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  • Serializing java objects with respect to xml schema loaded at runtime

    - by kohomologie
    I call an XML document three-layered if its structure is laid out as following: the root element contains some container elements (I'll call them entities), each of them has some simpleType elements inside (I'll call them properties). Something like that: <data> <spaceship> <number>1024</number> <name>KTHX</name> </spaceship> <spaceship> <number>1624</number> <name>LEXX</name> </spaceship> <knife> <length>10</length> </knife> </data> where spaceship is an entity, and number is a property. My problem is stated below: Given schema: an arbitrary xsd file describing a three-layered document, loaded at runtime. xmlDocument: an xml document conforming to the schema. Create A Map<String, Map <String, Object>> containing data from the xmlDocument, where first key corresponds to entity, second key correponds to this entity's property, and the value corresponds to this property's value, after casting it to a proper java type (for example, if the schema sets the property value to be xs:int, then it should be cast to Integer). What is the easiest way to achieve this result with existing libraries? P. S. JAXB is not really an option here. The schema might be arbitrary and unknown at compile-time. Also I wish to avoid an excessive use of reflection (associated with converting the beans to maps). I'm looking for something that would allow me to make the typecasts while xml is being parsed.

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  • How to achieve "Blendability" when using DataServiceCollection in my ViewModel

    - by andlju
    I'm looking at using oData endpoints in my Silverlight client. Naturally, I'm doing MVVM and I want the project to be nice and "Blendable" (i.e. I must be able to cleanly use static data instead of the oData endpoints when in design mode.) Now to the problem. I'd like to use the DataServiceCollection in my ViewModels, since it allows for nice bindable collections without having to worry too much with BeginExecute/EndExecute etc. Now, let's look at some code. My Model interface looks like this: public interface ITasksModel { IQueryable<Task> Tasks { get; } } The oData endpoint implementation of that interface: public class TasksModel : ITasksModel { Uri svcUri = new Uri("http://localhost:2404/Services/TasksDataService.svc"); TaskModelContainer _container; public TasksModel() { _container = new TaskModelContainer(svcUri); } public IQueryable<Task> Tasks { get { return _container.TaskSet; } } } And the "Blendable" design-time implementation: public class DesignModeTasksModel : ITasksModel { private List<Task> _taskCollection = new List<Task>(); public DesignModeTasksModel() { _taskCollection.Add(new Task() { Id = 1, Title = "Task 1" }); _taskCollection.Add(new Task() { Id = 2, Title = "Task 2" }); _taskCollection.Add(new Task() { Id = 3, Title = "Task 3" }); } public IQueryable<Task> Tasks { get { return _taskCollection.AsQueryable(); } } } However, when I try to use this last one in my ViewModel constructor: public TaskListViewModel(ITasksModel tasksModel) { _tasksModel = tasksModel; _tasks = new DataServiceCollection<Task>(); _tasks.LoadAsync(_tasksModel.Tasks); } I get an exception: Only a typed DataServiceQuery object can be supplied when calling the LoadAsync method on DataServiceCollection. First of all, if this is the case, why not make the input parameter of LoadAsync be typed as DataServiceQuery? Second, what is the "proper" way of doing what I'm trying to accomplish?

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  • GIT repository layout for server with multiple projects

    - by Paul Alexander
    One of the things I like about the way I have Subversion set up is that I can have a single main repository with multiple projects. When I want to work on a project I can check out just that project. Like this \main \ProductA \ProductB \Shared then svn checkout http://.../main/ProductA As a new user to git I want to explore a bit of best practice in the field before committing to a specific workflow. From what I've read so far, git stores everything in a single .git folder at the root of the project tree. So I could do one of two things. Set up a separate project for each Product. Set up a single massive project and store products in sub folders. There are dependencies between the products, so the single massive project seems appropriate. We'll be using a server where all the developers can share their code. I've already got this working over SSH & HTTP and that part I love. However, the repositories in SVN are already many GB in size so dragging around the entire repository on each machine seems like a bad idea - especially since we're billed for excessive network bandwidth. I'd imagine that the Linux kernel project repositories are equally large so there must be a proper way of handling this with Git but I just haven't figured it out yet. Are there any guidelines or best practices for working with very large multi-project repositories?

