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  • Choosing an installer product that is free and will download/install the .NET Framework

    - by Coder7862396
    I'm currently using the Visual Studio Installer (Setup Project) in Visual Studio 2010 as the installer for MyProgram. It has some quirky bugs and is not very customizable so I would like to switch to another installer product. Here are my requirements: Must be free (and licensed for commercial use) Must install the Windows Installer 3.1 and .NET Framework 4.0 if the client doesn't have them The installer will download them if they are not available The code for detecting the .NET Framework and downloading it must be written by Microsoft (I do not want to have to update hard-coded URLs and registry keys in the future). I know that the Windows SDK includes a setup bootstrap that does this (C:\Program Files\Microsoft SDKs\Windows\v7.0A\Bootstrapper) In the future, when .NET Framework 5 is released and MyProgram uses it, no installer code will need to be changed, the updated installer product should see that MyProgram now uses the .NET Framework version 5 and will install that Here are my current choices: Visual Studio Installer: Automatically detects/downloads/installs Windows Installer and .NET Framework using a bootstrapper Setup.exe (Good!) Limited/buggy functionality (Uninstall shortcuts in the Start Menu cause empty folders to be left behind during uninstall, asking the user if they want a desktop shortcut requires a lot of work, etc.) NSIS: Doesn't natively support the .NET Framework so adding it as a prerequisite requires excessive coding, hardcoded URLS, etc. Inno Setup: Doesn't natively support the .NET Framework so adding it as a prerequisite requires excessive coding, hardcoded URLs, etc. WiX: Steep learning curve... not sure if I want to spend weeks learning it only to find out that it has the same uninstall problem as the Visual Studio Installer (because they both use MSI files) InstallShield LE 2010: Downloading it requires me to setup a fake email account to register just to download it. Then once it is installed it has to contact the company's servers and transmit some private information to them before I'm even allowed to try the free version. This is the most insidious form of DRM that there is and I will not accept it.

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  • How can I display a language according to the user's browser's language inside this code?

    - by janoChen
    How can I display a language according to the user's browser's language inside this mini-framework for my multilingual website? Basically, it has to display the default language of the user if there's no cookies. Example of index.php: (rendered output) <h2><?php echo l('tagline_h2'); ?></h2> common.php: (controller of which language to output) <?php session_start(); header('Cache-control: private'); // IE 6 FIX if(isSet($_GET['lang'])) { $lang = $_GET['lang']; // register the session and set the cookie $_SESSION['lang'] = $lang; setcookie("lang", $lang, time() + (3600 * 24 * 30)); } else if(isSet($_SESSION['lang'])) { $lang = $_SESSION['lang']; } else if(isSet($_COOKIE['lang'])) { $lang = $_COOKIE['lang']; } else { $lang = 'en'; } //use appropiate lang.xx.php file according to the value of the $lang switch ($lang) { case 'en': $lang_file = 'lang.en.php'; break; case 'es': $lang_file = 'lang.es.php'; break; case 'tw': $lang_file = 'lang.tw.php'; break; case 'cn': $lang_file = 'lang.cn.php'; break; default: $lang_file = 'lang.en.php'; } //translation helper function function l($translation) { global $lang; return $lang[$translation]; } include_once 'languages/'.$lang_file; ?> Example of /languages/lang.en.php: (where multilingual content is being stored) <?php $lang = array( 'tagline_h2' => '...',

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  • [ActionScript 3] Array subclasses cannot be deserialized, Error #1034

    - by aaaidan
    I've just found a strange error when deserializing from a ByteArray, where Vectors cannot contain types that extend Array: there is a TypeError when they are deserialized. TypeError: Error #1034: Type Coercion failed: cannot convert []@4b8c42e1 to com.myapp.ArraySubclass. at flash.utils::ByteArray/readObject() at com.myapp::MyApplication()[/Users/aaaidan/MyApp/com/myapp/MyApplication.as:99] Here's how: public class Application extends Sprite { public function Application() { // register the custom class registerClassAlias("MyArraySubclass", MyArraySubclass); // write a vector containing an array subclass to a byte array var vec:Vector.<MyArraySubclass> = new Vector.<MyArraySubclass>(); var arraySubclass:MyArraySubclass = new MyArraySubclass(); arraySubclass.customProperty = "foo"; vec.push(arraySubclass); var ba:ByteArray = new ByteArray(); ba.writeObject(arraySubclass); ba.position = 0; // read it back var arraySubclass2:MyArraySubclass = ba.readObject() as MyArraySubclass; // throws TypeError } } public class MyArraySubclass extends Array { public var customProperty:String = "default"; } It's a pretty specific case, but it seems very odd to me. Anyone have any ideas what's causing it, or how it could be fixed?

