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  • JQuery, JSF and a4j:commandLink

    - by JQueryNeeded
    Hello ppl, I have a problem with using jQuery Dialog and Ajax submit in JSF. I have the following code for displaying Dialog windows: <script type="text/javascript"> jQuery(function(){ // Dialog jQuery('#dialog').dialog({ dialogClass: 'alert', autoOpen: false, width: 300, height: 150, modal: true, resizable: false, overlay: { backgroundColor: '#000', opacity: 0.5 }, buttons: { "Ok": function() { jQuery(this).dialog("close"); return true; }, "Cancel": function() { jQuery(this).dialog("close"); return false; } } }); // Dialog Link jQuery('#dialog_link').click(function(){ jQuery('#dialog').dialog('open'); return false; }) .hover( function() { jQuery(this).addClass('ui-hover-state'); }, function() { jQuery(this).removeClass('ui-hover-state'); } ); }); </script> It works as it should - it displays box when link is clicked. Now, I have something like this, for deleting something: <a4j:commandLink actionListener="#some.action" reRender="something" onclick="if(!jQuery('#dialog').dialog('open')){return false}" ok, this commandLink is rendered as follows: <a href="#" id="some:long:id:j_id338" name="formName:something:j_id338" onclick="if(!jQuery('#dialog').dialog('open')){return false};A4J.AJAX.Submit('something:something'); return false;" >drop</a> now, after displaying the dialog box, the A4j.AJAX.Submit(..) is executed, is there anyway, that I can for example, pass the whole A4J.AJAX.Submit(...) to "dialog" and execute it from "ok" option? I simply need to execute submit if and only if user clicks OK. Thank you for help JQ

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  • Flash CS3 -- tahoma text loading differently than on client's computer.

    - by codemonkey613
    A client has sent me a Flash CS3 website template she was working on. I'm supposed to do some work on it. When I load it, it displays incorrectly. The body type appears incorrectly. It's different then what it appears on her computer. Causing all the body text to overlap each other. She has Windows Vista with Flash CS3. I'm using Windows XP Professional with Flash CS4. When I open the file, it says that 'tahoma' font is missing on my computer. And asks me to select a replacement. Obviously, I have Tahoma on my computer -- everyone does. I even got her to send her version of Tahoma to me from her Windows Font Folder. When I tried to install it, it says "font already installed". So, I pointed it to my Tahoma font as a replacement. This could be the problem. But why does it not recognize my version of tahoma? Anyone know what's going on, or how I can fix it? I'm supposed to be working on this website, but can't proceed because I might be wasting time if it doesn't match up.

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  • .htaccess - RewriteRules working, but browser address bar displaying full (unfriendly) URL

    - by axol
    Hey there, Haven't been able to find a solution to this around the net or these forums - apologise if I've missed something! My .htaccess RewriteRules are working well - have search-engine and user -friendly links in my web pages, and unfriendly database URLs running hidden in the background. Except when I added a RewriteRule to add "www." to the front of URLs if the user didn't enter it - to ensure only one appears in search engines. Here's what now happening, and I can't figure out why! My friendly URL structure for content is like this, and the database query string uses the first "importantword": www.example.com/importantword-nonimportantword/ .htaccess snippet: Options +FollowSymLinks Options -Indexes RewriteEngine on RewriteOptions MaxRedirects=10 RewriteBase / RewriteRule ^/$ index.php [L] RewriteRule ^(.*)-(.*)/overview/$ detail.php?categoryID=$1 [L] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^www.example.com$ RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://www.example.com/$1 [L] What's happening since I added the last 2 lines: CASE 1: user types (or clicks) www.example.com/honda-vehicle/overview/ - Works correctly - They are taken to the correct page and the browser URL bar says: www.example.com/honda-vehicles/overview/ CASE 2: user types example.com - Works correctly - They are taken to www.example.com and the browser URL bar says: www.example.com CASE 3: user types (or clicks) example.com/honda-vehicles/overview/ i.e. without the prefix "www" - Does NOT work correctly - They are taken to the right page, but the browser URL bar displays the unfriendly URL: www.example.com/detail.php?categoryID=honda I figure there's some issue with the order of the RewriteRules, but it's doing my head in trying to logically step through it and figure it out! Any assistance at all or pointers would be most appreciated!