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  • UISplitViewController and complex view heirarchy

    - by Jasconius
    I'm doing an iPad tech demo and I'm running into a serious technical problem. I have an app concept that leverages UISplitViewController, but NOT as the primary controller for the entire app. The app flow could be described roughly as this: Home screen (UIViewController) List-Detail "Catalog" (UISplitViewController) Super Detail Screen (UIViewController but could conceivable also be a child of SplitView). The problem is in the flow between Home and Catalog. Once a UISplitViewController view is added to the UIWindow, it starts to throw hissy fits. The problem can be summarized at this: When a UISplitView generates a popover view, it appears to then be latched to its parent view. Upon removing the UISplitView from the UIWindow subviews, you will get a CoreGraphics exception and the view will fail to be removed. When adding other views (presumably in this case, the home screen to which you are returning), they do not autorotate, instead, the UISplitView, which has failed to be removed due to a CG exception, continues to respond to the rotation instead, causing horrible rendering bugs that can't be just "dealt with". At this point, adding any views, even re-adding the SplitView, causes a cascade of render bugs. I then tried simply to leave the SplitView ever present as the "bottom" view, and keeping adding and removing the Home Screen from on top of it, but this fails as SplitView dominates the Orientation change calls, and Home Screen will not rotate, even if you call [homeScreen becomeFirstResponder] You can't put SplitView into a hierarchy like UINavigationController, you will get an outright runtime error, so that option is off the table. Modals just look bad and are discourages anyway. My presumption at this moment is that the only proper way to deal with this problem is so somehow "disarm" UISplitViewController so that it can be removed from its parent view without throwing an unhandled exception, but I have no idea how. If you want to see an app that does exactly what I need to do, check out GILT Groupe in the iPad app store. They pulled it off, but they seem to have programmed an entire custom view transition set. Help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • WSDLs generated by Axis2 services can't be read by SoapUI or WSDL2Java

    - by RJCantrell
    I'm converting some services from Apache SOAP to Axis2, so the Java service classes already exist. I created a new project in Eclipse, imported the source, made sure that the Axis2 project facets were installed, and Axis2 emitter properties are correct. Then, in Eclipse, I selected the service class and chose "Create Web Service," choosing the Axis2 runtime. The service is up and running on my PC, and when I append "?wsdl" to the service's path, I do indeed get a WSDL that I save locally. Attempting to import this into SoapUI to build a client gives the error: ERROR:org.apache.xmlbeans.XmlException: C:\projects\soapUI\Axis2\DALService.wsdl:0: error: src-resolve: type 'SOAPException@http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema' not found. The type it's referring to (SOAPException) is a holdover from the Apache SOAP services, and in the service code, I changed all "import" references in the service code (not the WSDL) from org.apache.soap.SOAPException (the old Apache SOAP package name) to javax.xml.soap.SOAPException (the Axis2 location). The code compiles and works, once I can access it, but I can't access it without generating a client. Any thoughts as to why changing the namespace of an object would keep the generated WSDLs from having the proper namespace references?

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  • How can I validate the result in an ASP.NET MVC editor template?

    - by Morten Christiansen
    I have created an editor template for representing selecting from a dynamic dropdown list and it works as it should except for validation, which I have been unable to figure out. If the model has the [Required] attribute set, I want that to invalidate if the default option is selected. The view model object that must be represented as the dropdown list is Selector: public class Selector { public int SelectedId { get; set; } public IEnumerable<Pair<int, string>> Choices { get; private set; } public string DefaultValue { get; set; } public Selector() { //For binding the object on Post } public Selector(IEnumerable<Pair<int, string>> choices, string defaultValue) { DefaultValue = defaultValue; Choices = choices; } } The editor template looks like this: <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl" %> <select class="template-selector" id="<%= ViewData.ModelMetadata.PropertyName %>.SelectedId" name="<%= ViewData.ModelMetadata.PropertyName %>.SelectedId"> <% var model = ViewData.ModelMetadata.Model as QASW.Web.Mvc.Selector; if (model != null) { %> <option><%= model.DefaultValue %></option><% foreach (var choice in model.Choices) { %> <option value="<%= choice.Value1 %>"><%= choice.Value2 %></option><% } } %> </select> I sort of got it to work by calling it from the view like this (where Category is a Selector): <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(n => n.Category.SelectedId)%> But it shows the validation error for not supplying a proper number and it does not care if I set the Required attribute.

