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• help me to choose the best soulotion for my purpose to build my software.

  - by rima

  before answer me plz thinking about the futures of these kind of program and answer me plz. I wanna get some data from oracle server like: 1-get all the function,package,procedure and etc for showing them or drop them & etc... 2-compile my *.sql files,get the result if they have problem & etc... becuz I was beginner in oracle first of all I for solve the second problem I try to connect to sqlPlus by RUN sqlplus and trace the output(I mean,I change the output stream of shell and trace what happend and handle the assigned message to customer. NOW THIS PART SUCCEED. just a little bit I have problem with get all result because the output is asynchronous.any way... [in this case I log in to oracle Server by send argument to the sqlplus by make a process in c#] after that I try to get all function,package or procedure name,but I have problem in speed!so I try to use oracle.DataAccess.dll to connect the database. now I m so confusing about: which way is correct way to build a program that work like Oracle Developer! I do not have any experience for like these program how work. If Your answer is I must use the second way follow this part plz: I search a little bit the Golden,PLedit (Benthic software),I have little bit problem how I must create the connection string?because I thinking about how I can find the host name or port number that oracle work on them?? am I need read the TNSNames.Ora file? IF your answer is I must use the first way follow this part plz: do u have any Idea for how I parse the output?because for example the result of a table is so confusing...[i can handle & program it but I really need someone experience,because the important things to me learn how such software work so nice and with quick response?] All of the has different style in output... If you are not sure Can u help me which book can help me in this way i become expert? becuz for example all the C# write just about how u can connect to DB and the DB books write how u can use this DB program,I looking for a book that give me some Idea how develop an interface for do transaction between these two.not simple send and receive data,for example how write a compiler for them. the language of book is not different for me i know C#,java,VB,sql,Oracle Thanks.

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• Improved way to build nested array of unique values in javascript

  - by dualmon

  The setup: I have a nested html table structure that displays hierarchical data, and the individual rows can be hidden or shown by the user. Each row has a dom id that is comprised of the level number plus the primary key for the record type on that level. I have to have both, because each level is from a different database table, so the primary key alone is not unique in the dom. example: id="level-1-row-216" I am storing the levels and rows of the visible elements in a cookie, so that when the page reloads the same rows the user had open are can be shown automatically. I don't store the full map of dom ids, because I'm concerned about it getting too verbose, and I want to keep my cookie under 4Kb. So I convert the dom ids to a compact json object like this, with one property for each level, and a unique array of primary keys under each level: { 1:[231,432,7656], 2:[234,121], 3:[234,2], 4:[222,423], 5:[222] } With this structure stored in a cookie, I feed it to my show function and restore the user's previous disclosure state when the page loads. The area for improvement: I'm looking for better option for reducing my map of id selectors down to this compact format. Here is my function: function getVisibleIds(){ // example dom id: level-1-row-216-sub var ids = $("tr#[id^=level]:visible").map(function() { return this.id; }); var levels = {}; for(var i in ids ) { var id = ids[i]; if (typeof id == 'string'){ if (id.match(/^level/)){ // here we extract the number for level and row var level = id.replace(/.*(level-)(\d*)(.*)/, '$2'); var row = id.replace(/.*(row-)(\d*)(.*)/, '$2'); // *** Improvement here? *** // This works, but it seems klugy. In PHP it's one line (see below): if(levels.hasOwnProperty(level)){ if($.inArray(parseInt(row, 10) ,levels[level]) == -1){ levels[level].push(parseInt(row, 10)); } } else { levels[level] = [parseInt(row, 10)]; } } } } return levels; } If I were doing it in PHP, I'd build the compact array like this, but I can't figure it out in javascript: foreach($ids as $id) { if (/* the criteria */){ $level = /* extract it from $id */; $row = /* extract it from $id */; $levels[$level][$row]; } }

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• Crystal Reports : How to add an external assembly class?

  - by Sunil

  I am using VS2010, CrystalReport13 & MVC3. My problem is unable to add an external assembly in Crystal Report using "Database Expert" Option. I have a class named WeeklyReportModel in an external assembly. In my web project, data retrieving from DB as IEnumerable collection of WeeklyReportModel. I tried ProjectData - .NetObjects in Crystal Report for adding the WeeklyReportModel. But this external assembly is not showing under ".NetObjects". Then I tried other option as Create New Connection - ADO.Net – Make New Connection and pointed this External Assembly. It has been added under Ado.Net node, but while expanding displays as "...no items found..." Totally frustrated. Please help. External Assembly Class: namespace SMS.Domain { public class WeeklyReportModel { public int StoreId { get; set; } public string StoreName{ get; set; } public decimal Saturday { get; set; } public decimal Sunday { get; set; } public decimal Monday { get; set; } public decimal Tuesday { get; set; } public decimal Wednesday { get; set; } public decimal Thurday { get; set; } public decimal Friday { get; set; } public decimal Average { get; set; } public string DateRange { get; set; } } } In Controller-action[Data retrieving as Collection Of WeeklyReportModel] namespace SMS.UI.Controllers { public class ReportController : Controller { public ActionResult StoreWeeklyReport(string id) { DateTime weekStart, weekClose; string[] dateArray = id.Split('_'); weekStart = Convert.ToDateTime(dateArray[0].ToString()); weekClose = Convert.ToDateTime(dateArray[1].ToString()); SMS.Infrastructure.Report.AuditReport weeklyReport = new SMS.Infrastructure.Report.AuditReport(); IEnumerable<SMS.Domain.WeeklyReportModel> weeklyRpt = weeklyReport.ReportByStore().WeeklyReport(weekStart, weekClose); Session["WeeklyData"] = weeklyRpt; Response.Redirect("~/Reports/Weekly/StoreWeekly.aspx"); return View(); } } } Thanks in advance.

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• mysql - combining columns and tables