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  • Using android.view.SurfaceView with a camera on part of the screen

    - by oneself
    Hi, I trying to put together an Android app that will take a picture and process it in some way. I'd like the layout to be similar to Google Goggles. Meaning, camera preview on the top, and some controls on the bottom using portrait orientation. I've built a first version using code sample from here. This works, but I want to add a button on the bottom. I've modified my main.xml to look as follows: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <TableLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="150dp" android:stretchColumns="1"> <TableRow> <android.view.SurfaceView xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:id="@+id/preview" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" /> </TableRow> <Button android:id="@+id/snap" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="Snap" /> <TableRow> </TableRow> </TableLayout> But when I run this code I get an exception: java.lang.RuntimeException: startPreview failed. When I replace the SurfaceView above with something else, e.g. a TextView, that it displays, but in landscape. How can I get a camera preview on part of the screen using portrait view? Thanks

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  • iPhone/iPod receive messages from C# tcpip server using CocoaAsyncSocket

    - by SorinA.
    Hello, i'm trying to send/receive data over wifi to an iphone/ipodtouch app from a C# tcpip server. for this i used cocoaAsyncSocket from the google project. If i push a button and i send a request from ipod to server it returns the requested data(song title for example)..i want to know every second what song is playng...so from C# server i send at intervals of 1 second messages to my app. In my app in an timer with the interval of 1 second i call the asyncSocket read readDataWithTimeout method. My problem is that after 8-9 seconds that method is not called anymore. The connection to the server is still active and the C# server still sends data.. what i want to do is the following thing: - winamp plays a song - C# server asks winamp what songs is he playing and sends the song title to my app. - iphone app receives the data and displays it i don't know why the readDataWithTimeout method is not called anymore after a short period of time..Maybe because the short time between messages sent by the C# server? Thank you, Sorin

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  • SSRS 2008: is it possible to make a report parameter NOT query-based for some linked report?

    - by Stefan Mohr
    I suspect the answer is no, but here goes.. I'm using the WebForms Report Viewer on a public-facing website to allow users to report on themselves or their users (if the user is an admin user). A report has a parameter called Users where an admin can pick a user from the list and generate a report from it. Mundane users can also view this report, but I programmatically create a linked report for each user and set the UserID value to their ID so they can only view themselves. This works well except that the UserID parameter is query-based, and not every user is visible in the list using default settings (the user list is based off date range parameters can provide, and only users we consider 'active' during the date range are visible). This is blowing up for mundane users that are not active for the default date range (which is the previous month). I suspect the flow of execution is something like this: Report loads with default parameters The linked report rules are now applied and the value of the UserID is overridden with the ID in the linked report UserID field is now hidden to prevent the user from changing it SSRS can't find the UserID default value in the query results (that I didn't even want it to run) so it displays an error The 'UserID' parameter is missing a value Through some testing I've found a perfect correlation between users not inside the default date range and users who can't view the report. Can anyone suggest a way to make the report usable for those users that aren't in the default list? The reports are created programmatically so I do have a fair bit of control over the situation. I would love to simply be able to mark a parameter in a linked report as no longer being query-based, but those properties are all read-only. I really, really don't want to have to create duplicate reports to accommodate these users but I'm at a bit of a loss right now. Any suggestions are greatly appreciated!

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  • Using nested error wrappers with jQuery validate plugin

    - by RyOnLife
    I am using the jQuery validate plugin. My error labels are styled like tooltips and take many levels of nested divs in order to create. The plugin has a wrapper option that allows for an element type to be specified as a wrapper for the error message, but it's only wrapped once. Is anyone familiar with how to do nested wrapping? This isn't my exact markup, but as an example: <div class="tooltip"> <div> <div> <span class="error">This field is required.</span> </div> </div> </div> * UPDATE * The response from Chris answers my original question, but creates a new problem. The errors are now being displayed as desired, but the plugin fails to clear them. When a failed validation passes, span.error is set to display:none, but the div.tooltip nested wrapper still displays.