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  • How to share session cookies between Internet Explorer and an ActiveX components hosted in a webpage

    - by jerem
    I am currently working on a .Net application which makes HTTP requests to some web applications hosted on a IIS server. The application is deployed through ClickOnce and is working fine on simple networks architectures. One of our customers has a very complex network involving a custom authentication server on which the user has first to log himself in order to be authenticated and get access to other applications on this network. Once authenticated on this server, a session cookie is created and sent to the user. Every time the user then makes a request on a secured server of the network, this cookie is checked to grant access to the user. If this cookie is not sent with the request, the user is redirected to the login page. The only browser used is Internet Explorer. This cookie cannot be accessed from our .net application since it is executed in another process than the Internet Explorer process which was used to log the user in, and thus is not sent with our requests, which cannot be completed since the server redirects every of our requests to the login page. I had a look at embedding my application into Internet Explorer by making the main control COM visible and creating it on an HTML page with an tag. It is working properly, however the sessions cookies set earlier in the browser are not sent when the ActiveX control makes web requests. I was hoping this sharing of the session information would be automatic (although I didn't really believe it). So my questions are : Is it possible to have access to this cookie in the embedded ActiveX? How? Does it make a difference to use a .Net COM-interop component instead of a "true" ActiveX control? Also, are there specific security words to describe this kind of behaviors (given that I am not an expert at all on security topics, this lack of proper terminology makes it a lot harder to find the needed resources)? My goal is to have my application's requests look the same from the requests made by the host browser's requests, and I thought that embedding the application as an ActiveX control into the browser was the only way to achieve this, however any suggestion on another to do this is welcome.

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  • Horizontal page curl in iPhone - I have - But Valid ?

    - by sagar
    Hello ! Every one. I was googling for applying horizontal page curl in iPhone. I also tried this, but it wasn't appropriate for me (To change orientation & work in different ori.). I tried to google more. Finally I got a link or link . From Where, I could Understand the horizontal page curl. But when I went to code deeply, I found some confusing points. Let me list down. Please download attached code - it's not my code. ( I am not selling any code, but Direct project link would be better than placing multiple codes here. ) extern NSString *kCAFilterPageCurl; // From QuartzCore.framework is it valid to use internal variable ? ( as it's mentioned - from QuartzCore ) CAFilter *previousFilter = [[CAFilter filterWithType:kCAFilterPageCurl] retain]; Above statement is giving warning ( not error ) - no '+filterWithType:' method found Might be using internal (apple's private) method. [previousFilter setDefaults]; Above statement is giving warning ( not error ) - no '-setDefaults:' method found Might be using internal (apple's private) method. Now My queries. I have above doubts in the project ( that might be using apple's private methods ). Is this code safe for apple store approval ? If 2's answer is wrong, what should be done for horizontal page curl ? In short, I want a horizontal page curl, But Need your suggestions for having the proper solution, which might not trouble me in future. Thanks in advance for your great help. Sagar.

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  • Convert an exception into HTTP 404 response in the Application_Error

    - by Dmitriy Nagirnyak
    Hi, First of all, quickly what exactly I want to achieve: translate particular exception into the HTTP 404 so the ASP.NET can handle it further. I am handling exceptions in the ASP.NET (MVC2) this way: protected void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { var err = Server.GetLastError(); if (err == null) return; err = err.GetBaseException(); var noObject = err as ObjectNotFoundException; if (noObject != null) HandleObjectNotFound(); var handled = noObject != null; if (!handled) Logger.Fatal("Unhandled exception has occured in application.", err); } private void HandleObjectNotFound() { Server.ClearError(); Response.Clear(); // new HttpExcepton(404, "Not Found"); // Throw or not to throw? Response.StatusCode = 404; Response.StatusDescription = "Not Found"; Response.StatusDescription = "Not Found"; Response.Write("The whole HTML body explaining whata 404 is??"); } The problem is that I cannot configure default customErrors to work with it. When it is on then it never redirects to the page specified in customErrors: <error statusCode="404" redirect="404.html"/>. I also tried to raise new HttpExcepton(404, "Not Found") from the handler but then the response code is 200 which I don't understand why. So the questions are: What is the proper way of translating AnException into HTTP 404 response? How does customErrors section work when handling exceptions in Application_Error? Why throwing HttpException(404) renders (blank) page with success (200) status? Thanks, Dmitriy.