  - by Phil Jackson

  Hi, I'm not much of a SQL man so I'm seeking help for this one. I have a site where I have a database for all accounts and whatnot, and another for storing actions that the user has done on the site. Each user has their own table but I want to combine the data of each user group ( all users that are "linked together" ) and order that data in the time the actions took place. Heres what I have; <?php $query = "SELECT `TALKING_TO` FROM `nnn_instant_messaging` WHERE `AUTHOR` = '" . DISPLAY_NAME . "' AND `TALKING_TO` != ''"; $query = mysql_query( $query, $CON ) or die( "_error_ " . mysql_error()); if( mysql_num_rows( $query ) != 0 ) { $table_str = ""; $select_ref_clause = "( "; $select_time_stamp_clause = "( "; while( $row = mysql_fetch_array( $query ) ) { $table_str .= "`actvbiz_networks`.`" . $row['TALKING_TO'] . "`, "; $select_ref_clause .= "`actvbiz_networks`.`" . $row['TALKING_TO'] . ".REF`, "; $select_time_stamp_clause .= "`actvbiz_networks`.`" . $row['TALKING_TO'] . ".TIME_STAMP`, "; } $table_str = $table_str . "`actvbiz_networks`.`" . DISPLAY_NAME . "`"; $select_ref_clause = substr($select_ref_clause, 0, -2) . ") AS `REF`, "; $select_time_stamp_clause = substr($select_time_stamp_clause, 0, -2) . " ) AS `TIME_STAMP`"; }else{ $table_str = "`actvbiz_networks`.`" . DISPLAY_NAME . "`"; $select_ref_clause = "`REF`, "; $select_time_stamp_clause = "`TIME_STAMP`"; } $where_clause = $select_ref_clause . $select_time_stamp_clause; $query = "SELECT " . $where_clause . " FROM " . $table_str . " ORDER BY TIME_STAMP"; die($query); $query = mysql_query( $query, $CON ) or die( "_error_ " . mysql_error()); if( mysql_num_rows( $query ) != 0 ) { }else{ ?> <p>Currently no actions have taken place in your network.</p> <?php } ?> The code above returns the sql statement: SELECT ( `actvbiz_networks`.`john_doe.REF`, `actvbiz_networks`.`Emmalene_Jackson.REF`) AS `REF`, ( `actvbiz_networks`.`john_doe.TIME_STAMP`, `actvbiz_networks`.`Emmalene_Jackson.TIME_STAMP` ) AS `TIME_STAMP` FROM `actvbiz_networks`.`john_doe`, `actvbiz_networks`.`Emmalene_Jackson`, `actvbiz_networks`.`act_web_designs` ORDER BY TIME_STAMP I really am learning on my feet with SQL. Its not the PHP I have a problem with ( I can quite happly code away with PHP ) I'ts just help with the SQL statement. Any help much appreciated, REgards, Phil

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• How do I map a one-to-one value type association in an joined-subclass?

  - by David Rubin

  I've got a class hierarchy mapped using table-per-subclass, and it's been working out great: class BasicReport { ... } class SpecificReport : BasicReport { ... } With mappings: <class name="BasicReport" table="reports"> <id name="Id" column="id">...</id> <!-- some common properties --> </class> <joined-subclass name="SpecificReport" table="specificReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <!-- some special properties --> </joined-subclass> So far, so good. The problem I'm struggling with is how to add a property to one of my subclasses that's both a value type for which I have an IUserType implemented and also mapped via an association: class OtherReport : BasicReport { public SpecialValue V { get; set; } } class SpecialValueUserType : IUserType { ... } What I'd like to do is: <joined-subclass name="OtherReport" table="otherReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <join table="rptValues" fetch="join"> <key column="rptId"/> <property name="V" column="value" type="SpecialValueUserType"/> </join> </joined-subclass> This accurately reflects the intent, and the pre-existing database schema I'm tied to: the SpecialValue instance is a property of the OtherReport, but is stored in a separate table ("rptValues"). Unfortunately, it seems as though I can't do this, because <join> elements can't be used in <joined-subclass> mappings. <one-to-one> would require creating a class mapping for SpecialValue, which doesn't make any sense given that SpecialValue is just a meaningful scalar. So what can I do? Do I have any options? Right now I'm playing a game with sets: class OtherReport : BasicReport { public SpecialValue V { get { return _values.Count() > 0 ? _values.First() : null; } set { _values.Clear(); _values.Add(value); } } private ICollection<SpecialValue> _values; } With mapping: <joined-subclass name="OtherReport" table="otherReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <set name="_values" access="field" table="rptValues" cascade="all-delete-orphan"> <key column="rptId" /> <element column="value" type="SpecialValueUserType"/> </set> </joined-subclass> Thanks in advance for the help! I've been banging my head into my desk for several days now.

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• Unit Testing - Am I doing it right?

  - by baron

  Hi everyone, Basically I have been programing for a little while and after finishing my last project can fully understand how much easier it would have been if I'd have done TDD. I guess I'm still not doing it strictly as I am still writing code then writing a test for it, I don't quite get how the test becomes before the code if you don't know what structures and how your storing data etc... but anyway... Kind of hard to explain but basically lets say for example I have a Fruit objects with properties like id, color and cost. (All stored in textfile ignore completely any database logic etc) FruitID FruitName FruitColor FruitCost 1 Apple Red 1.2 2 Apple Green 1.4 3 Apple HalfHalf 1.5 This is all just for example. But lets say I have this is a collection of Fruit (it's a List<Fruit>) objects in this structure. And my logic will say to reorder the fruitids in the collection if a fruit is deleted (this is just how the solution needs to be). E.g. if 1 is deleted, object 2 takes fruit id 1, object 3 takes fruit id2. Now I want to test the code ive written which does the reordering, etc. How can I set this up to do the test? Here is where I've got so far. Basically I have fruitManager class with all the methods, like deletefruit, etc. It has the list usually but Ive changed hte method to test it so that it accepts a list, and the info on the fruit to delete, then returns the list. Unit-testing wise: Am I basically doing this the right way, or have I got the wrong idea? and then I test deleting different valued objects / datasets to ensure method is working properly. [Test] public void DeleteFruit() { var fruitList = CreateFruitList(); var fm = new FruitManager(); var resultList = fm.DeleteFruitTest("Apple", 2, fruitList); //Assert that fruitobject with x properties is not in list ? how } private static List<Fruit> CreateFruitList() { //Build test data var f01 = new Fruit {Name = "Apple",Id = 1, etc...}; var f02 = new Fruit {Name = "Apple",Id = 2, etc...}; var f03 = new Fruit {Name = "Apple",Id = 3, etc...}; var fruitList = new List<Fruit> {f01, f02, f03}; return fruitList; }

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• SQL-How to retrieve the correct data using php