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  • ASP.NET MVC Page - hyper links in HTML.ValidationSummary

    - by Rita
    Hi I have Registration page and if the validation fails, it displays the error messages using HTML.ValidationSummary control. Now i have to display the Hyperlink in that Validation Error Message. But it is treating href also as string. The Validation Message that I am trying to display with hyperlink is: **"User already exists in the system, please <a href='../Login.aspx'>login</a>"** Appreciate your responses. Here is my Code: <% using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> <%= Html.ValidationSummary(false) %> <fieldset> <div class="cssform">; <p> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.email)%><em>*</em> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.email, new { @class = "required email" })%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.email)%> </p> <p> <%= Html.Label("Confirm email")%><em>*</em> <%= Html.TextBox("confirm_email")%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("confirm_email") %> </p> <p> <%= Html.Label("Password")%><em>*</em> <%= Html.Password("Password", null, new { @class = "required" })%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("Password")%><br /> (Note: Password should be minimum 6 characters) </p> <p> <%= Html.Label("Confirm Password")%><em>*</em> <%= Html.Password("confirm_password")%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("confirm_password") %> </p><hr /> <% } %

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  • No Program Entry Point TASM Error

    - by Nathan Campos
    I'm trying to develop a simple kernel using TASM, using this code: ; beroset.asm ; ; This is a primitive operating system. ; ;********************************************************************** code segment para public use16 '_CODE' .386 assume cs:code, ds:code, es:code, ss:code org 0 Start: mov ax,cs mov ds,ax mov es,ax mov si,offset err_msg call DisplayMsg spin: jmp spin ;**************************************************************************** ; DisplayMsg ; ; displays the ASCIIZ message to the screen using int 10h calls ; ; Entry: ; ds:si ==> ASCII string ; ; Exit: ; ; Destroyed: ; none ; ; ;**************************************************************************** DisplayMsg proc push ax bx si cld nextchar: lodsb or al,al jz alldone mov bx,0007h mov ah,0eh int 10h jmp nextchar alldone: pop si bx ax ret DisplayMsg endp err_msg db "Operating system found and loaded.",0 code ends END Then I compile it like this: C:\DOCUME~1\Nathan\Desktop tasm /la /m2 beroset.asm Turbo Assembler Version 4.1 Copyright (c) 1988, 1996 Borland International Assembling file: beroset.asm Error messages: None Warning messages: None Passes: 2 Remaining memory: 406k C:\DOCUME~1\Nathan\Desktop tlink beroset, loader.bin Turbo Link Version 7.1.30.1. Copyright (c) 1987, 1996 Borland International Fatal: No program entry point C:\DOCUME~1\Nathan\Desktop What can I to correct this error?

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  • Some JPEG images are not working in IE

    - by jwandborg
    Hello, I have a press archive. The press archive displays automattically created thumbnails as links to a PDF document. This is what i get in IE 6, 7 & 8: While it works fine in Chrome: The thumbnails are automatically created by imagemagick: $cmd = 'convert ' . $_FILES['file']['tmp_name'] # This is a PDF file . '[0]' # This indicates that it the first page that should be converted . ' -resize "120x120" ' # This is the size of the thumbnail . $thumb_path; # This is the destination $resize_output = exec($cmd); A command can look like this convert /tmp/AcXDYe[0] -resize "120x120>" /var/www[...] However I looked a little closer on the images and it seems that they are a little different and this is a theme among all the failing images Image that does'nt work in IE: http://regex.info/exif.cgi?url=http://bit.ly/aFTL3T Image that works fine: http://regex.info/exif.cgi?url=http://bit.ly/b71B7R So, can i change my imagemagick command so that creates IE-compatible JPEGS?