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  • JSF invoke backing bean method and reRender components on ENTER key

    - by Markos Fragkakis
    Hi, I have a datatable with as search fields. I want a method on the backing bean to be invoked when ENTER key is pressed, as well as the DataTable to be re-rendered. My approach so far only works in IE 6, and 7, not in FF. This is the inputText: <h:inputText value="#{applicantProductListBean.applicantNameFilterValue}" id="applicantNameFilterValue" onkeypress="submitByEnter(event)"> </h:inputText> and this is the Javascript method I am invoking: function submitByEnter(e){ if(e.keyCode==13){ // alert("Enter was pressed"); e.returnValue=false; e.cancel=true; document.getElementById("applicantProductListForm:refreshButton").click(); } } As you can see, the Javascript method clicks on the button refresh, which exists on the page: <a4j:commandButton value="Refresh" id="refreshButton" action="#{applicantProductListBean.refreshData}" image="/images/icons/refresh48x48.gif" reRender="table, scroller"> </a4j:commandButton> The refreshData method does not return anything. As said before, this only works in IE 6 and IE 7. Does anyone know why it does not work in FF? An alternative I was considering was HotKey, which can indeed catch the event of ENTER, but it can only invoke Javascript, so it isn't appropriate. Is the proper way to do this via RichFaces or plain JSF? Cheers! UPDATE: Slightly modified the answer by BalusC, the script that works is: if (event.preventDefault) { // Firefox event.preventDefault(); } else { // IE event.returnValue = false; }

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  • cellForRowAtIndexPath not being called on tableView reloadData

    - by BotskoNet
    I have a UITableView on one view that loads in data at the start of the application, and then later when a user enters text into a box and hits a button, I re-query the database, re-populate the original NSMutableArray that stores the data for the table. All of that is working perfectly. In some logging statements I can tell that the array has the correct information, the numberOfRowsInSection method is returning the proper count, and is being called after the reload is called. However, the cellForRowAtIndexPath is never called the second time (after the reload) and the table data is never updated. I've spent hours searching the net and I've found nothing that helps. Can anyone help? All code is at: http://github.com/botskonet/inmyspot The specific reload is being called at: http://github.com/botskonet/inmyspot/blob/master/Classes/InMySpotViewController.m Roughly Line 94 From: http://github.com/botskonet/inmyspot/blob/master/Classes/PlateFormViewController.m Roughly line 101 A bit more info: once the new data has been added to the mutablearray, if I try to start scrolling the table, it eventually dies with: "Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSRangeException', reason: '* -[NSCFArray objectAtIndex:]: index (29) beyond bounds (29)'" Which I assume means the table cells can't find any data in the array to match the scroll position, which seems to be because the array has the new data, but the table doesn't.

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  • How do you construct an array suitable for numpy sorting?

    - by Alex
    I need to sort two arrays simultaneously, or rather I need to sort one of the arrays and bring the corresponding element of its associated array with it as I sort. That is if the array is [(5, 33), (4, 44), (3, 55)] and I sort by the first axis (labeled below dtype='alpha') then I want: [(3.0, 55.0) (4.0, 44.0) (5.0, 33.0)]. These are really big data sets and I need to sort first ( for nlog(n) speed ) before I do some other operations. I don't know how to merge my two separate arrays though in the proper manner to get the sort algorithm working. I think my problem is rather simple. I tried three different methods: import numpy x=numpy.asarray([5,4,3]) y=numpy.asarray([33,44,55]) dtype=[('alpha',float), ('beta',float)] values=numpy.array([(x),(y)]) values=numpy.rollaxis(values,1) #values = numpy.array(values, dtype=dtype) #a=numpy.array(values,dtype=dtype) #q=numpy.sort(a,order='alpha') print "Try 1:\n", values values=numpy.empty((len(x),2)) for n in range (len(x)): values[n][0]=y[n] values[n][1]=x[n] print "Try 2:\n", values #values = numpy.array(values, dtype=dtype) #a=numpy.array(values,dtype=dtype) #q=numpy.sort(a,order='alpha') ### values = [(x[0], y[0]), (x[1],y[1]) , (x[2],y[2])] print "Try 3:\n", values values = numpy.array(values, dtype=dtype) a=numpy.array(values,dtype=dtype) q=numpy.sort(a,order='alpha') print "Result:\n",q I commented out the first and second trys because they create errors, I knew the third one would work because that was mirroring what I saw when I was RTFM. Given the arrays x and y (which are very large, just examples shown) how do I construct the array (called values) that can be called by numpy.sort properly? *** Zip works great, thanks. Bonus question: How can I later unzip the sorted data into two arrays again?

