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  • Multiple jQuery.noConflict() instances...

    - by user353816
    I am working with several jQuery scripts that include a MenuFader (http://css-tricks.com/examples/MenuFader/), twitter feed, and timestamp. Additionally I have a couple Mootools scripts that include the Barackslideshow (http://devthought.com/wp-content/moogets/BarackSlideshow/demo.html). And finally I have a scrolling ticker with tooltips taken from the twitter homepage. I originally had a conflict with the Jquery MenuFader and Mootools BarackSlideshow, but easily fixed this issue with the jQuery.noconflict(); and replaced all corresponding $ with jQuery. Unfortunately, after I added the scrolling ticker from Twitter, the Mootools BarackSlideshow and the Jquery MenuFader no longer work. I tried to implement jQuery.noconflict(); then $.noconflict(); then var j = jQuery.noconflict(); and replacing the $ as I did previously, but I cannot get the scripts to play nicely. Any help is greatly appreciated...I have been working on this all day. I am pretty new with javascript, but have managed to get through most problems with a little persistence. Please take a look at the script below: <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.3.0/jquery.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="http://a2.twimg.com/a/1274914417/javascripts/fronts.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ $( function () { setTimeout(function() { $(".twtr-widget").append($("<div></div>").attr("class", "twtr-fade")); }, 0); (function() { var tabIndex = $("[tabindex]:last").attr("tabIndex"); var setTabIndex = function() { $(this).attr("tabindex", ++tabIndex); } $(".footer-nav a").each(setTabIndex); $(".language-select a").each(setTabIndex); })(); $("#signup_submit").scribe({ event_name: "signup_submit_click", experiment: "ab_signup_button", bucket: "sign_up" }, "www_ab_tests"); $('#signin_menu').isSigninMenu(); new FrontPage().init(); }); //]]>

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  • Link error for user defined class type template parameter

    - by isurulucky
    Hi, I implemented a Simple STL map in C++. Factored out the comparison as a type as I was instructed to, then implemented the comparison as shown below: template <typename T> int KeyCompare<T>::operator () (T tKey1, T tKey2) { if(tKey1 < tKey2) return -1; else if(tKey1 > tKey2) return 1; else return 0; } here, tKey1 and tKet2 are the two keys I'm comparing. This worked well for all the basic data types and string. I added a template specialization to compare keys of a user defined type named Test and added a specialization as follows: int KeyCompare<Test>::operator () (Test tKey1, Test tKey2) { if(tKey1.a < tKey2.a) return -1; else if(tKey1.a > tKey2.a) return 1; else return 0; } when I run this, I get a linking error saying SimpleMap.obj : error LNK2005: "public: int __thiscall KeyCompare::operator()(class Test,class Test)" (??R?$KeyCompare@VTest@@@@QAEHVTest@@0@Z) already defined in MapTest.obj SimpleMap.obj : error LNK2005: "public: __thiscall KeyCompare::~KeyCompare(void)" (??1?$KeyCompare@VTest@@@@QAE@XZ) already defined in MapTest.obj SimpleMap.obj : error LNK2005: "public: __thiscall KeyCompare::KeyCompare(void)" (??0?$KeyCompare@VTester@@@@QAE@XZ) already defined in MapTest.obj MapTest.cpp is the test harness class in which I wrote the test case. I have used include guards as well, to stop multiple inclusions. Any idea what the matter is?? Thank you very much!!

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  • Trusted Folder/Drive Picker in the Browser

    - by kylepfritz
    I'd like to write a Folder/Drive picker the runs in the browser and allows a user to select files to upload to a webservice. The primary usage would be selecting folders or a whole CD and uploading them to the web with their directory structure in tact. I'm imagining something akin to Jumploader but which automatically enumerates external drives and CDs. I remember a version of Facebook's picture uploader that could do this sort of enumeration and was java-based but it has since been replaced by a much slicker plugin-based architecture. Because the application needs to run at very high trust, I think I'm limited to old-school java applets. Is there another alternative? I'm hesitant to start down the plugin route because of the necessity of writing one for both IE and Mozilla at a minimum. Are there good places to get started there? On the applet front, I built a clunky prototype to demonstrate that I can enumerate devices and list files. It runs fine in the applet viewer but I don't think I have the security settings configured correctly for it to run in the browser at full trust. Currently I don't get any drives back when I run it in the browser. Applet Prototype: public class Loader extends javax.swing.JApplet { ... private void EnumerateDrives(java.awt.event.ActionEvent evt) { File[] roots = File.listRoots(); StringBuilder b = new StringBuilder(); for (File root : roots) { b.append(root.getAbsolutePath() + ", "); } jLabel.setText(b.toString()); } } Embed Html: <p>Loader:</p> <script src="http://www.java.com/js/deployJava.js" type="text/javascript" ></script> <script> var attributes = {code:'org.exampl.Loader.Loader.class', archive:'Loader/dist/Loader.jar', width:600, height:400} ; var parameters = {}; deployJava.runApplet(attributes, parameters, '1.6');