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  • CSS positioning is weird when reducing the viewport

    - by Lars Hanke
    I have a little meditation for you ... I run a site using a liquid tri-col layout with a header. The layout runs nicely since more than a decade with all browsers I ever dared to try. It is based on absolute positioning in CSS. This page provides an example of the actual site. Watching the page from my tablet I found that the right column overlaps the center matter. Further investigation using Firebug showed that once the center content reaches 360px width, the right margin of the div shrinks. Why is that? Since Firefox and Android render the same, I guess that this is something, which is actually supposed to be. However, I tried to make virtue out of necessity and experimented setting min-width for body and content and made the body scroll overflow. The body actually scrolls, but the right column is positioned on the right edge of the viewport instead of the body element (Firefox). Is this intentional CSS standard? Any ideas how to solve the presentation on small displays? Thanks for your efforts,  – lars.

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  • iPhone Device 3.1 SDK Breaks vertical alignment of UITableViewCellStyleValue1 textLabel

    - by user171089
    Can anyone provide an explanation for the following phenomenon? As of the iPhone Device 3.1 SDK, I've found that if a UITableViewCell is of style UITableViewCellStyleValue1 and its detailTextLabel.text is unassigned, then the textLabel does not display in the center of the cell as would be expected. One notable caveat is that this only happens for me when I'm testing on the Device – the iPhone Simulator 3.1 SDK displays the cells correctly. Also, this is not a problem when using the iPhone Device 3.0 SDK. Below is a simple UITableView subclass implementation that demonstrates the problem. @implementation BuggyTableViewController #pragma mark Table view methods // Customize the number of rows in the table view. - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { return 3; } // Customize the appearance of table view cells. - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleValue1 reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } switch (indexPath.row) { case 0: cell.textLabel.text = @"detailTextLabel.text unassigned"; break; case 1: cell.textLabel.text = @"detailTextLabel.text = @\"\""; cell.detailTextLabel.text = @""; break; case 2: cell.textLabel.text = @"detailTextLabel.text = @\"A\""; cell.detailTextLabel.text = @"A"; break; default: break; } return cell; } @end

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  • Is Rails Metal (& Rack) a good way to implement a high traffic web service api?

    - by Greg
    I am working on a very typical web application. The main component of the user experience is a widget that a site owner would install on their front page. Every time their front page loads, the widget talks to our server and displays some of the data that returns. So there are two components to this web application: the front end UI that the site owner uses to configure their widget the back end component that responds to the widget's web api call Previously we had all of this running in PHP. Now we are experimenting with Rails, which is fantastic for #1 (the front end UI). The question is how to do #2, the back serving of widget information, efficiently. Obviously this is much higher load than the front end, since it is called every time the front page loads on one of our clients' websites. I can see two obvious approaches: A. Parallel Stack: Set up a parallel stack that uses something other than rails (e.g. our old PHP-based approach) but accesses the same database as the front end B. Rails Metal: Use Rails Metal/Rack to bypass the Rails routing mechanism, but keep the api call responder within the Rails app My main question: Is Rails/Metal a reasonable approach for something like this? But also... Will the overhead of loading the Rails environment still be too heavy? Is there a way to get even closer to the metal with Rails, bypassing most of the environment? Will Rails/Metal performance approach the perf of a similar task on straight PHP (just looking for ballpark here)? And... Is there a 'C' option that would be much better than both A and B? That is, something before going to the lengths of C code compiled to binary and installed as an nginx or apache module? Thanks in advance for any insights.

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  • Using a UITextView in a UITableViewCell with a UIKeyboard

    - by Luther Baker
    I have a simple UITableView that has two cells. Cell 0:0 consists of a UITextField we'll call the title and Cell 0:1 consists of a UITextView we'll simply call a note. Cell 0:0 (the text field) is a standard size, one row cell. I'm therefore trying to fill the rest of the screen up with Cell 0:1 so I return a larger height for it. This all displays just fine and I'm using most of the iPhone real estate pretty efficiently at this point. Now, when a user wants to edit one of these cells, he need only click in the appropriate textfield or textview. If a user clicks in the textfield of Cell 0:0, all is well and the keyboard slides up from the bottom. My problem occurs when a user clicks into the the textview (Cell 0:1). No matter what I try, the UITableView wants to slide the entire table view up and that generally put the UITextView in Cell 0:1 halfway out of sight. What I want to do is two fold, I'm registered for when the keyboard will appear and in that method, I'd like to shrink the UITextView in Cell 0:1 as well as shrink the UITableViewCell itself so that the keyboard doesn't have to be smart and think it has to slide the UITableViewCell into view. Unfortunately, no matter what I try, the UITableView slides up. I just want the UITableView to stand still and I want the cell to animate up/shorter with the keyboard. It appears that, by the time the keyboard is actually animating into the screen - it is to late to adjust the cell size. The UIKit has already made up it's mind that it is going to scroll the UITableView.