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  • Creating ViewResults outside of Controllers in ASP.NET MVC

    - by Craig Walker
    Several of my controller actions have a standard set of failure-handling behavior. In general, I want to: Load an object based on the Route Data (IDs and the like) If the Route Data does not point to a valid object (ex: through URL hacking) then inform the user of the problem and return an HTTP 404 Not Found Validate that the current user has the proper permissions on the object If the user doesn't have permission, inform the user of the problem and return an HTTP 403 Forbidden If the above is successful, then do something with that object that's action-specific (ie: render it in a view). These steps are so standardized that I want to have reusable code to implement the behavior. My current plan of attack was to have a helper method to do something like this: public static ActionResult HandleMyObject(this Controller controller, Func<MyObject,ActionResult> onSuccess) { var myObject = MyObject.LoadFrom(controller.RouteData). if ( myObject == null ) return NotFound(controller); if ( myObject.IsNotAllowed(controller.User)) return NotAllowed(controller); return onSuccess(myObject); } # NotAllowed() is pretty much the same as this public static NotFound(Controller controller){ controller.HttpContext.Response.StatusCode = 404 # NotFound.aspx is a shared view. ViewResult result = controller.View("NotFound"); return result; } The problem here is that Controller.View() is a protected method and so is not accessible from a helper. I've looked at creating a new ViewResult instance explicitly, but there's enough properties to set that I'm wary about doing so without knowing the pitfalls first. What's the best way to create a ViewResult from outside a particular Controller?

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  • Personal projects competing with employers projects?

    - by jamesorwood123
    Recently at my place of employment it was discovered that I was developing an outside personal project (personal project being a project I have been working on, in my spare time, for my own purposes, using my personal equipment). My employer has an idea which is very similar to my outside project but has not been started, created, put out to market yet. When I originally started working for the company I signed a non-compete contract. My employer is now saying that because my outside/personal project is similar to theirs that I am now a competitor and breaching my original non-compete agreement. What I would like to know is where do I stand in this situation? Also my personal project has not been fully developed, nor is available to anyone other than myself. So if we both don’t have full/released products (full meaning put out to the public) are we actually competitors? There is going to be a meeting in the coming weeks to discuss this issue and would like to have a proper argument in place. I know some of this conversation is best held with a lawyer but I don’t have the money to do that yet. I’m not looking for full legal advice just anyone who has maybe experienced this or can give any advice. Thanks in advance!

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  • Using UIScreen to drive a VGA display - doesn't seem to show the UIWindow?

    - by Peter Hajas
    HI there, I'm trying to use UIScreen to drive a separate screen with the VGA dongle on my iPad. Here's what I've got in my root view controller's viewDidLoad: //Code to detect if an external display is connected to the iPad. NSLog(@"Number of screens: %d", [[UIScreen screens]count]); //Now, if there's an external screen, we need to find its modes, itereate through them and find the highest one. Once we have that mode, break out, and set the UIWindow. if([[UIScreen screens]count] > 1) //if there are more than 1 screens connected to the device { CGSize max; UIScreenMode *maxScreenMode; for(int i = 0; i < [[[[UIScreen screens] objectAtIndex:1] availableModes]count]; i++) { UIScreenMode *current = [[[[UIScreen screens]objectAtIndex:1]availableModes]objectAtIndex:i]; if(current.size.width > max.width); { max = current.size; maxScreenMode = current; } } //Now we have the highest mode. Turn the external display to use that mode. UIScreen *external = [[UIScreen screens] objectAtIndex:1]; external.currentMode = maxScreenMode; //Boom! Now the external display is set to the proper mode. We need to now set the screen of a new UIWindow to the external screen external_disp = [externalDisplay alloc]; external_disp.drawImage = drawViewController.drawImage; UIWindow *newwindow = [UIWindow alloc]; [newwindow addSubview:external_disp.view]; newwindow.screen = external; }

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  • Gmagick extension for php install -- how and where?

    - by Vivek Chandra
    Downloaded php-pear and tried installing gmagick extension by following the steps given in link "http://www.gerd-riesselmann.net/development/how-install-imagick-and-gmagick-ubuntu" The pecl gave an error -- gmagick-1.0.9b1$ pecl install gmagick Failed to download pecl/gmagick within preferred state "stable", latest release is version 1.0.9b1, stability "beta", use "channel://pecl.php.net/gmagick-1.0.9b1" to install install failed Tried adding the channel (no result)-- gmagick-1.0.9b1$ pecl channel-add http://pecl.php.net/package/gmagick/1.0.9b1 Error: No version number found in tag channel-add: invalid channel.xml file Found the link "http://pecl.php.net/package/gmagick" to download the php extension untar'd it to find the following files -- gmagick-1.0.9b1$ ls config.m4 gmagickdraw_methods.c gmagick_methods.c LICENSE php_gmagick_helpers.h README gmagick.c gmagick_helpers.c gmagickpixel_methods.c php_gmagick.h php_gmagick_macros.h Tried . / config.m4 only to find more errors gmagick-1.0.9b1$ . / config.m4 ./config.m4: line 1: syntax error near unexpected token `gmagick,' ./config.m4: line 1: `PHP_ARG_WITH(gmagick, whether to enable the gmagick extension,' Been at this since a day with no result.Read that gmagick is a swiss knife of image processing,sad that there isnt much documentation done on it or at least a proper how to install link anywhere. Badly need help. Thanks in advance.