  - by Programatt

  I am new to SQL so please excuse my question if it is simple. I have a database with a few tables. 1 is a users table, the others are application tables that contain the users preferences for receiving notifications about that application based on the country they are interested in. What I want to do, is retrieve the e-mail address of all users that have an interest in that country. I am struggling to think about how to do this. I currently have the following query constructed, and the code to populate the values function check($string) { if (isset($_POST[$string])) { $print = implode(', ', $_POST[$string]); //Converts an array into a single string $imanageSQLArr = Array(); if (substr_count($print,'Benelux') > 0) { $imanageSQLArr[0] = "checked"; } else { $imanageSQLArr[0] = "off"; } if (substr_count($print, 'France') > 0) { $imanageSQLArr[1] = "checked"; } else { $imanageSQLArr[1] = "off"; } if (substr_count($print, 'Germany') > 0) { $imanageSQLArr[2] = "checked"; } else { $imanageSQLArr[2] = "off"; } if (substr_count($print, 'Italy') > 0) { $imanageSQLArr[3] = "checked"; } else { $imanageSQLArr[3] = "off"; } if (substr_count($print, 'Netherlands') > 0) { $imanageSQLArr[4] = "checked"; } else { $imanageSQLArr[4] = "off"; } if (substr_count($print, 'Portugal') > 0) { $imanageSQLArr[5] = "checked"; } else { $imanageSQLArr[5] = "off"; } if (substr_count($print, 'Spain') > 0) { $imanageSQLArr[6] = "checked"; } else { $imanageSQLArr[6] = "off"; } if (substr_count($print, 'Sweden') > 0) { $imanageSQLArr[7] = "checked"; } else { $imanageSQLArr[7] = "off"; } if (substr_count($print, 'Switzerland') > 0) { $imanageSQLArr[8] = "checked"; } else { $imanageSQLArr[8] = "off"; } if (substr_count($print, 'UK') > 0) { $imanageSQLArr[9] = "checked"; } else { $imanageSQLArr[9] = "off"; } and the query $tocheck = $db->prepare( "SELECT users.email FROM users,app WHERE users.id=app.userid AND BENELUX=:BENELUX AND FRANCE=:FRANCE AND GERMANY=:GERMANY AND ITALY=:ITALY AND NETHERLANDS=:NETHERLANDS AND PORTUGAL=:PORTUGAL AND SPAIN=:SPAIN AND SWEDEN=:SWEDEN AND SWITZERLAND=:SWITZERLAND AND UK=:UK"); $tocheck->execute($country); $row = $tocheck->fetchAll(); This does retrieve data, but only people who's preferences match EXACTLY what is put (so what they haven't selected is taken into account as much as what they have). Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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• Execution plan issue requires reset on SQL Server 2005, how to determine cause?

  - by Tony Brandner

  We have a web application that delivers training to thousands of corporate students running on top of SQL Server 2005. Recently, we started seeing that a single specific query in the application went from 1 second to about 30 seconds in terms of execution time. The application started throwing timeouts in that area. Our first thought was that we may have incorrect indexes, so we reviewed the tables and indexes. However, similar queries elsewhere in the application also run quickly. Reviewing the indexes showed us that they were configured as expected. We were able to narrow it down to a single query, not a stored procedure. Running this query in SQL Studio also runs quickly. We tried running the application in a different server environment. So a different web server with the same query, parameters and database. The query still ran slow. The query is a fairly large one related to determining a student's current list of training. It includes joins and left joins on a dozen tables and subqueries. A few of the tables are fairly large (hundreds of thousands of rows) and some of the other tables are small lookup tables. The query uses a grouping clause and a few where conditions. A few of the tables are quite active and the contents change often but the volume of added rows doesn't seem extreme. These symptoms led us to consider the execution plan. First off, as soon as we reset the execution plan cache with the SQL command 'DBCC FREEPROCCACHE', the problem went away. Unfortunately, the problem started to reoccur within a few days. The problem has continued to plague us for awhile now. It's usually the same query, but we did appear to see the problem occur in another single query recently. It happens enough to be a nuisance. We're having a heck of a time trying to fix it since we can't reproduce it in any other environment other than production. I have downloaded the High Availability guide from Red Gate and I read up more on execution plans. I hope to run the profiler on the live server, but I'm a bit concerned about impact. I would like to ask - what is the best way to figure out what is triggering this problem? Has anyone else seen this same issue?

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• jquery in ajax loaded content

  - by Kim Gysen

  My application is supposed to be a single page application and I have the following code that works fine: home.php: <div id="container"> </div> accordion.php: //Click functions: load content $('#parents').click(function(){ //Load parent in container $('#container').load('http://www.blabla.com/entities/parents/parents.php'); }); parents.php: <div class="entity_wrapper"> Some divs and selectors </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ //Some jQuery / javascript }); </script> So the content loads fine, while the scripts dynamically loaded execute fine as well. I apply this system repetitively and it continues to work smoothly. I've seen that there are a lot of frameworks available on SPA's (such as backbone.js) but I don't understand why I need them if this works fine. From the backbone.js website: When working on a web application that involves a lot of JavaScript, one of the first things you learn is to stop tying your data to the DOM. It's all too easy to create JavaScript applications that end up as tangled piles of jQuery selectors and callbacks, all trying frantically to keep data in sync between the HTML UI, your JavaScript logic, and the database on your server. For rich client-side applications, a more structured approach is often helpful. Well, I totally don't have the feeling that I'm going through the stuff they mention. Adding the javascript per page works really well for me. They are html containers with clear scope and the javascript is just related to that part. More over, the front end doesn't do that much, most of the logic is managed based on Ajax calls to external PHP scripts. Sometimes the js can be a bit more extended for some functionalities, but all just loads as smooth in less than a second. If you think that this is bad coding, please tell me why I cannot do this and more importantly, what is the alternative I should apply. At the moment, I really don't see a reason on why I would change this approach as it just works too well. I'm kinda stuck on this question because it just worries me sick as it seems to easy to be true. Why would people go through hard times if it would be as easy as this...

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• PHP, PEAR, and oci8 configuration

  - by zack_falcon

  I'll make this quick. I installed Oracle 11g (with appropriate database, users, etc), Apache 2.4.6, and PHP 5.5.4 on a Fedora 19 system. I wanted to connect PHP to Oracle. What I really wanted to do was to download MDB2_Driver_oci8, which I thought would be easy, but before I can do such a thing, PHP needs to have that plug-in enabled, so here's what I did: Tried to install oci8 via the following: pecl install oci8 When that didn't exactly work the first few times, I figured out I, for some reason, needed "Development tools" - via yum groupinstall "Development Tools" Then I figured out later that PHP actually doesn't do oci8 - it's PHP Devel. So, I had to install that too, via yum install php-devel. And then, I finally got to install oci8. It asked for the Oracle Directory, and that was that. But it said the following: Configuration option 'php_ini' is not set to php.ini location You should add 'extensions=oci8.so' to php.ini First, I did a locate oci8.so - found it in /usr/lib64/php/modules/ Second, I added what it told me to, to the php.ini file. Third, I checked the usual php_info() test page - no mention of OCI8. Uh-oh. Fourth, running both php -i and php -m listed oci8 as one of the modules. Weird. In desperation, I went ahead and downloaded the MDB2_Driver_oci8. Maybe that will fix things. Nope. When I loaded my PHP Webpage, it returned the following: Error message: extension oci8 is not compiled into PHP As well as: MDB2 error: not found Strange. And then I decided to check the error logs: PHP Startup - unable to load dynamic library '/usr/lib64/php/modules/oci8.so' - libclntsh.so.11.1: cannot open shared object file: No such file or directory in Unknown on line 0 And now I'm stuck. I tried going into the php.ini, and found that the extension_dir was commented out. I put it back in, which only seemed to break stuff. Things of note: I followed this (link) guide on how to configure PHP and install oci8. ./configure --with-oci8 doesn't work. Fedora says no such directory. As both the webpage files and the actual server reside on the same PC, I did not install the Oracle Client files. The extension_dir is commented out by default in the php.ini. This is just one of my problems in a long line of problems concerning the replication of an already existing and working, but dying, setup. It seems whenever I want to solve a problem, I have to do X first. And by doing X, I uncover another problem, which I have to solve by doing Y, which has its own problems, etc, etc. Any help would be much appreciated. Thanks.