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  • Conversion constructor vs. conversion operator: precedence

    - by GRB
    Reading some questions here on SO about conversion operators and constructors got me thinking about the interaction between them, namely when there is an 'ambiguous' call. Consider the following code: class A; class B { public: B(){} B(const A&) //conversion constructor { cout << "called B's conversion constructor" << endl; } }; class A { public: operator B() //conversion operator { cout << "called A's conversion operator" << endl; return B(); } }; int main() { B b = A(); //what should be called here? apparently, A::operator B() return 0; } The above code displays "called A's conversion operator", meaning that the conversion operator is called as opposed to the constructor. If you remove/comment out the operator B() code from A, the compiler will happily switch over to using the constructor instead (with no other changes to the code). My questions are: Since the compiler doesn't consider B b = A(); to be an ambiguous call, there must be some type of precedence at work here. Where exactly is this precedence established? (a reference/quote from the C++ standard would be appreciated) From an object-oriented philosophical standpoint, is this the way the code should behave? Who knows more about how an A object should become a B object, A or B? According to C++, the answer is A -- is there anything in object-oriented practice that suggests this should be the case? To me personally, it would make sense either way, so I'm interested to know how the choice was made. Thanks in advance

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  • Can I Specify Strings for MySql Table Values?

    - by afterimagedesign
    I have a MySql table that stores the users state and city from a list of states and cities. I specifically coded each state as their two letter shortened version (like WA for Washington and CA for California) and every city has the two letter abbreviation and the city name formated like this: Boulder Colorado would be CO-boulder and Salt Lake City, Utah would be UT-salt-lake-city as to avoid different states with same city name. The PHP inserts the value (UT-salt-lake-city) under the column City, but when I call the variable through PHP, it displays like this: Your location is: UT-salt-lake-city, Utah. To solve this, I've been making this list of variables if ($city == "AL-auburn") { $city = "Auburn"; } else if ($city == "AL-birmingham") { $city = "Birmingham"; } else if ($city == "GA-columbus") { $city = "Columbus"; $state = "Georgia"; } else if ($city == "AL-dothan") { $city = "Dothan"; } else if ($city == "AL-florence") { $city = "Forence"; } else if ($city == "AL-muscle-shoals") { $city = "Muscle Shoals"; } else if ($city == "AL-gadsden-anniston") { $city = "Gadsden Anniston"; } else if ($city == "AL-huntsville") { $city = "Huntsville"; } else if ($city == "AL-decatur") { $city = "Decatur"; } else if ($city == "AL-mobile") { $city = "Mobile"; } else if ($city == "AL-montgomery") { $city = "Montgomery"; } else if ($city == "AL-tuscaloosa") { $city = "Tuscaloosa"; } Is there a way I can shorten this process or at least call it from a separate file so I don't have to copy/paste every time I want to call the location?