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  • How to assign Image Uri in a custom Control.

    - by Subhen
    Hi, I want to place an image inside my custom control , so my generic.xaml looks like below: <Style TargetType="local:generic"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="local:generic"> <Grid Background="{TemplateBinding Background}"> <Rectangle> <Rectangle.Fill> <SolidColorBrush x:Name="BackgroundBrush" Opacity="0" /> </Rectangle.Fill> </Rectangle> <TextBlock Text="{TemplateBinding Text}" HorizontalAlignment="Center" VerticalAlignment="Center" Foreground="{TemplateBinding Foreground}"/> <Image Source="{TemplateBinding Source}" HorizontalAlignment="Center" VerticalAlignment="Center"/> </Grid> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> My Codebehind is as follows: public class Generic : Control { public static DependencyProperty ImageUri = DependencyProperty.Register("Source", typeof(Uri), typeof(generic), new PropertyMetadata("")); public Uri Source { get { return (Uri)GetValue(generic.ImageUri); } set { SetValue(generic.ImageUri, value); } } public generic() { this.DefaultStyleKey = typeof(generic); } } Apllication is compiling fine but while I am trying to run it throws the following exception : $exception {System.Windows.Markup.XamlParseException: System.TypeInitializationException: The type initializer for 'testCstmCntrl.themes.generic' threw an exception. ---> System.ArgumentException: Default value type does not match type of property. Thanks, Subhen

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  • How can I handle events within my custom control?

    - by highone
    I am not looking to create new events. I need to create a canvas control that optionally fades in or out depending on whether or not the mouse is over it. The code below probably explains what I want to do better than I can. private Storyboard fadeInStoryboard; private Storyboard fadeOutStoryboard; public FadingOptionPanel() { InitializeComponent(); } public static readonly DependencyProperty FadeEnabledProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("IsFadeEnabled", typeof(bool), typeof(FadingOptionPanel), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata(true, OnFadeEnabledPropertyChanged, OnCoerceFadeEnabledProperty)); public bool IsFadeEnabled { get { return (bool)GetValue(FadeEnabledProperty); } set { SetValue(FadeEnabledProperty, value); } } private static void OnFadeEnabledPropertyChanged(DependencyObject source, DependencyPropertyChangedEventArgs e) { } private static object OnCoerceFadeEnabledProperty(DependencyObject sender, object data) { if (data.GetType() != typeof(bool)) { data = true; } return data; } private void FadingOptionPanel_MouseEnter(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { if (IsFadeEnabled) { fadeInStoryboard.Begin(this); } } private void FadingOptionPanel_MouseLeave(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { if (IsFadeEnabled) { fadeOutStoryboard.Begin(this); } } private void FadingOptionsPanel_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { //Initialize Fade In Animation DoubleAnimation fadeInDoubleAnimation = new DoubleAnimation(); fadeInDoubleAnimation.From = 0; fadeInDoubleAnimation.To = 1; fadeInDoubleAnimation.Duration = new Duration(TimeSpan.FromSeconds(.5)); fadeInStoryboard = new Storyboard(); fadeInStoryboard.Children.Add(fadeInDoubleAnimation); Storyboard.SetTargetName(fadeInDoubleAnimation, this.Name); Storyboard.SetTargetProperty(fadeInDoubleAnimation, new PropertyPath(Canvas.OpacityProperty)); //Initialize Fade Out Animation DoubleAnimation fadeOutDoubleAnimation = new DoubleAnimation(); fadeOutDoubleAnimation.From = 1; fadeOutDoubleAnimation.To = 0; fadeOutDoubleAnimation.Duration = new Duration(TimeSpan.FromSeconds(.2)); fadeOutStoryboard = new Storyboard(); fadeOutStoryboard.Children.Add(fadeOutDoubleAnimation); Storyboard.SetTargetName(fadeOutDoubleAnimation, this.Name); Storyboard.SetTargetProperty(fadeOutDoubleAnimation, new PropertyPath(Canvas.OpacityProperty)); } I originally was using this code inside a usercontrol instead of a custom control before I found out that usercontrols don't support content.