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  • Android: SharedPreference: Defaults not set at startup...

    - by Allan
    I have Listpreferences in my app. They don't appear to be setting to their defaults right after installation - they appear to be null. I'm trying to figure out why my default preferences are not being set right after installation. In my main code I have: SharedPreferences sp = PreferenceManager.getDefaultSharedPreferences(this); InUnits = sp.getString("List1", "defValue"); InAngs = sp.getString("List2", "defValue"); OutUnits = sp.getString("List3", "defValue"); OutAngs = sp.getString("List4", "defValue"); Right after the above code executes, each variable contains "defValue" instead of the actual values I have assigned in my ListPreference below. My preference xml file is called, "settings.xml". Here's what one of the ListPreferences there looks like: <ListPreference android:key="List1" android:title="Input: Alph" android:summary="Choose Alph or Ralph" android:entries="@array/inputAlph" android:entryValues="@array/input_Alph_codes" android:dialogTitle="Input Alph" android:defaultValue="ININ"/> Here's what some of my strings.xml file looks like: <string-array name="inputUnits"> <item>Alph</item> <item>Ralph</item> </string-array> <string-array name="input_Alph_codes"> <item>ININ</item> <item>INMM</item> </string-array> When I go to menu, and then settings, I can see my defaults checked (radiobuttoned). Then when I go back from the settings menu to my main screen - all is well - for life! ...then each var above is assigned the proper default value. This only happens when I first install my app on the phone. After I go to the settings screen once and then right out of it, the app is fine and accepts any setting changes. By the way, as you can see, "List1" is the android:key within a file called settings.xml in my res/xml folder.

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  • jQuery AJAX request (Rails 3) gets redirected and returns empty message body (only with SSL)!

    - by elsurudo
    I'm trying to do a manual jQuery AJAX request the following way: $("#user_plan_id").change(function() { $("#plan_container").load('/plans/' + this.value); }); I have the "rails.js" file included in my header, and a "<%= csrf_meta_tag %". I see from my log that the request IS getting to the server (although without the authenticity token... does rails.js even do this?), but the response is a 302 (Found) rather than 200, and no data actually gets rendered. Any ideas? Edit: I now see that the first request redirects, and the proper partial gets rendered on the redirect. However, the 2nd response's body (on the client-side) is still empty. I'm guessing jQuery uses the first response and doesn't have a listener set up for the redirect. How do I get around this? Also, another note: the page doing the requesting is an HTTPS page. Here is what my log says: Started GET "/plans/221168073" for 127.0.0.1 at Tue Jun 15 01:24:06 -0400 2010 Processing by PlansController#show as HTML Parameters: {"id"=>"221168073"} DEPRECATION WARNING: Using #request_uri is deprecated. Use fullpath instead. (called from ensure_proper_protocol at /Users/ernestsurudo/Sites/vidfolia/vendor/plugins/ssl_requirement/lib/ssl_requirement.rb:57) Redirected to http://vidfolia.com/plans/221168073 Completed 302 Found in 1ms It turns out that if I turn off SSL requirement for that page, it works! I still have no idea why, though. So I suppose my question is: what is the workaround?

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  • Achieving NHibernate Nested Transactions Behavior

    - by jfneis
    Hi all, I'm trying to achieve some kind of nested transaction behavior using NHibernate's transaction control and FlushMode options, but things got a little bit confusing after too much reading, so any confirmation about the facts I list below will be very usefull. What I want is to open one big transaction that splits in little transactions. Imagine the following scenario: TX1 opens a TX and inserts a Person's record; TX2 opens a TX and updates this Person's name to P2; TX2 commits; TX3 opens a TX and updates this Person's name to P3; TX3 rollbacks; TX1 commits; I'd like to see NH sending the INSERT and the TX2 UPDATE to the database, just ignoring what TX3, as it was rolled back. I tried to use FlushMode = Never and only flushing the session after the proper Begins/Commits/Rollbacks have been demanded, but NH always update the database with the object's final state, independent of commits and rollbacks. Is that normal? Does NH really ignores transactional control when working with FlushMode = Never? I've also tried to use FlushMode = Commit and openning the nested transactions, but I discovered that, because ADO.NET, the nested transactions are, actually, always the same transaction. Note that I'm not trying to achieve a "all or nothing" behavior. I'm looking more to a savepoint way of working. Is there a way to do that (savepoints) with NH? Thank you in advance. Filipe