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  • Naming of ASP.NET controls inside User Controls with ASP.NET MVC

    - by skb
    I am wondering if there is a way to make ASP.NET controls play nicely with my ASP.NET MVC app. Here is what I am doing. I have an order page which displays info about a single Order object. The page will normally have a bunch of rows of data, each row representing an OrderItem object. Each row is an ASP.NET User Control. On the user control there is a form element with two text boxes (Quantity and Price), and an update button. When I click the update button, I expect the form to post the data for that individual OrderItem row to a controller method and update the OrderItem record in the database. Here is my problem: When the post happens, the framework complains because the fields on the form don't match the parameters on the controller method. Each form field is something like "OrderItem_1$Quantity" or "OrderItem_2$Price" instead of just "Quantity" or "Price" which would match my method parameters. I have been told that I can overcome this by making sure that the IDs of all my controls are unique for the page, but allow the NAMEs to be repeated between different forms, so that if a form for an individual row is posted, the name can be something that will match what is on my controller method. The only problem is that I am using ASP.NET controls for my text boxes (which I REALLY want to continue doing) and I can't find any way to override the name field. There is no Name propery on an ASP.NET control, and even when I try to set it using the Attributes accessor property by saying "control.Attributes["Name"] = "Price";" it just adds another name= attribute to the HTML tag which doesn't work. Does any one know how I can make this work? I really don't like all of the HtmlHelper functions like TextBox and DropDown because I hate having my .aspx be so PHP or ASP like with the <%% tags and everything. Thanks!

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  • Integration test failing through NUnit Gui/Console, but passes through TestDriven in IDE

    - by Cliff
    I am using NHibernate against an Oracle database with the NHibernate.Driver.OracleDataClientDriver driver class. I have an integration test that pulls back expected data properly when executed through the IDE using TestDriven.net. However, when I run the unit test through the NUnit GUI or Console, NHibernate throws an exception saying it cannot find the Oracle.DataAccess assembly. Obviously, this prevents me from running my integration tests as part of my CI process. NHibernate.HibernateException : The IDbCommand and IDbConnection implementation in the assembly Oracle.DataAccess could not be found. Ensure that the assembly Oracle.DataAccess is located in the application directory or in the Global Assembly Cache. If the assembly is in the GAC, use element in the application configuration file to specify the full name of the assembly.* I have tried making the assembly available in two ways, by copying it into the bin\debug folder and by adding the element in the config file. Again, both methods work when executing through TestDriven in the IDE. Neither work when executing through NUnit GUI/Console. The NUnit Gui log displays the following message. 21:42:26,377 ERROR [TestRunnerThread] ReflectHelper [(null)]- Could not load type Oracle.DataAccess.Client.OracleConnection, Oracle.DataAccess. System.BadImageFormatException: Could not load file or assembly 'Oracle.DataAccess, Version=2.111.7.20, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=89b483f429c47342' or one of its dependencies. An attempt was made to load a program with an incorrect format. File name: 'Oracle.DataAccess, Version=2.111.7.20, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=89b483f429c47342' --- System.BadImageFormatException: Could not load file or assembly 'Oracle.DataAccess' or one of its dependencies. An attempt was made to load a program with an incorrect format. File name: 'Oracle.DataAccess' I am running NUnit 2.4.8, TestDriven.net 2.24 and VS2008sp1 on Windows 7 64bit. Oracle Data Provider v2.111.7.20, NHibernate v2.1.0.4. Has anyone run into this issue, better yet, fixed it?

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  • Perf: Viewing thousands of images in Silverlight 3 on a 3D Wall

    - by Bob Holland
    I currently work on a very cool Silverlight app that displays photos in a 3D wall space like the Wall3D demo that is thrown in with Blend 3. The problem I am currently facing is performance. The app works like this: As you scroll right or left the 3d photo wall rotates As each movement is made, the next column of photos are downloaded, decoded into a BitmapImage and thrown into a 3D Wall Node. As you can imagine users (if you let them) will want to flip through the photos really quickly, but the problem I have is I cannot display the photos quick enough. In most cases it's a beautiful app that works really well, but when an album contains over 300 photos, you can imagine the sort of memory taken up by all the BitmapImage classes and how moving the slider can jump from photo 20 to photo 120 in a second. Of course we have algorithms in place to not download every photo in between, but I still can't work out a fast way to get the photos displayed. It may be a case that we need to throw away the 'great for show' 3D wall and go to a flat DeepZoom like wall like the Playboy archive one that Vertigo did. Still not sure, let me know your thoughts. P.S. We are using Kit3D for all the 3D work, it's using PerspectiveCamera, Model3DGroup, ModelVisual3D, RotateTransform3D & TranslateTransform3D. Cheers, Bob.