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  • ARMv6 FIQ, acknowledge interrupt

    - by fastmonkeywheels
    I'm working with an i.mx35 armv6 core processor. I have Interrupt 62 configured as a FIQ with my handler installed and being called. My handler at the moment just toggles an output pin so I can test latency with a scope. With the code below, once I trigger the FIQ it continues forever as fast as it can, apparently not being acknowledged. I'm triggering the FIQ by means of the Interrupt Force Register so I'm assured that the source isn't triggering it this fast. If I disable Interrupt 62 in the AVIC in my FIQ routine the interrupt only triggers once. I have read the sections on the VIC Port in the ARM1136JF-S and ARM1136J-S Technical Reference Manual and it covers proper exit procedure. I'm only having one FIQ handler so I have no need to branch. The line that I don't understand is: STR R0, [R8,#AckFinished] I'm not sure what AckFinished is supposed to be or what this command is supposed to do. My FIQ handler is below: ldr r9, IOMUX_ADDR12 ldr r8, [r9] orr r8, #0x08 @ top LED str r8,[r9] @turn on LED bic r8, #0x08 @ top LED str r8,[r9] @turn off LED subs pc, r14, #4 IOMUX_ADDR12: .word 0xFC2A4000 @remapped IOMUX addr My handler returns just fine and normal system operation resumes if I disable it after the first go, otherwise it triggers constantly and the system appears to hang. Do you think my assumption is right that the core isn't acknowledging the AVIC or could there be another cause of this FIQ triggering?

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  • [ASP.NET] Difficulties using custom control - RichTextEditor

    - by Chris
    I am working on a school project that uses ASP.NET. I found this TextEditor control ( http://blogs.msdn.com/kirti/archive/2007/11/10/rich-text-editor-is-here.aspx ) that I am trying to include but it isn't working. The error I am getting is: Error Rendering Control - TextEditor. An unhandled exception has occurred. Index was out of range. Must be non-negative and less than the size of the collection. Parameter name: index. I see this error when I go Design part of the editor. I just don't understand this error at all. Also I am a lil bit confused as there is no parameter called index. :( What I have done is reference the binary in my project and then on the page I am trying to use it have registered its namespace and assembly with this line: <%@ Register Assembly="RichTextEditor" Namespace="AjaxControls" TagPrefix="rtt" %> I then go ahead and try to add the control to the page with this line of code: <rtt:richtexteditor ID="TextEditor" Theme="Blue" runat="server" /> Any help would be much appreciated. I haven't done anything like add a custom control before.

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  • Problems with registering click event listener to a frame-element

    - by distractedBySquirrels
    Hi everybody, I ran into a problem with adding an event listener. I wrote a Firefox plugin a while ago for my bachelor thesis. It was based on a different attacker model than you would normally expect. In this scenario the attacker was the service provider (like Facebook, Google,...), who reads all your private data stored on their site (via JS). My final solution was to temporally allow JS (while the page loads and after an user action occured). To observe the interaction I used event listener, which worked very well so far. But last week I noticed that my approach doesn't work with web sites which are using a frameset (I added the event listener to the body...). So I tried to add the listener to the frameset respectively to the frame. But the clicks are only noticed when you actually click on the frame... (eg resize the frame with your mouse) But I want to register clicks on the document loaded inside the frame. I already tried the .frameElement. Sadly it seems that Firefox doesn't like my (or, which is more likely, I'm too stuipd :) ) and claims there are no frames... Could anyone tell me how to add an event listener to the document inside a frame? The web site looks like this: <html> <head> <title>Frameset Test</title> </head> <frameset cols="150,*"> <frame src="nav.html" name="Navigation"> <frame src="main.html" name="Main"> </frameset> </html> This was my first bigger projekt with Mozilla so this could be a really dumb failure of mine... I hope you guys can help me. Thanks in advance. Sebastian

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  • WPF Designer has bug with parsing generic control with overrided property