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• Commitment to Zend Framework - any arguments against?

  - by Pekka

  I am refurbishing a big CMS that I have been working on for quite a number of years now. The product itself is great, but some components, the Database and translation classes for example, need urgent replacing - partly self-made as far back as 2002, grown into a bit of a chaos over time, and might have trouble surviving a security audit. So, I've been looking closely at a number of frameworks (or, more exactly, component Libraries, as I do not intend to change the basic structure of the CMS) and ended up with liking Zend Framework the best. They offer a solid MVC model but don't force you into it, and they offer a lot of professional components that have obviously received a lot of attention (Did you know there are multiple plurals in Russian, and you can't translate them using a simple ($number == 0) or ($number > 1) switch? I didn't, but Zend_Translate can handle it. Just to illustrate the level of thorougness the library seems to have been built with.) I am now literally at the point of no return, starting to replace key components of the system by the Zend-made ones. I'm not really having second thoughts - and I am surely not looking to incite a flame war - but before going onward, I would like to step back for a moment and look whether there is anything speaking against tying a big system closely to Zend Framework. What I like about Zend: As far as I can see, very high quality code Extremely well documented, at least regarding introductions to how things work (Haven't had to use detailed API documentation yet) Backed by a company that has an interest in seeing the framework prosper Well received in the community, has a considerable user base Employs coding standards I like Comes with a full set of unit tests Feels to me like the right choice to make - or at least, one of the right choices - in terms of modern, professional PHP development. I have been thinking about encapsulating and abstracting ZF's functionality into own classes to be able to switch frameworks more easily, but have come to the conclusion that this would not be a good idea because: it would be an unnecessary level of abstraction it could cost performance the big advantage of using a framework - the existence of a developer base that is familiar with its components - would partly be cancelled out therefore, the commitment to ZF would be a deep one. Thus my question: Is there anything substantial speaking against committing to the Zend Framework? Do you have insider knowledge of plans of Zend Inc.'s to go evil in 2011, and make it a closed source library? Is Zend Inc. run by vampires? Are there conceptual flaws in the code base you start to notice when you've transitioned all your projects to it? Is the appearance of quality code an illusion? Does the code look good, but run terribly slow on anything below my quad-core workstation?

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• What web platform is right for me?

  - by egervari

  I've been looking at web frameworks like Rails, Grails, etc. I'm used to doing applications in Spring Framework with Hibernate... and I want something more productive. One of the things I realized is that while some of the things in Grails is sexy, there are some serious problems with it. Grails' controllers: 1) are implemented awfully. They don't seem to be able to extend from super classes at runtime. I tried this to add base actions and helper methods, and this seems to cause grails to blow up. 2) are based on an obsolete request parameters model (rather than form backing objects, which are much nicer). 3) are hard to test. Command objects are treated totally differently... and it's actually MUCH harder to write the test than it is to write the controller code. 4) Command objects operate totally differently. They are pre-validated and bound, which causes a lot of inconsistencies than basic parameter model. 5) Command objects are not reusable, and it's a pain in the rear to reuse most of the stuff from the domain classes, like constraints and fields. This is TRIVIAL to do in basic Spring. Why the hell was it not trivial to do in Grails? 6) The scaffolding that is generated is pure crap. It doesn't generalize inserts and updates... and it actually copy/pastes a pile of code in two views: create.gsp and edit.gsp. The views themselves are gargantuan piles of doggie do-do. This is further compounded by the fact that it uses low-level parameters and not objects. Integration tests are 30x slower than a Spring integration test. It is disgusting. Some mocking tests are so hard to write and aren't guaranteed to work when it's deployed, that I think it discourages fast, tdd test cycles. Most things seem to screw up grails while it's running, like adding a taglib, or anything really. The server restart problem wasn't solved at all. I'm starting to think going with Spring/Hibernate/Java is the only way to go. While there is a pretty big cost at startup, I know it'll eventually smooth out. It sucks I can't use a language like Scala... because idiomatically, it is so incompatible with Hibernate. This app is also not a run-of-the-mill UI over a database. It's got some of that, but it's not going to be a slouch. I am deathly scared of Grails now because of how crap it is in the Controller layer. Suggestions on what I can do?

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• MVC | Linq Update Query | Help!

  - by 109221793

  Hi guys, I'm making modifications to a C# MVC application that I've inherited. I have a database, and for simplicity I'll just focus on the two tables I'm working with for this linq query. Item ItemID Int PK ItemName RepairSelection (Yes or No) RepairID Int FK Repair RepairID Int PK RepairCategory SubmissionDate DateSentForRepair Ok, so ItemID is pretty much the identifier, and the View to display the Repair details goes like this (snippet): <%= Html.LabelFor(x => x.ItemID)%> <%= Html.DisplayFor(x => x.ItemID)%><br /> <%= Html.LabelFor(x => x.Repair.RepairCategory)%> <%= Html.DisplayFor(x => x.Repair.RepairCategory, "FormTextShort")%><br /> <%= Html.LabelFor(x => x.Repair.SubmissionDate)%> <%= Html.DisplayFor(x => x.Repair.SubmissionDate)%><br /> <%= Html.LabelFor(x => x.Repair.DateSentForRepair)%> <%= Html.DisplayFor(x => x.Repair.DateSentForRepair)%><br /> <%= Html.ActionLink("Edit Repair Details", "Edit", new { ItemID= Model.ItemID})%> Here is the GET Edit action: public ActionResult Edit(Int64? itemId) { ModelContainer ctn = new ModelContainer(); var item = from i in ctn.Items where i.ItemID == itemId select i; return View(item.First()); } This is also fine, the GET Edit view displays the right details. Where I'm stuck is the linq query to update the Repair table. I have tried it so many ways today that my head is just fried (new to Linq as you may have guessed). My latest try is here (which I know is way off so go easy ;-) ): [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(Int64 itemId, Repair repair, Item item, FormCollection formValues) { if (formValues["cancelButton"] != null) { return RedirectToAction("View", new { ItemID = itemId }); } ModelContainer ctn = new ModelContainer(); Repair existingData = ctn.Repair.First(a => a.RepairId == item.RepairID && item.ItemID == itemId); existingData.SentForConversion = DateTime.Parse(formValues["SentForConversion"]); ctn.SaveChanges(); return RedirectToAction("View", new { ItemID = itemId }); } For the above attempt I get a Sequence Contains No Elements error. Any help or pointers would be appreciated. Thanks guys.