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  • Binding a DropDownList in ListView InsertItemTemplate throwing an error

    - by Telos
    I've got a ListView which binds to a LinqDataSource and displays selected locations. The insert item Contains a dropdownlist that pulls from another LinqDataSource to give all the unselected locations. The problem is that I get the following error when loading the page: Databinding methods such as Eval(), XPath(), and Bind() can only be used in the context of a databound control. I'm doing a very similar setup in another page of the website, and it isn't giving us this error so I'm pretty confused. I know I can work around this by not binding, manually finding the control and getting the value, but this should work and I don't understand why it isn't. Any thoughts? The better part of the source code is below. <asp:LinqDataSource ID="ldsLocations" runat="server" ContextTypeName="ClearviewInterface.ESLinqDataContext" EnableDelete="true" EnableInsert="true" OnInserting="ldsLocations_Inserting" OnDeleting="ldsLocations_Deleting" TableName="crmLocations" OrderBy="addr1" OnSelecting="ldsLocations_Selecting" /> <asp:LinqDataSource ID="ldsFreeLocations" runat="server" ContextTypeName="ClearviewInterface.ESLinqDataContext" OrderBy="addr1" TableName="v_CVLocations" OnSelecting="ldsFreeLocations_Selecting" /> <asp:ListView ID="lvLocations" DataSourceID="ldsLocations" DataKeyNames="ID" InsertItemPosition="LastItem" runat="server" > <InsertItemTemplate> <tr> <td colspan="6"><hr /></td> </tr> <tr> <td colspan="2"> <asp:DropDownList ID="ddlFreeLocations" DataSourceID="ldsFreeLocations" DataTextField="addr1" DataValueField="record" MarkFirstMatch="true" SelectedValue='<%# Bind("record") %>' runat="server" /> </td> <td><asp:ImageButton ID="btnAdd" CommandName="Insert" SkinID="Insert" runat="server" /></td> </tr> </InsertItemTemplate>

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  • Having trouble with instantiating objects in PHP & Ajax custom shopping cart

    - by Phil
    This is my first time playing with both ajax and objects, so please go easy on me I have 3 pages that make up the tester shopping cart. 1) page with 'add' 'remove' buttons and ajax code to call the PHP functions on page 2. this is the actual user page with the HTML output. 2) page with PHP cart function calls, receives $_GET requests from ajax on page 1 and calls functions of the cart object from page 3, returns results to page 1. 3) page with cart object definition. Here's the problem I believe I'm having. Currently I have 'session_start()' on pgs 1 & 2, and the cart definition (pag 3) on pgs 1 & 2. I only define '$_SESSION[cart]= new Cart' on page 2. However, it seems like each time i hit an ajax function (eg each time pg 2 reloads) it seems like it's rewriting $_SESSION['cart'] over again, thus it's always empty at each new click (even tho it displays results of that click) However, if i don't define '$_SESSION[cart] = new Cart' on pg 2, i get an error: Fatal error: main() [function.main]: The script tried to execute a method or access a property of an incomplete object. Please ensure that the class definition "Cart" of the object you are trying to operate on was loaded before unserialize() gets called or provide a __autoload() function to load the class definition in /home3/foundloc/public_html/booka/carti.php on line 17 Any suggestions? How can i stop re-creating my cart each time my page 2 (php cart function page) is called by ajax?

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  • Slow Performance -- ASP .NET ASPNET_WP.EXE and CSC.EXE Running After Clicking Redirect Link

    - by Dan7el
    I click on a link from one page that does a redirect to another page (Response.Redirect(page.aspx)). The browser churns for about 30 seconds and the page displays. I'm trying to track down why it takes so long to load the page. The page hosts two other custom controls. I have commented out the lines of code for each and both controls, and the page still takes about 30 seconds to load. I've set breakpoints on the Page_Load event for each of the controls as well as page.aspx and it also takes about 30 seconds from clicking the link with the Response.Redirect to the first break point. I loaded up task manager and clicked on the link. I notice aspnet_wp.exe and csc.exe run during this 30 second time frame. I'm wondering if there are some sort of code-behind shinanigans going on while I'm waiting for the page to load. This only occurs the first time I click on the link. Afterwards, it's not as slow. I've googled but there's not a lot of useful information about this. Anyone have any ideas? Thanks, ---Dan---

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  • Is it possible to lightbox many images but only show one image to activate them?