    - by Ivan Laktyunkin
    I've created a generic lookless control with virtual property: public abstract class TestControlBase<TValue> : Control { public static readonly DependencyProperty ValueProperty; static TestControlBase() { ValueProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("Value", typeof(TValue), typeof(TestControlBase<TValue>)); } protected TestControlBase() { Focusable = false; Value = default(TValue); } public virtual TValue Value { get { return (TValue)GetValue(ValueProperty); } set { SetValue(ValueProperty, value); } } } Then I've made a control derived from it and overrided Value property: public class TestControl : TestControlBase<int> { public override int Value { get { return base.Value; } set { base.Value = value; } } } So I use it in a Window XAML: <TestControls:TestControl /> When I open window in designer all is OK, but when I put mouse cursor to this line, or to this control in designer I receive exception: Exception has been thrown by the target of an invocation. at System.RuntimeMethodHandle._InvokeMethodFast(Object target, Object[] arguments, SignatureStruct& sig, MethodAttributes methodAttributes, RuntimeTypeHandle typeOwner) at System.RuntimeMethodHandle.InvokeMethodFast(Object target, Object[] arguments, Signature sig, MethodAttributes methodAttributes, RuntimeTypeHandle typeOwner) at System.Reflection.RuntimeMethodInfo.Invoke(Object obj, BindingFlags invokeAttr, Binder binder, Object[] parameters, CultureInfo culture, Boolean skipVisibilityChecks) at System.Delegate.DynamicInvokeImpl(Object[] args) at System.Windows.Threading.ExceptionWrapper.InternalRealCall(Delegate callback, Object args, Boolean isSingleParameter) at System.Windows.Threading.ExceptionWrapper.TryCatchWhen(Object source, Delegate callback, Object args, Boolean isSingleParameter, Delegate catchHandler) Ambiguous match found. at System.RuntimeType.GetPropertyImpl(String name, BindingFlags bindingAttr, Binder binder, Type returnType, Type[] types, ParameterModifier[] modifiers) at System.Type.GetProperty(String name) at MS.Internal.ComponentModel.DependencyPropertyKind.get_IsDirect() at MS.Internal.ComponentModel.DependencyPropertyKind.get_IsAttached() at MS.Internal.ComponentModel.APCustomTypeDescriptor.GetProperties(Attribute[] attributes) at MS.Internal.ComponentModel.APCustomTypeDescriptor.GetProperties() at System.ComponentModel.TypeDescriptor.TypeDescriptionNode.DefaultExtendedTypeDescriptor.System.ComponentModel.ICustomTypeDescriptor.GetProperties() at System.ComponentModel.TypeDescriptor.GetPropertiesImpl(Object component, Attribute[] attributes, Boolean noCustomTypeDesc, Boolean noAttributes) at System.ComponentModel.TypeDescriptor.GetProperties(Object component) at MS.Internal.Model.ModelPropertyCollectionImpl.GetProperties(String propertyNameHint) at MS.Internal.Model.ModelPropertyCollectionImpl.<GetEnumerator>d__0.MoveNext() at MS.Internal.Designer.PropertyEditing.Model.ModelPropertyMerger.<GetFirstProperties>d__0.MoveNext() at MS.Internal.Designer.PropertyEditing.PropertyInspector.UpdateCategories(Selection selection) at MS.Internal.Designer.PropertyEditing.PropertyInspector.OnSelectionChangedIdle() Who know this problem? Please explain :) I have no ideas except that WPF Designer doesn't like generics. If I replace generics by Object all is OK.

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  • How can I find out what is stopping my object from disposing properly?

    - by SLC
    I have a rather large and complex game in C#, and in it are various monsters. The monsters are created in the game by a MonsterCreator, and each monster has various plugins that are loaded from external DLLs. When my monsters die, they call a method in the MonsterCreator, and the MonsterCreator removes them from the game map, removes them from its own internal list of monsters, and then finally calls the Dispose() method on the monster itself. The dispose method calls the dispose method of each plugin, then clears up any of its own code. This seems to work fine, with lots of monsters, but somewhere there is a bug that crops up after a while, where a monster dies, but it has already been removed - it seems the callback telling the MonsterCreator is being called over and over, when the monster should have been removed on the first call. The likely candidate is that some of the plugins for the monster register themselves with an Event that pulses them every X number of seconds so they can perform logic. Stepping through I can see that they are unregistering with the Event when they die, but something is getting through still and I don't know what it is. Do you have any advice for debugging the problem? I can't post code really because it's split across a ton of libraries and plugin dlls, so it's more a case of figuring out the best way to debug it. I threw an exception in code when the monster died callback method is thrown and the monster cannot be found on the map to be removed, so I have the misbehaviing Monster, is there a way I can see what is still linked to it?

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  • Client unable to authenticate when connecting to WCF service

    - by davecoulter
    I have a WCF service hosted in a Windows service. The application is an intranet app, and I have programmatically set the bindings on both the service and the client as: NetTcpBinding aBinding = new NetTcpBinding(SecurityMode.Transport); aBinding.Security.Transport.ClientCredentialType = TcpClientCredentialType.Windows; aBinding.Security.Transport.ProtectionLevel = System.Net.Security.ProtectionLevel.EncryptAndSign; Both the service and client have endpoints configured with SPNs: EndpointAddress = new EndpointAddress(uri, EndpointIdentity.CreateSpnIdentity("Service1")); As far as I know, I have setup the bindings correctly-- and I am usually able to connect to the service just fine. I did however run into a case where on a server running Windows Server 2003 R2, x64, SP2 I get the following exception immediately when the client tries to connect: INNEREXCEPTION -- Exception Message: InvalidCredentialException: Either the target name is incorrect or the server has rejected the client credentials. Stack Trace: at System.Net.Security.NegoState.ProcessAuthentication(LazyAsyncResult lazyResult) at System.Net.Security.NegotiateStream.AuthenticateAsClient(NetworkCredential credential, String targetName, ProtectionLevel requiredProtectionLevel, TokenImpersonationLevel allowedImpersonationLevel) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.WindowsStreamSecurityUpgradeProvider.WindowsStreamSecurityUpgradeInitiator.OnInitiateUpgrade(Stream stream, SecurityMessageProperty& remoteSecurity) I get the exception when I try to connect to the service from another machine in the domain, but if I connect to the service on the same machine running the service it works fine. The hosting service itself is running as a domain user account-- but I have tried running the service as a Local System and Network Service to no avail. I have checked the Local Security Policies for the server and didn't see anything amiss (i.e. 'Access this computer from the network' includes 'Everyone'). Anyone have an idea of what could resolve this? I am wondering if I need to do something in Active Directory with respect to the service's SPN? I have read some about using setspn.exe to register or refresh SPNs, but I haven't needed to do this before. Why would this be working with other configurations but not the one above?