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• Returning JSON in CFFunction and appending it to layer is causing an error

  - by Mel

  I'm using the qTip jQuery plugin to generate a dynamic tooltip. I'm getting an error in my JS, and I'm unsure if its source is the JSON or the JS. The tooltip calls the following function: (sorry about all this code, but it's necessary) <cffunction name="fGameDetails" access="remote" returnType="any" returnformat="JSON" output="false" hint="This grabs game details for the games.cfm page"> <!---Argument, which is the game ID---> <cfargument name="gameID" type="numeric" required="true" hint="CFC will look for GameID and retrieve its details"> <!---Local var---> <cfset var qGameDetails = ""> <!---Database query---> <cfquery name="qGameDetails" datasource="#REQUEST.datasource#"> SELECT titles.titleName AS tName, titles.titleBrief AS tBrief, games.gameID, games.titleID, games.releaseDate AS rDate, genres.genreName AS gName, platforms.platformAbbr AS pAbbr, platforms.platformName AS pName, creviews.cReviewScore AS rScore, ratings.ratingName AS rName FROM games Inner Join platforms ON platforms.platformID = games.platformID Inner Join titles ON titles.titleID = games.titleID Inner Join genres ON genres.genreID = games.genreID Inner Join creviews ON games.gameID = creviews.gameID Inner Join ratings ON ratings.ratingID = games.ratingID WHERE (games.gameID = #ARGUMENTS.gameID#); </cfquery> <cfreturn qGameDetails> </cffunction> This function returns the following JSON: { "COLUMNS": [ "TNAME", "TBRIEF", "GAMEID", "TITLEID", "RDATE", "GNAME", "PABBR", "PNAME", "RSCORE", "RNAME" ], "DATA": [ [ "Dark Void", "Ancient gods known as 'The Watchers,' once banished from our world by superhuman Adepts, have returned with a vengeance.", 154, 54, "January, 19 2010 00:00:00", "Action & Adventure", "PS3", "Playstation 3", 3.3, "14 Anos" ] ] } The problem I'm having is every time I try to append the JSON to the layer #catalog, I get a syntax error that says "missing parenthetical." This is the JavaScript I'm using: $(document).ready(function() { $('#catalog a[href]').each(function() { $(this).qtip( { content: { url: '/gamezilla/resources/components/viewgames.cfc?method=fGameDetails', data: { gameID: $(this).attr('href').match(/gameID=([0-9]+)$/)[1] }, method: 'get' }, api: { beforeContentUpdate: function(content) { var json = eval('(' + content + ')'); content = $('<div />').append( $('<h1 />', { html: json.TNAME })); return content; } }, style: { width: 300, height: 300, padding: 0, name: 'light', tip: { corner: 'leftMiddle', size: { x: 40, y : 40 } } }, position: { corner: { target: 'rightMiddle', tooltip: 'leftMiddle' } } }); }); }); Any ideas where I'm going wrong? I tried many things for several days and I can't find the issue. Many thanks!

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• AJAX: Problems returning multiple variables

  - by fwaokda

  First off sorry if I'm missing something simple just started working with AJAX today. I have an issue where I'm trying to get information from my database, but different records have different amounts of values. For instance, each record has a "features" column. In the features column I store a string. (ex: Feature1~Feature2~Feature3~Feature4... ) When I'm building the object I take apart the string and store all the features into an array. Some objects can have 1 feature others can have up to whatever. So... how do I return this values back to my ajax function from my php page? Below is my ajax function that I was trying and I'll provide a link with my php file. [ next.php : http://pastebin.com/SY74jV7X ] $("a#next").click(function() { $.ajax({ type : 'POST', url : 'next.php', dataType : 'json', data : { nextID : $("a#next").attr("rel") }, success : function ( data ) { var lastID = $("a#next").attr("rel"); var originID = $("a#next").attr("rev"); if(lastID == 1) { lastID = originID; } else { lastID--; } $("img#spotlight").attr("src",data.spotlightimage); $("div#showcase h1").text(data.title); $("div#showcase h2").text(data.subtitle); $("div#showcase p").text(data.description); $("a#next").attr("rel", lastID); for(var i=0; i < data.size; i++) { $("ul#features").append("<li>").text(data.feature+i).append("</li>"); } /* for(var j=1; j < data.picsize; j++) { $("div.thumbnails ul").append("<li>").text(data.image+j).append("</li>"); } */ }, error : function ( XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { $("div#showcase h1").text("An error has occured: " + errorThrown); } }); });

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• Codeigniter: Retrieving data on button click with Ajax

  - by OllyTenerife

  I have a simple webpage which generates a random quote from my database upon refreshing the page. I wish to implement some AJAX and JQuery in order to generate quotes via the button rather than having to refresh the page. I have done some research but I am not sure how to implement this in Codeigniter. My current code is below... Page controller: public function index() { $this->load->model('quote_model', '', TRUE); $data['quotes'] = $this->quote_model->getRandom(); $this->load->view('home', $data); } The view: <?php include ('layout/header.php'); ?> <div class="container-fluid"> <div class="row"> <div class="col-md-4 quote-holder"> <img src="application/assets/alan1.jpg" alt="..." class="img-circle img-responsive"> <br> <blockquote class="text-center"> <p><?php echo $quotes[0]['quote']; ?></p> <footer class="text-center"><?php echo $quotes[0]['character_name']; ?> in <cite title="Source Title"><?php echo $quotes[0]['series_name']; ?></cite></footer> </blockquote> <button type="button" class="btn btn-default center-block">Generate quote</button> </div> </div> <?php include ('layout/footer.php'); ?> Here is the function in the model I am retrieving the data from: function getRandom() { $query = $this->db->query(" SELECT * FROM quotes, characters, series WHERE quotes.series_id = series.series_id AND quotes.character_id = characters.character_id ORDER BY rand() LIMIT 1 "); return $query->result_array(); } Should I simply be using something like this? $("button").click(function(){ $.get( "Page/index", function( data ) { //output data to page element... } });

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• Representation of a DateTime as the local to remote user