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  • codingbat wordEnds using regex

    - by polygenelubricants
    I'm trying to solve wordEnds from codingbat.com using regex. This is the simplest as I can make it with my current knowledge of regex: public String wordEnds(String str, String word) { return str.replaceAll( String.format( ".*?(?=%s)(?<=(.|^))%1$s(?=(.|$))|.+", java.util.regex.Pattern.quote(word) ), "$1$2" ); } String.format is used to inject word into the pattern for both readability and convenience (it's injected twice). Pattern.quote isn't necessary to pass their tests, but I think it's required for a proper regex-based solution. The regex has two major parts: If after matching as few characters as possible ".*?", word can still be found "(?=%s)", then lookbehind to capture any character immediately preceding it "(?<=(.|^))", match word "%1$s" and lookforward to capture any character following it "(?=(.|$))". The initial "if" test ensures that the atomic lookbehind captures only if there's a word Using lookahead to capture the following character doesn't consume it, so it can be used as part of further matching Otherwise match what's left "|.+" Groups 1 and 2 would capture empty strings I think this works in all cases, but it's obviously quite complex. I'm just wondering if others can suggest a simpler regex to do this. Note: I'm not looking for a solution using indexOf and a loop. I want a regex-based replaceAll solution. I also need a working solution that I can just copy-paste into codingbat and passes.

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  • How can I internationalize strings representing C# enum values?

    - by Duke
    I've seen many questions and answers about mapping strings to enums and vice-versa, but how can I map a series of localized strings to enums? Should I just create an extension method like this that returns the proper string from a resource file? Is there a way to localize attributes (like "Description") that are used in solutions like this? Which is the preferred solution - extension method or attributes. It seems to me that this isn't the intended purpose of attributes. In fact, now that I think about it, if I were to use an extension method an attribute seems like something I'd use to specify a key in a resource file for the localized string I want to use in place of the enum value. EDIT - example: Given the following enum, public enum TransactionTypes { Cheque = 1, BankTransfer = 2, CreditCard = 3 } I would like a way to map each type to a localized string. I started off with an extension method for the enum that uses a switch statement and strongly typed references to the resource file. However, an extension method for every enum doesn't seem like a great solution. I've started following this to create a custom attribute for each enumerated value. The attribute has a base name and key for the resource file containing localized strings. In the above enum, for example, I have this: ... [EnumResourceAttribute("FinancialTransaction", "Cheque")] Cheque = 1, ... Where "FinanacialTransaction" is the resx file and "Cheque" is the string key. I'm trying to create a utility method to which I could pass any value from any enumeration and have it return the localized string representation of that value, assuming the custom attribute is specified. I just can't figure out how to dynamically access a resource file and a key within it.

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  • Focussing on Style Sheets and Cross Browser Compatibility.

    - by Sam
    Hello everyone, Let me begin this topic by explaining my background experience with web design. I have always been more of a back end programmer, with PHP and SQL and things. However I do have a shallow background with HTML and CSS. The problem is, I don't know it all. What I do know is, when it comes to designing (not back end dirty work) I understand basic CSS properties and I also understand HTML and I can usually throw together a sloppy web page with the two and a couple bazillion DIV tags. Anyways.. The problem I always have encountered is that when I design a website in a browser such as IE7 (and then it looks perfect on IE7), and then look at it on IE8 or IE6 or Mozilla (etc.) it gets all spacey and ugly and looks totally different than the way it should look on IE7. Question one: Basically, what I am asking everyone is what route should I take to learn how to properly build the website? Build as in put it togehter with CSS standards and HTML standards that will make my site look the same on every brwoser. (Not only learning standards but where can I learn to properly write my code?) Where is a strong free resource I can use to learn how to these things? Question two: How do I properly code my website? Do I use all external style sheets to make dynamic page design simplistic or do I hard code some things into the DIV tags on each page? What is proper? Oh, and if anyone has any tutorials on how to properly design a complete layout feel free to throw it in a response somewhere. Thank you for taking the time to read my questions, and hopefully you will understand what I am trying to get out to everyone. I need to get on the right route of the designing side of web programming so that I will know how to create successful websites in the future. Thank you, Sam Pardee