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  • Broadcasting an intent to a specific component.

    - by Nic Strong
    I have an activity that is starting a background operation in another service. This activity receives various notifications from this service. As part of the intent I use to initiate the background operation I pass extra data with the context of my activity so the background service can broadcast intents back to me (the download service is a good example of this usage). So in the activity I use the following to attach the context: intent.putExtra(Intents.EXTRA_NOTIFICATION_PACKAGE, IntentTestActivity.this.getPackageName()); intent.putExtra(Intents.EXTRA_NOTIFICATION_CLASS, IntentTestActivity.class.getCanonicalName()); intent.putExtra(Intents.EXTRA_NOTIFICATION_EXTRAS, myContext); I register for the notifications in the activity: IntentFilter intentFilter = new IntentFilter(); intentFilter.addAction(Intents.ACTION_NOTIFICATION); intentFilter.addCategory(Intents.CATEGORY_COMPLETION); intentFilter.addCategory(Intents.CATEGORY_PROGRESSS); Intent intent = registerReceiver(receiver, intentFilter); In the background service I send notifications with the following code: void broadcastNotification(String action, String category, String packageName, String className, String extras, int operationResult) { Intent intent = new Intent(action); intent.addCategory(category); intent.setClassName(packageName, className); if (extras != null) { intent.putExtra(Intents.EXTRA_NOTIFICATION_EXTRAS, extras); } intent.putExtra(Intents.EXTRA_OPERATION_RESULT, operationResult); context.sendBroadcast(intent); } My problem is that the above broadcast will never be received. If however I comment out the line intent.setClassName(packageName, className); Then the broadcast is received. Is it a problem with my filter? Do I have to specify intents intended for a specific component? Or cannot I not use such fine grain control over the delivery of broadcasts. Thanks, Nic

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  • can i use javabeans with hibernate ?

    - by Dilllllo
    Hello i'm using a plugin of hibernate2 in my webproject with jsp ,in my project i have a register page. Can i use javabeans to send information from a html <form> using hibernate class's ? with out hibernate i creat class with get and set like that package com.java2s; public class Lang { private String choix; private String comm; public String getChoix() { return choix; } public void setChoix(String choix) { this.choix = choix; //System.out.println(choix); } public String getComm() { return comm; } public void setComm(String comm) { this.comm = comm; // System.out.println(comm); } } but i know that hibernate generate a get and set class ! and recive it with that : <jsp:useBean id='user' class='com.java2s.Lang' type='com.java2s.Lang' scope='session' /> <jsp:setProperty name='user' property='*'/> any idea how to do that ?

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  • Not getting response using SOAP and PHP.

    - by Nitish
    I'm using PHP5 and NuSOAP - SOAP Toolkit for PHP. I created the server using the code below: <?php function getStockQuote($symbol) { mysql_connect('localhost','user','pass'); mysql_select_db('test'); $query = "SELECT stock_price FROM stockprices WHERE stock_symbol = '$symbol'"; $result = mysql_query($query); $row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result); echo $row['stock_price']; } $a=require('lib/nusoap.php'); $server = new soap_server(); $server->configureWSDL('stockserver', 'urn:stockquote'); $server->register("getStockQuote", array('symbol' => 'xsd:string'), array('return' => 'xsd:decimal'), 'urn:stockquote', 'urn:stockquote#getStockQuote'); $HTTP_RAW_POST_DATA = isset($HTTP_RAW_POST_DATA) ? $HTTP_RAW_POST_DATA : ''; $server->service($HTTP_RAW_POST_DATA); ?> The client has the following code: <?php require_once('lib/nusoap.php'); $c = new soapclientNusoap('http://localhost/stockserver.php?wsdl'); $stockprice = $c->call('getStockQuote', array('symbol' => 'ABC')); echo "The stock price for 'ABC' is $stockprice."; ?> The database was created using the code below: CREATE TABLE `stockprices` ( `stock_id` INT UNSIGNED NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , `stock_symbol` CHAR( 3 ) NOT NULL , `stock_price` DECIMAL(8,2) NOT NULL , PRIMARY KEY ( `stock_id` ) ); INSERT INTO `stockprices` VALUES (1, 'ABC', '75.00'); INSERT INTO `stockprices` VALUES (2, 'DEF', '45.00'); INSERT INTO `stockprices` VALUES (3, 'GHI', '12.00'); INSERT INTO `stockprices` VALUES (4, 'JKL', '34.00'); When I run the client the result I get is this: The stock price for 'ABC' is . 75.00 is not being printed as the price.