  - by TwoSecondsBefore

  Hello! I was confused in the problem of time zones. I am writing a web application that will contain some news with dates of publication, and I want the client to see the date of publication of the news in the form of corresponding local time. However, I do not know in which time zone the client is located. I have three questions. I have to ask just in case: does DateTimeOffset.UtcNow always returns the correct UTC date and time, regardless of whether the server is dependent on daylight savings time? For example, if the first time I get the value of this property for two minutes before daylight savings time (or before the transition from daylight saving time back) and the second time in 2 minutes after the transfer, whether the value of properties in all cases differ by only 4 minutes? Or here require any further logic? (Question #1) Please see the following example and tell me what you think. I posted the news on the site. I assume that DateTimeOffset.UtcNow takes into account the time zone of the server and the daylight savings time, and so I immediately get the correct UTC server time when pressing the button "Submit". I write this value to a MS SQL database in the field of type datetime2(0). Then the user opens a page with news and no matter how long after publication. This may occur even after many years. I did not ask him to enter his time zone. Instead, I get the offset of his current local time from UTC using the javascript function following way: function GetUserTimezoneOffset() { var offset = new Date().getTimezoneOffset(); return offset; } Next I make the calculation of the date and time of publication, which will show the user: public static DateTime Get_Publication_Date_In_User_Local_DateTime( DateTime Publication_Utc_Date_Time_From_DataBase, int User_Time_Zone_Offset_Returned_by_Javascript) { int userTimezoneOffset = User_Time_Zone_Offset_Returned_by_Javascript; // For // example Javascript returns a value equal to -300, which means the // current user's time differs from UTC to 300 minutes. Ie offset // is UTC +6. In this case, it may be the time zone UTC +5 which // currently operates summer time or UTC +6 which currently operates the // standard time. // Right? (Question #2) DateTimeOffset utcPublicationDateTime = new DateTimeOffset(Publication_Utc_Date_Time_From_DataBase, new TimeSpan(0)); // get an instance of type DateTimeOffset for the // date and time of publication for further calculations DateTimeOffset publication_DateTime_In_User_Local_DateTime = utcPublicationDateTime.ToOffset(new TimeSpan(0, - userTimezoneOffset, 0)); return publication_DateTime_In_User_Local_DateTime.DateTime;// return to user } Is the value obtained correct? Is this the right approach to solving this problem? (Question #3)

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• How to write my own global lock / unlock functions for PostgreSQL

  - by rafalmag

  I have postgresql (in perlu) function getTravelTime(integer, timestamp), which tries to select data for specified ID and timestamp. If there are no data or if data is old, it downloads them from external server (downloading time ~300ms). Multiple process use this database and this function. There is an error when two process do not find data and download them and try to do an insert to travel_time table (id and timestamp pair have to be unique). I thought about locks. Locking whole table would block all processes and allow only one to proceed. I need to lock only on id and timestamp. pg_advisory_lock seems to lock only in "current session". But my processes uses their own sessions. I tried to write my own lock/unlock functions. Am I doing it right? I use active waiting, how can I omit this? Maybe there is a way to use pg_advisory_lock() as global lock? My code: CREATE TABLE travel_time_locks ( id_key integer NOT NULL, time_key timestamp without time zone NOT NULL, UNIQUE (id_key, time_key) ); ------------ -- Function: mylock(integer, timestamp) DROP FUNCTION IF EXISTS mylock(integer, timestamp) CASCADE; -- Usage: SELECT mylock(1, '2010-03-28T19:45'); -- function tries to do a global lock similar to pg_advisory_lock(key, key) CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION mylock(id_input integer, time_input timestamp) RETURNS void AS $BODY$ DECLARE rows int; BEGIN LOOP BEGIN -- active waiting here !!!! :( INSERT INTO travel_time_locks (id_key, time_key) VALUES (id_input, time_input); EXCEPTION WHEN unique_violation THEN CONTINUE; END; EXIT; END LOOP; END; $BODY$ LANGUAGE 'plpgsql' VOLATILE COST 1; ------------ -- Function: myunlock(integer, timestamp) DROP FUNCTION IF EXISTS myunlock(integer, timestamp) CASCADE; -- Usage: SELECT myunlock(1, '2010-03-28T19:45'); -- function tries to do a global unlock similar to pg_advisory_unlock(key, key) CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION myunlock(id_input integer, time_input timestamp) RETURNS integer AS $BODY$ DECLARE BEGIN DELETE FROM ONLY travel_time_locks WHERE id_key=id_input AND time_key=time_input; RETURN 1; END; $BODY$ LANGUAGE 'plpgsql' VOLATILE COST 1;

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• How do I write object classes effectively when dealing with table joins?

  - by Chris

  I should start by saying I'm not now, nor do I have any delusions I'll ever be a professional programmer so most of my skills have been learned from experience very much as a hobby. I learned PHP as it seemed a good simple introduction in certain areas and it allowed me to design simple web applications. When I learned about objects, classes etc the tutor's basic examnples covered the idea that as a rule of thumb each database table should have its own class. While that worked well for the photo gallery project we wrote, as it had very simple mysql queries, it's not working so well now my projects are getting more complex. If I require data from two separate tables which require a table join I've instead been ignoring the class altogether and handling it on a case by case basis, OR, even worse been combining some of the data into the class and the rest as a separate entity and doing two queries, which to me seems inefficient. As an example, when viewing content on a forum I wrote, if you view a thread, I retrieve data from the threads table, the posts table and the user table. The queries from the user and posts table are retrieved via a join and not instantiated as an object, whereas the thread data is called using my Threads class. So how do I get from my current state of affairs to something a little less 'stupid', for want of a better word. Right now I have a DB class that deals with connection and escaping values etc, a parent db query class that deals with the common queries and methods, and all of the other classes (Thread, Upload, Session, Photo and ones thats aren't used Post, User etc ) are children of that. Do I make a big posts class that has the relevant extra attributes that I retrieve from the users (and potentially threads) table? Do I have separate classes that populate each of their relevant attributes with a single query? If so how do I do that? Because of the way my classes are written, based on what I was taught, my db update row method, or insert method both just take the attributes as an array and update all of that, if I have extra attributes from other db tables in each class then how do I rewrite those methods as obbiously updating automatically like that would result in errors? In short I think my understanding is limited right now and I'd like some pointers when it comes to the fundamentals of how to write more complex classes.

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• Passing ViewModel for backbone.js from MVC3 Server-Side

  - by Roman

  In ASP.NET MVC there is Model, View and Controller. MODEL represents entities which are stored in database and essentially is all the data used in a application (for example, generated by EntityFramework, "DB First" approach). Not all data from model you want to show in the view (for example, hashs of passwords). So you create VIEW MODEL, each for every strongly-typed-razor-view you have in application. Like this: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; namespace MyProject.ViewModels.SomeController.SomeAction { public class ViewModel { public ViewModel() { Entities1 = new List<ViewEntity1>(); Entities2 = new List<ViewEntity2>(); } public List<ViewEntity1> Entities1 { get; set; } public List<ViewEntity2> Entities2 { get; set; } } public class ViewEntity1 { //some properties from original DB-entity you want to show } public class ViewEntity2 { } } When you create complex client-side interfaces (I do), you use some pattern for javascript on client, MVC or MVVM (I know only these). So, with MVC on client you have another model (Backbone.Model for example), which is third model in application. It is a bit much. Why don`t we use the same ViewModel model on a client (in backbone.js or another framework)? Is there a way to transfer CS-coded model to JS-coded? Like in MVVM pattern, with knockout.js, when you can do like this: in SomeAction.cshtml: <div style="display: none;" id="view_model">@Json.Encode(Model)</div> after that in Javascript-code var ViewModel = ko.mapping.fromJSON($("#view_model").get(0).innerHTML); now you can extend your ViewModel with some actions, event handlers, etc: ko.utils.extend(ViewModel, { some_function: function () { //some code } }); So, we are not building the same view model on the client again, we are transferring existing view model from server. At least, data. But knockout.js is not suitable for me, you can`t build complex UI with it, it is just data-binding. I need something more structural, like backbone.js. The only way to build ViewModel for backbone.js I can see now is re-writing same ViewModel in JS from server with hands. Is there any ways to transfer it from server? To reuse the same viewmodel on server view and client view?