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  • WCF Service Exception

    - by Maciek
    Hiya, I'm currently working on an Silverlight 3 project, I'm using 2 machines to test it. "harbinger" is the web server running Win7 + IIS . I've deployed the webpage and the WCF webservice to that machine. I've entered the following url's in my browser : http://harbinger:43011/UserService.svc http://harbinger:43011/UserService.svc?wsdl and got pages load expected contents for both Next I've decided to check if I can call the webservice from my machine, I've added the ServiceReference, executed a call to one of the methods and .... BOOM : System.ServiceModel.CommunicationException was unhandled by user code Message="An error occurred while trying to make a request to URI 'http://harbinger:43011/UserService.svc'. This could be due to attempting to access a service in a cross-domain way without a proper cross-domain policy in place, or a policy that is unsuitable for SOAP services. You may need to contact the owner of the service to publish a cross-domain policy file and to ensure it allows SOAP-related HTTP headers to be sent. This error may also be caused by using internal types in the web service proxy without using the InternalsVisibleToAttribute attribute. Please see the inner exception for more details." StackTrace: at System.ServiceModel.AsyncResult.End[TAsyncResult](IAsyncResult result) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.SendAsyncResult.End(SendAsyncResult result) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.EndCall(String action, Object[] outs, IAsyncResult result) at System.ServiceModel.ClientBase`1.ChannelBase`1.EndInvoke(String methodName, Object[] args, IAsyncResult result) at Energy.USR.UserServiceClient.UserServiceClientChannel.EndGetAllUsers(IAsyncResult result) at Energy.USR.UserServiceClient.Energy.USR.UserService.EndGetAllUsers(IAsyncResult result) at Energy.USR.UserServiceClient.OnEndGetAllUsers(IAsyncResult result) at System.ServiceModel.ClientBase`1.OnAsyncCallCompleted(IAsyncResult result) InnerException: System.Security.SecurityException Message="" StackTrace: at System.Net.Browser.AsyncHelper.BeginOnUI(SendOrPostCallback beginMethod, Object state) at System.Net.Browser.BrowserHttpWebRequest.EndGetResponse(IAsyncResult asyncResult) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelAsyncRequest.CompleteGetResponse(IAsyncResult result) InnerException: System.Security.SecurityException Message="Security error." StackTrace: at System.Net.Browser.BrowserHttpWebRequest.InternalEndGetResponse(IAsyncResult asyncResult) at System.Net.Browser.BrowserHttpWebRequest.<>c__DisplayClass5.<EndGetResponse>b__4(Object sendState) at System.Net.Browser.AsyncHelper.<>c__DisplayClass2.<BeginOnUI>b__0(Object sendState) InnerException: Can someone explain what just happened? What do I need to do to avoid this?

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  • Cannot access updated Java object from Saxon XSLT processor

    - by chipk
    I am working with an open source version of the Saxon XSLT processor "Saxon 9.0.0.2J from Saxonica" and am trying to make use of the java extensibility for the first time. I am running into an issue I suspect may be a limitation on the open source version, but wanted to check first whether there might be something I am just missing here. From the snippet below, my result is that the final value of $c1 does not change as a result of the call to greg:setTime() - i.e. the $c1 variable within Saxon appears to be unhooked from the underlying Java object and there is no apparent way to access the object as updated by the setTime() call. NOTE that all code in the snippet is tested and working otherwise - i.e. $c1 is properly instantiated by the getInstance() call, $startdate is of the proper format and $d1 is properly instantiated. Thoughts? <xsl:transform ..... xmlns:sql="java:java.sql.Date" xmlns:greg="java:java.util.GregorianCalendar" ..... > .... <xsl:element name="JobExpireDate"> <xsl:variable name="c1" select="greg:getInstance()" /> <xsl:variable name="d1" select="sql:valueOf($startdate)" /> <xsl:variable name="void" select="greg:setTime($c1,$d1)" /> <xsl:value-of select="$c1" /> </xsl:element>

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  • HTML 4, HTML 5, XHTML, MIME types - the definitive resource

    - by deceze
    The topics of HTML vs. XHTML and XHTML as text/html vs. XHTML as XHTML are quite complex. Unfortunately it's hard to get a complete picture, since information is spread mostly in bits and pieces around the web or is buried deep in W3C tech jargon. In addition there's some misinformation being circulated. I propose to make this the definite SO resource about the topic, describing the most important aspects of: HTML 4 HTML 5 XHTML 1.0/1.1 as text/html XHTML 1.0/1.1 as XHTML What are the practical implications of each? What are common pitfalls? What is the importance of proper MIME types for each? How do different browsers handle them? I'd like to see one answer per technology. I'm making this a community wiki, so rather than contributing redundant answers, please edit answers to complete the picture. Feel free to start with stubs. Also feel free to edit this question.

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