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  • Loading user controls programatically into a placeholder (asp.net(vb))

    - by Phil
    In my .aspx page I have; <%@ Page Language="VB" AutoEventWireup="false" CodeFile="Default.aspx.vb" Inherits="_Default" AspCompat="True" %> <%@ Register src="Modules/Content.ascx" tagname="Content" tagprefix="uc1" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:PlaceHolder ID="Modulecontainer" runat="server"></asp:PlaceHolder> </div> </form> </body> </html> In my aspx.vb I have; Try Dim loadmodule As Control loadmodule = Me.LoadControl("~/modules/content.ascx") Modulecontainer.Controls.Add(loadmodule) Catch ex As Exception Response.Write(ex.ToString & "<br />") End Try The result is an empty placeholder and no errors. Thanks a lot for any assistance

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  • ASP.NET MVC2 DataAnnotations not catching error

    - by Paul Connolly
    Can somebody help me to figure out why DataAnnotations will not work with my MVC2 project in VS 2008 SP1? Here's the situation.. I uninstalled VS2008 and MVC1, then reinstalled VS2008 SP1 and .NET 3.5 SP1 and MVC2. Now when I create a clean project as soon as it has to hit the DataAnnotations Dll (e.g. say when I go to Register.aspx it fails at the first "LabelFor" that it encounters. I can overcome this by changing the "Copy Local" property of the dll to True but this then creates a conflict with the same dll in the Tests project. If then I delete the test project and try agan, it runs but does not catch any validation failures. I have gone right back to basics and followed the step by step ScottGu Datavalidation tutorial at : http://weblogs.asp.net/scottgu/archive/2010/01/15/asp-net-mvc-2-model-validation.aspx And at the "Et viola" bit where we usually go "Whoa! cool!" I say "It never caught!". Any Ideas?

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  • Linux RFID reader HID Device not matching driver

    - by blietaer
    Hello, I got a RFID reader (GigaTek PCR330A-00) that is meant to be recognized under linux/windows as a (Human Interface Device) keyboard/USB. I hate to say this but it is working as a charm under Win7 but not "really" under Linux. Under Debian-like distros (x/k/Ubuntu, Debian,..), or Gentoo, or... I just can't have the device working at all: the device scan well (it has its USB 5V, so it is happy/beeping/blinking) something happened in the dmesg, but no immediate screen display of the RFID Tag code as expected (and seen under win7) Support is claiming it is ok under RHEL or SLED "enterprises" distros... and I must admit I saw it working under a RHEL4... I tried stealing the driver but did not succeed having my reader working... My question is thus double: 1./ How can I hack the kernel to add support to my device (simply register PID/VID?) ? 2./ What is different at all in a "enterprise" proprietary distro? how can I re-use it? Thank you for any hint/help. Cheers,

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  • How do I implement repository pattern and unit of work when dealing with multiple data stores?

    - by Jason
    I have a unique situation where I am building a DDD based system that needs to access both Active Directory and a SQL database as persistence. Initially this wasnt a problem because our design was setup where we had a unit of work that looked like this: public interface IUnitOfWork { void BeginTransaction() void Commit() } and our repositories looked like this: public interface IRepository<T> { T GetByID() void Save(T entity) void Delete(T entity) } In this setup our load and save would handle the mapping between both data stores because we wrote it ourselves. The unit of work would handle transactions and would contain the Linq To SQL data context that the repositories would use for persistence. The active directory part was handled by a domain service implemented in infrastructure and consumed by the repositories in each Save() method. Save() was responsible with interacting with the data context to do all the database operations. Now we are trying to adapt it to entity framework and take advantage of POCO. Ideally we would not need the Save() method because the domain objects are being tracked by the object context and we would just need to add a Save() method on the unit of work to have the object context save the changes, and a way to register new objects with the context. The new proposed design looks more like this: public interface IUnitOfWork { void BeginTransaction() void Save() void Commit() } public interface IRepository<T> { T GetByID() void Add(T entity) void Delete(T entity) } This solves the data access problem with entity framework, but does not solve the problem with our active directory integration. Before, it was in the Save() method on the repository, but now it has no home. The unit of work knows nothing other than the entity framework data context. Where should this logic go? I argue this design only works if you only have one data store using entity framework. Any ideas how to best approach this issue? Where should I put this logic?