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• Call PHP Function in jQuery (var)

  - by l3gion

  Hello, I'm facing a small problem that I can't solve by myself. I have this php function: function intervalo_manha(){ $que="select id_intervalo,data_15 from intervalo_manha order by id_intervalo"; $re=mysql_query($que); $object.="<select>"; $object.="<option></option>"; while(list($id_intervalo, $data_15)=mysql_fetch_row($re)) { $object.= "<option value=\"".$id_intervalo."\">".$data_15."</option>"; } $object.="</select>"; return $object; } This function return a select with information from database. I also have this js function: $(document).ready(function() { var destTable = $("#dataTable"); $("#btnAdd").click(function() { var newRow = $("<tr style='margin-left:-60px'><td><INPUT type='checkbox' name='chk'/></td><td><INPUT type='text' name='txt[]' id='txt'/></td><td></td></tr>"); $("#dataTable").append(newRow); newRow.find('input').autocomplete("get_cols_name.php", { width: 260, matchContains: true, selectFirst: false }); }); }); This one will add a new row to my table, and for each new input will "activate" autocomplete. What I want to do is, instead of this: var newRow = $("<tr style='margin-left:-60px'><td><INPUT type='checkbox' name='chk'/></td><td><INPUT type='text' name='txt[]' id='txt'/></td><td></td></tr>"); I would like to have something like this: var newRow = $("<tr style='margin-left:-60px'><td><INPUT type='checkbox' name='chk'/></td><td><INPUT type='text' name='txt[]' id='txt'/></td><td><?php echo intervalo_manha(); ?></td></tr>"); Calling php function directly will return nothing, and I can't do anything. Is there any way to accomplish this? Thank you

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• Delphi / MySql : Problems escpaing strings

  - by mawg

  N00b here, having problems escaping strings. I used the QuotedStr() function - shouldn't that be enough. Unfortunately, the string that I am trying to quote is rather messy, but I will post it here in case anyone wants to paste it into WinMerge or KDiff3, etc. I am trying to store an entire Delphi form into the database, rather than into a .DFM file. It has only one field, a TEdit edit box. The debugger shows the form as text as 'object Form1: TScriptForm'#$D#$A' Left = 0'#$D#$A' Top = 0'#$D#$A' Align = alClient'#$D#$A' BorderStyle = bsNone'#$D#$A' ClientHeight = 517'#$D#$A' ClientWidth = 993'#$D#$A' Color = clBtnFace'#$D#$A' Font.Charset = DEFAULT_CHARSET'#$D#$A' Font.Color = clWindowText'#$D#$A' Font.Height = -11'#$D#$A' Font.Name = 'MS Sans Serif''#$D#$A' Font.Style = []'#$D#$A' OldCreateOrder = False'#$D#$A' SaveProps.Strings = ('#$D#$A' 'Visible=False')'#$D#$A' PixelsPerInch = 96'#$D#$A' TextHeight = 13'#$D#$A' object Edit1: TEdit'#$D#$A' Left = 192'#$D#$A' Top = 64'#$D#$A' Width = 121'#$D#$A' Height = 21'#$D#$A' TabOrder = 8'#$D#$A' end'#$D#$A'end'#$D#$A before calling QuotedStr() and ''object Form1: TScriptForm'#$D#$A' Left = 0'#$D#$A' Top = 0'#$D#$A' Align = alClient'#$D#$A' BorderStyle = bsNone'#$D#$A' ClientHeight = 517'#$D#$A' ClientWidth = 993'#$D#$A' Color = clBtnFace'#$D#$A' Font.Charset = DEFAULT_CHARSET'#$D#$A' Font.Color = clWindowText'#$D#$A' Font.Height = -11'#$D#$A' Font.Name = ''MS Sans Serif'''#$D#$A' Font.Style = []'#$D#$A' OldCreateOrder = False'#$D#$A' SaveProps.Strings = ('#$D#$A' ''Visible=False'')'#$D#$A' PixelsPerInch = 96'#$D#$A' TextHeight = 13'#$D#$A' object Edit1: TEdit'#$D#$A' Left = 192'#$D#$A' Top = 64'#$D#$A' Width = 121'#$D#$A' Height = 21'#$D#$A' TabOrder = 8'#$D#$A' end'#$D#$A'end'#$D#$A''' afterwards. The strange thing is that my complete command 'INSERT INTO designerFormDfm(designerFormDfmText) VALUES ("'object Form1: TScriptForm'#$D#$A' Left = 0'#$D#$A' Top = 0'#$D#$A' Align = alClient'#$D#$A' BorderStyle = bsNone'#$D#$A' ClientHeight = 517'#$D#$A' ClientWidth = 993'#$D#$A' Color = clBtnFace'#$D#$A' Font.Charset = DEFAULT_CHARSET'#$D#$A' Font.Color = clWindowText'#$D#$A' Font.Height = -11'#$D#$A' Font.Name = ''MS Sans Serif'''#$D#$A' Font.Style = []'#$D#$A' OldCreateOrder = False'#$D#$A' SaveProps.Strings = ('#$D#$A' ''Visible=False'')'#$D#$A' PixelsPerInch = 96'#$D#$A' TextHeight = 13'#$D#$A' object Edit1: TEdit'#$D#$A' Left = 192'#$D#$A' Top = 64'#$D#$A' Width = 121'#$D#$A' Height = 21'#$D#$A' TabOrder = 8'#$D#$A' end'#$D#$A'end'#$D#$A''");' executes in a MySql console, but not from Delphi, where I pass that command as parameter command to a function which ADOCommand.CommandText := command; ADOCommand.CommandType := cmdText; ADOCommand.Execute(); I can only assume that I am having problems escpaing sequences which contain single quotes (and QuotedStr() doesn't seem to escape backslahes(?!)) What am I doing that is obviously, glaringly wrong?

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• Jquery ajax using asp.net does not work on IE9 during the 2nd call of the function?

