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns:exslt="http://exslt.org/functions" xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <xsl:function name="exslt:GetZip" as="xs:string"> <xsl:param name="zipandcity" as="xs:string"/> <xsl:param name="countrycode" as="xs:string"/> <xsl:choose> <xsl:when test="$countrycode='DK'"> <xsl:analyze-string select="$zipandcity" regex="(\d{4}) ([A-Za-zÆØÅæøå]{3,24})"> <xsl:matching-substring> <xsl:value-of select="regex-group(1)"/> </xsl:matching-substring> <xsl:non-matching-substring> <xsl:text>fail</xsl:text> </xsl:non-matching-substring> </xsl:analyze-string> </xsl:when> <xsl:otherwise> <xsl:text>error</xsl:text> </xsl:otherwise> </xsl:choose> </xsl:function> I am running it on a source XML where the following values are passed to the function: zipandcity: "DK-2640 København SV" countrycode: "DK" ...will output 'fail'! I think there is something I am misunderstanding here...

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  • JSON/PrototypeJS - why does this only work SOMETIMES?

    - by koko
    This is driving me nuts! I'm getting some JSON from my server: {"id262":{"done":null,"status":null,"verfall":null,"id":262,"bid":20044,"art":"owner","uid":"demo02","aktion":null,"termin_datum":null,"docid":null,"gruppenid":null,"news":"newsstring","datum":"11.06.2010","header":"headerstring","for_uid":"demo01"}, "id263":{"done":null,"status":"pending","verfall":null,"bid":20044,"id":263,"uid":"demo02","art":"foo","aktion":"dosomething","termin_datum":"11.06.2010","docid":null,"gruppenid":null,"datum":"11.06.2010","news":"newsstring","for_uid":"demo01","header":"headerstring"}, "id261":{"done":null,"status":null,"verfall":null,"id":261,"bid":20044,"art":"termin","uid":"demo02","aktion":null,"termin_datum":"25.06.2010","docid":null,"gruppenid":null,"news":"newsstring","datum":"11.06.2010","header":"headerstring","for_uid":null}} This is how my JS looks like: var user = 'demo02'; new Ajax.Request('myscript.pl?someparameter=value', { method:'get', onSuccess: function(transport){ var db_json = transport.responseText.evalJSON(), propCount = 0, someArray1 = [], someArray2 = [], otherArray = []; //JSON DEBUG console.log('validated string:'); console.log(transport.responseText.evalJSON(true)); for(var prop in db_json) { propCount++; if ( (db_json[prop].art == 'foo') && (db_json[prop].for_uid == user) ) { someArray1.push(db_json[prop]); } else if( (db_json[prop].art == 'foo') && (db_json[prop].uid == user) ) { someArray2.push(db_json[prop]); } else if( db_json[prop].art == 'log' ) { otherArray.push(db_json[prop]); } } if(someArray1.length>0) { someArray1.map(function(el){ $('someArray1target').innerHTML += el.done; //do more stuff }); } if(someArray2.length>0) { someArray2.map(function(el){ $('someArray2target').innerHTML += el.done; //do more stuff }); } }); Sometimes, it works perfectly. Sometimes, i get my JSON String (it appears in Firebug's "answer"-tab), but it won't log the JSON in console-log(). I'm not getting any errors and javascript is still working. Next time after reloading, it might work, but it might not. I cannot remotely imagine why this only happens sometimes!

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  • .NET C# : Image Conversion from Bitmap to Icon doesn't seem to work

    - by contactmatt
    I have a simple function that takes a bitmap, and converts the bitmap to an ICON format. Below is the function. (I placed literal values in place of the variables) Bitmap tempBmp = new Bitmap(@"C:\temp\mypicture.jpeg"); Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(tempBmp, 16, 16); bmp.Save("@C:\temp\mypicture2.ico", ImageFormat.Icon) It doesn't seem to be converting correctly...or so I think. After the image is converted, some browsers do not reconigze the image as a true "ICON" , and even Visual Studio 2008 doesn't reconigze the image as an icon after its converted to an Icon format. For example, I was going to set the Icon property for my Win32 form app with the Icon i just converted. I open the dialouge box and select the icon I just converted and get the following error. -- "Argument 'picture' must be a picture that can be used as a Icon." I've browsed the web and come across complicated code where people take the time to manually convert the bitmap to different formats, but I would think the above code should work, and that the .NET framework would take care of this conversion.

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