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  • EPIPE blocks server

    - by timn
    I have written a single-threaded asynchronous server in C running on Linux: The socket is non-blocking and as for polling, I am using epoll. Benchmarks show that the server performs fine and according to Valgrind, there are no memory leaks or other problems. The only problem is that when a write() command is interrupted (because the client closed the connection), the server will encounter a SIGPIPE. I am doing the interrupted artifically by running the benchmarking utility "siege" with the parameter -b. It does lots of requests in a row which all work perfectly. Now I press CTRL-C and restart the "siege". Sometimes I am lucky and the server does not manage to send the full response because the client's fd is invalid. As expected errno is set to EPIPE. I handle this situation, execute close() on the fd and then free the memory related to the connection. Now the problem is that the server blocks and does not answer properly anymore. Here is the strace output: accept(3, {sa_family=AF_INET, sin_port=htons(50611), sin_addr=inet_addr("127.0.0.1")}, [16]) = 5 fcntl64(5, F_GETFD) = 0 fcntl64(5, F_SETFL, O_RDONLY|O_NONBLOCK) = 0 epoll_ctl(4, EPOLL_CTL_ADD, 5, {EPOLLIN|EPOLLERR|EPOLLHUP|EPOLLET, {u32=158310248, u64=158310248}}) = 0 epoll_wait(4, {{EPOLLIN, {u32=158310248, u64=158310248}}}, 128, -1) = 1 read(5, "GET /user/register HTTP/1.1\r\nHos"..., 4096) = 161 write(5, "HTTP/1.1 200 OK\r\nContent-Type: t"..., 106) = 106 <<<<< write(5, "00001000\r\n", 10) = -1 EPIPE (Broken pipe) <<<<< Why did the previous write() work fine but not this one? --- SIGPIPE (Broken pipe) @ 0 (0) --- As you can see, the client establishes a new connection which consequently is accepted. Then, it's added to the EPOLL queue. epoll_wait() signalises that the client sent data (EPOLLIN). The request is parsed and and a response is composed. Sending the headers works fine but when it comes to the body, write() results in an EPIPE. It is not a bug in "siege" because it blocks any incoming connections, no matter from which client.

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  • Getting proper indentation using XMLBuilder in a helper

    - by Robbie
    I'm attempting to use a view helper to create some dynamic links based on if you're logged in or not. What I want returned, for sake of easy code readability, is: <ul class="right"> <li><a href="#">Login</a></li> <li><a href="#">Register</a></li> </ul> In the view helper I have this Ruby code: def loginh xm = Builder::XmlMarkup.new(:indent=>2, :margin=>4) xm.ul("class" => "right") { xm.li('class' => 'text') { xm.text("test") } } end In the view, the line that calls login helper is already indented 4 levels. Because of this, the first line gets 'skewed', so in the view I have: <%= loginh %> Which results in: <ul class="right"> <li class="text"> <text>test</text> </li> </ul> You can see it works perfectly, except for the first line. It would appear that the first line is affected by the indent before <%= loginh % is called. I can easily remedy this by removing the indentation prior to <%= loginh % - but in essence I'd be sacrificing code readability for markup readability. Which isn't what I'm looking to do. Is there any way I could remove the beginning whitespace?

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  • How to preload images using jquery for carousel?

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    I used jquery stepcarousel plugin and it works fine... But how to preload images that is used by the plugin... I am using this, <div id="mygallery" class="stepcarousel"> <div class="belt"> <div class="panel"> <img src="Images/img1.jpg" /> </div> <div class="panel"> <img src="Images/img2.jpg" /> </div> </div> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> stepcarousel.setup({ galleryid: 'mygallery', //id of carousel DIV beltclass: 'belt', //class of inner "belt" DIV containing all the panel DIVs panelclass: 'panel', //class of panel DIVs each holding content autostep: { enable: true, moveby: 1, pause: 3000 }, panelbehavior: { speed: 500, wraparound: false, persist: true }, defaultbuttons: { enable: true, moveby: 1, leftnav: ['Images/lft_arrow.jpg', -5, 220], rightnav: ['Images/rit_arrow.jpg', -5, 220] }, statusvars: ['statusA', 'statusB', 'statusC'], //register 3 variables that contain current panel (start), current panel (last), and total panels contenttype: ['inline'] //content setting ['inline'] or ['ajax', 'path_to_external_file'] }) </script> How to preload images used by mygallery div such that i can avoid flickering.....