  - by randelramirez1

  I have gridview that is loaded from another aspx page after an ajax call, the problem is it works on chrome/firefox/safari but using ie9 the ajax call would work fine during the first call but when i try to call the function again it throws an 304 status on the network tab of ie9 dev tool and the gridview is not refreshed. Here is the jquery code: <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="LoadCoursesGridViewHere.aspx.cs" Inherits="CoursesGridView" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> <script src="Scripts/jquery-1.8.2.js" type="text/javascript"></script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div id="Gridview-container"> <asp:GridView ID="GridView1" runat="server"> </asp:GridView> </div> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server" ViewStateMode="Disabled"></asp:TextBox> <%-- <asp:Button Text="text" ID="btn" OnClientClick=" __doPostBack('UpdatePanel1', '')" runat="server" />--%> <input type="button" id="btn" value="insert"/> </form> <script type="text/javascript"> $("#btn").click(function () { var a = $("#TextBox1").val(); $.ajax({ url: 'WebService.asmx/insert', data: "{ 'name': '" + a + "' }", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", type: "POST", success: function () { // alert('insert was performed.'); $("#Gridview-container").empty(); $("#Gridview-container").load("GridViewCourses.aspx #GridView1"); } }); }); </script> </body> </html> What happen is that after click the button it will insert the textbox value in the database through the webservice 'insert' and then reload the gridview that is placed inside a different aspx page. The problem is that when I ran it on IE9 during the 1st insert everything works properly but the succeeding inserts does reload the gridview and I noticed that it says '304' on the network tab of ie9 dev tool.

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• [NHibernate and ASP.NET MVC] How can I implement a robust session-per-request pattern in my project,

  - by Guillaume Gervais

  I'm currently building an ASP.NET MVC project, with NHibernate as its persistance layer. For now, some functionnalities have been implemented, but only use local NHibernate sessions: each method that accessed the database (read or write) needs to instanciate its own NHibernate session, with the "using()" directive. The problem is that I want to leverage NHibernate's Lazy-Loading capabilities to improve the performance of my project. This implies an open NHibernate session per request until the view is rendered. Furthermore, simultaneous request must be supported (multiple Sessions at the same time). How can I achieve that as cleanly as possible? I searched the Web a little bit and learned about the session-per-request pattern. Most of the implementations I saw used some sort of Http* (HttpContext, etc.) object to store the session. Also, using the Application_BeginRequest/Application_EndRequest functions is complicated, since they get fired for each HTTP request (aspx files, css files, js files, etc.), when I only want to instanciate a session once per request. The concern that I have is that I don't want my views or controllers to have access to NHibernate sessions (or, more generally, NHibernate namespaces and code). That means that I do not want to handle sessions at the controller level nor the view one. I have a few options in mind. Which one seems the best ? Use interceptors (like in GRAILS) that get triggered before and after the controller action. These would open and close sessions/transactions. Is it possible in the ASP.NET MVC world? Use the CurrentSessionContext Singleton provided by NHibernate in a Web context. Using this page as an example, I think this is quite promising, but that still requires filters at the controller level. Use the HttpContext.Current.Items to store the request session. This, coupled with a few lines of code in Global.asax.cs, can easily provide me with a session on the request level. However, it means that dependencies will be injected between NHibernate and my views (HttpContext). Thank you very much!

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• Type Mismatch using VBScript to create Pivot Table/Chart

  - by Rodricks

  I get Run time error:Type mismatch for the following code: Dim Field Field="Gen8" '''' ============================================================================== EXCEL Sheet '==============Errors -Stacked Chart by Year and Week --ALL WEEKS ''''=================================================== objExcel.ActiveWorkbook.Worksheets.Add SheetNumber = SheetNumber ' add adds in front so sheetnumber stays 1 objExcel.Sheets(SheetNumber).Select objExcel.Sheets(SheetNumber).Activate objExcel.Sheets(SheetNumber).Name = "YRWk" SheetName = "SYS_Product_YRWeeks" '============== strSQLCustomers = "select isnull(AB.Week,D.Week_Num) AS YRWk,ISNULL(AB.UnCorrectable,0) as UE," & _ "isnull(AB.Correctable,0) as CE, isnull(AB.SYS_Product,'" & Field & "'" & _ ") as SYS_Product from AHS_Dates D Left Join (select * from P_tot where " & _ "SYS_Product = '" & Field & "'" & _ " ) AB on AB.Year_=D.Year_ and AB.Week=D.Week_Num order by YRWk" FetchData2.Open strSQLCustomers, openConnection, adOpenStatic, adLockReadOnly If FetchData2.RecordCount > 0 Then **objExcel.ActiveWorkbook.Connections.Add SheetName, "", _ Array(Array( _ "ODBC;DRIVER=SQL Server Native Client 10.0;SERVER=" & sServerIP & ";TimeOut=5000000; Trusted_Connection=Yes;Integrated Security=SSPI;" _ ), Array("DATABASE=" & sDataBaseName & ";")), Array(strSQLCustomers), 2** objExcel.ActiveWorkbook.PivotCaches.Create(SourceType:=xlExternal, SourceData:= _ objExcel.ActiveWorkbook.Connections(SheetName), Version:= _ xlPivotTableVersion14).CreatePivotTable TableDestination:=objExcel.Sheets(SheetNumber).Name & "!R3C7", _ TableName:="PivotTable" & SheetNumber, DefaultVersion:=xlPivotTableVersion14 Set ws = objExcel.ActiveWorkbook.Worksheets(objExcel.Sheets(SheetNumber).Name) objExcel.Cells(3, 7).Select ws.Shapes.AddChart.Select objExcel.ActiveWorkbook.ActiveChart.ChartType = xlAreaStacked objExcel.ActiveWorkbook.ActiveChart.SetSourceData Source:=ws.Range(objExcel.Sheets(SheetNumber).Name & "!$G$3:$I$20") With ws.PivotTables("PivotTable1").PivotFields("SYS_PRoduct") .Orientation = xlColumnField .Position = 1 End With With ws.PivotTables("PivotTable1").PivotFields("YRWk") .Orientation = xlRowField .Position = 1 End With ' With ws.PivotTables("PivotTable1").PivotFields("Year_") ' .Orientation = xlRowField ' .Position = 2 ' End With objExcel.ActiveWorkbook.ActiveChart.ChartTitle.Text = " Errors by Week and Year -ALLWEEKS" ws.PivotTables("PivotTable1").AddDataField ws.PivotTables( _ "PivotTable1").PivotFields("UE"), "Sum of UnCorrectable", xlSum ws.PivotTables("PivotTable1").AddDataField ws.PivotTables( _ "PivotTable1").PivotFields("CE"), "Sum of Correctable", xlSum End If ''MsgBox (FetchData2.RecordCount) FetchData2.Close I have used the same pivot chart + table in other slides. The problem I think is the query length My question: 1.Is there a better way for me to access the query results. Would appreciate the steps if any. 2.If I can make it a procedure how do I modify the pivot chart/table creation. Thanks. The query results with all 52 weeks: Week UE CE SYS_Product(or Field) 1 0 0 Gen8 2 0 0 Gen8 3 0 0 Gen8 4 0 0 Gen8 5 0 0 Gen8 6 0 0 Gen8

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