    - by Obay
    Hi, I'm using Lightbox to display photos. So If I have two categories of photos, "work" and "vacation", I would do... <a href="images/image-1.jpg" rel="lightbox[work]">image #1</a> <a href="images/image-2.jpg" rel="lightbox[work]">image #2</a> <a href="images/image-3.jpg" rel="lightbox[work]">image #3</a> <a href="images/image-4.jpg" rel="lightbox[vacation]">image #4</a> <a href="images/image-5.jpg" rel="lightbox[vacation]">image #5</a> <a href="images/image-6.jpg" rel="lightbox[vacation]">image #6</a> This displays 6 images, and when I click one of them, it starts the Lightbox. However, I'd like to be able to display only two images initially (one for 'work', one for 'vacation'), but when one of them is clicked, it behaves like the first example, e.g. display all photos in that category through Lightbox. Is this possible? If so, how? Any help is very much appreciated! :) Thanks

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  • iPad Safari's mapping of mouse events to touch events in image-maps

    - by Tim
    My website makes extensive use of image-maps. The images are of pages from a medieval manuscript. The mouseOver event of the AREA tags has a tooltip attached to it, which displays a modern typographic transcription of the ancient script for the line the mouse is hovering over. I just checked my website out on the iPad at the Apple store. The iPad is many respects a joy to use, however, I am wondering about Apple's mapping of the mouseEvents to the finger-touch events. Apple probably had a good reason for doing things as they did, but their choices seem counterintuitive an overly complicated to me. Specifically, the iPad Safari browser clearly was responding to both fingerDown and fingerTap, and in different ways. When I tapped an area of the image-map, the tooltip wired to the mouse-over event pf the AREA tag was displayed, and remained visible until I tapped somewhere else. When I held my finger down on an area of the image-map, the area changed color. So if iPad Safari detects a mouseOver eventhandler, it executes the mouseOver code and apparently prevents the "click" event from propagating, so that if you also have something wired to the click event, it doesn't work? Is that right? But more importantly, why isn't fingerDown the iPad-Safari counterpart for mouseOver? FingerDown seems a more likely candidate than Tap when mapping the mousePOver event. I would have expected things to be mapped in this way: MouseClick : FingerTap (i.e. finger down and then immediately up) MouseOver : FingerDown (finger down and stays on the spot) If Apple had treated fingerDown as the counterpart to mouseOver, then the tooltip could be displayed upon FingerDown and made invisible again on fingerUp, which would be the counterpart to mouseOut. Perhaps someone could enlighten me about the thinking process that led Apple to these particular mouse-to-touch event-mappings? Thanks

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  • CKEditor instance already exists

    - by jackboberg
    I am using jquery dialogs to present forms (fetched via AJAX). On some forms I am using a CKEditor for the textareas. The editor displays fine on the first load. When the user cancels the dialog, I am removing the contents so that they are loaded fresh on a later request. The issue is, once the dialog is reloaded, the CKEditor claims the editor already exists. uncaught exception: [CKEDITOR.editor] The instance "textarea_name" already exists. The API includes a method for destroying existing editors, and I have seen people claiming this is a solution: if (CKEDITOR.instances['textarea_name']) { CKEDITOR.instances['textarea_name'].destroy(); } CKEDITOR.replace('textarea_name'); This is not working for me, as I receive a new error instead: TypeError: Result of expression 'i.contentWindow' [null] is not an object. This error seems to occur on the "destroy()" rather than the "replace()". Has anyone experienced this and found a different solution? Is is possible to 're-render' the existing editor, rather than destroying and replacing it? UPDATED Here is another question dealing with the same problem, but he has provided a downloadable test case.

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