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  • jQuery and XHTML layout problems in ie7

    - by abysslogic
    Hi there, I am back again with more layout problems on my up and coming website. I am able to achieve the proper animation, positioning and results with my layout / splash on every modern browser (excluding ie7 or older). I have an image in the center of the page, that is text-align: center'd, and pushed to a vertical center by having a div (#SPLASH_HEAD) set to 50% on the top half of the page. The loading animation changes the height of #SPLASH_HEAD to 0px, to drag the image to the top (and then do other things). In ie7 (or compatability mode), it appears that there is an error in jquery-1.4.2.min.js, line 116 char 165 (which I dont think has anything to do with the actual jQuery file itself). The splash is not centered either vertically (#SPLASH_HEAD does not register at 50% of window height) and is not centered properly with margin-left. Also, none of the other elements are hidden properly (with .hide()) as ie7 does not appear to be loading all of my jQuery / javascript. heres a link: www.voidsync.com/test (it would be easier to view the source on there) thanks!

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  • Google's Oauth for Installed apps vs. Oauth for Web Apps

    - by burgerguy
    So I'm having trouble understanding something... If you do Oauth for Web Apps, you register your site with a callback URL and get a unique consumer secret key. But once you've obtained an Oauth for Web Apps token, you don't have to generate Oauth calls to the google server from your registered domain. I regularly use my key and token from scripts running via an apache server at localhost on my laptop and Google never says "you're not sending this request from the registered domain." It just sends me the data. Now, as I understand it, if you do Oauth for Installed Apps, you use "anonymous" instead of a secret key you got from Google. I've been thinking of just using the OAuth for Web Apps auth method, then passing that token to an installed app that has my secret code embedded in its innards. The worry is that the code could be discovered by bad people. But what's more secure... making them work for the secret code or letting them default to anonymous? What really goes bad if the "secret" is discovered when the alternative is using "anonymous" as the secret?

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  • TemplateField button causing GridView Invalid Postback

    - by Carter
    Ok, so I've got a template field in a gridview that contains just a simple button... <asp:GridView ID="KeywordsGridView" AllowPaging="false" AutoGenerateColumns="false" BackColor="white" GridLines="None" HeaderStyle-CssClass="Table_Header" RowStyle-CssClass="Table_Style" runat="server"> <Columns> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Button runat="server" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:BoundField DataField="References" SortExpression="References" HeaderText="Total References" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="Keyword" SortExpression="Keyword" HeaderText="Keyword" /> </Columns> </asp:GridView> Whenever I click the button I get the error... Invalid postback or callback argument. Event validation is enabled using <pages enableEventValidation="true"/> in configuration or <%@ Page EnableEventValidation="true" %> in a page. For security purposes, this feature verifies that arguments to postback or callback events originate from the server control that originally rendered them. If the data is valid and expected, use the ClientScriptManager.RegisterForEventValidation method in order to register the postback or callback data for validation. I've found a decent amount of articles referencing this issue, including a couple on SO, for example... http://stackoverflow.com/questions/228969/asp-net-invalid-postback-or-callback-argument-event-validation-is-enabled-usi and... http://stackoverflow.com/questions/103560/invalid-postback-or-callback-argument I might just be misunderstanding, but as far as I can tell they don't really help me. How do I get this to go away without setting enableEventValidation="false"?

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  • jQuery capture all changes to named inpt on a form

    - by Brian M. Hunt
    I'm trying to determine when any of a set of named input/select/radio/checked/hidden fields in a form change. In particular, I'd like to capture when any changes are made to fields matching jQuery's selector $("form :input"), and where that input is has a name attribute. However, the form isn't static i.e. some of the fields are dynamically added later. My initial thought is to keep track of when new named elements matching :input are added, and then add an event handler, like this: function on_change() { alert("The form element with name " + $(this).attr("name") + " has changed"); } function reg_new_e_handler(input_element) { input_element.change(on_change); } However, I'm quite hopeful I can avoid this with some jQuery magic. In particular, is there a way to register an event handler in jQuery that would handle input elements that match the following: $("form :input").filter( function () { $(this).attr("name") } ).change(on_change); However, have this event set update whenever new input elements are added. I've thought that it may be possible to capture keyup event on the form node with $("form").keyup(on_change), but I'm not so sure how one could capture change events. I'd also like this to capture keyup events. Thank you for reading. Brian

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