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  • Implementing a c/c++ style union as a column in MySQL

    - by user81338
    Friends, I have a strange need and cannot think my way through the problem. The great and mighty Google is of little help due to keyword recycling (as you'll see). Can you help? What I want to do is store data of multiple types in a single column in MySQL. This is the database equivalent to a C union (and if you search for MySQL and Union, you obviously get a whole bunch of stuff on the UNION keyword in SQL). [Contrived and simplified case follows] So, let us say that we have people - who have names - and STORMTROOPERS - who have TK numbers. You cannot have BOTH a NAME and a TK number. You're either BOB SMITH -or- TK409. In C I could express this as a union, like so: union { char * name; int tkNo; } EmperialPersonnelRecord; This makes it so that I am either storing a pointer to a char array or an ID in the type EmperialPersonnelRecord, but not both. I am looking for a MySQL equivalent on a column. My column would store either an int, double, or varchar(255) (or whatever combination). But would only take up the space of the largest element. Is this possible? (of course anything is possible given enough time, money and will - I mean is it possible if I am poor, lazy and on a deadline... aka "out of the box")

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  • How should I pass the translated text to my object in my multilingual application?

    - by boatingcow
    Up until now, I have maintained a 'dictionary' table in my database, for example: +-----------+---------------------------------------+-----------------------------------------------+--------+ | phrase | en | fr | etc... | +-----------+---------------------------------------+-----------------------------------------------+--------+ | generated | Generated in %1$01.2f seconds at %2$s | Créée en %1$01.2f secondes à %2$s aujourd'hui | ... | | submit | Submit... | Envoyer... | ... | +-----------+---------------------------------------+-----------------------------------------------+--------+ I'll then select all rows from the database for the column that matches the locale we're interested in (or read the cache from a file to speed db lookup) and dump the dictionary into an array called $lng. Then I'll have HTML helper objects like this in my view: $html->input(array('type' => 'submit', 'value' => $lng['submit'], etc...)); ... $html->div(array('value' => sprintf($lng['generated'], $generated, date('H:i')), etc...)); The translations can appear in PDF, XLS and AJAX responses too. The problem with my approach so far is that I now have loads of global $lng; in every class where there is a function that spits out UI code.. How do other people get the translation into the object? Is it one scenario where globals aren't actually that bad? Would it be madness to create a class with accessors when the dictionary terms are all static?

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  • PHP -- automatic SQL injection protection?

    - by ashgromnies
    I took over maintenance of a PHP app recently and I'm not super familiar with PHP but some of the things I've been seeing on the site are making me nervous that it could be vulnerable to a SQL injection attack. For example, see how this code for logging into the administrative section works: $password = md5(HASH_SALT . $_POST['loginPass']); $query = "SELECT * FROM `administrators` WHERE `active`='1' AND `email`='{$_POST['loginEmail']}' AND `password`='{$password}'"; $userInfo = db_fetch_array(db_query($query)); if($userInfo['id']) { $_SESSION['adminLoggedIn'] = true; // user is logged in, other junk happens here, not important The creators of the site made a special db_query method and db_fetch_array method, shown here: function db_query($qstring,$print=0) { return @mysql(DB_NAME,$qstring); } function db_fetch_array($qhandle) { return @mysql_fetch_array($qhandle); } Now, this makes me think I should be able to do some sort of SQL injection attack with an email address like: ' OR 'x'='x' LIMIT 1; and some random password. When I use that on the command line, I get an administrative user back, but when I try it in the application, I get an invalid username/password error, like I should. Could there be some sort of global PHP configuration they have enabled to block these attacks? Where would that be configured? Here is the PHP --version information: # php --version PHP 5.2.12 (cli) (built: Feb 28 2010 15:59:21) Copyright (c) 1997-2009 The PHP Group Zend Engine v2.2.0, Copyright (c) 1998-2009 Zend Technologies with the ionCube PHP Loader v3.3.14, Copyright (c) 2002-2010, by ionCube Ltd., and with Zend Optimizer v3.3.9, Copyright (c) 1998-2009, by Zend Technologies

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  • Does C# allow method overloading, PHP style (__call)?

    - by mr.b
    In PHP, there is a special method named __call($calledMethodName, $arguments), which allows class to catch calls to non-existing methods, and do something about it. Since most of classic languages are strongly typed, compiler won't allow calling a method that does not exist, I'm clear with that part. What I want to accomplish (and I figured this is how I would do it in PHP, but C# is something else) is to proxy calls to a class methods and log each of these calls. Right now, I have code similar to this: class ProxyClass { static logger; public AnotherClass inner { get; private set; } public ProxyClass() { inner = new AnotherClass(); } } class AnotherClass { public void A() {} public void B() {} public void C() {} // ... } // meanwhile, in happyCodeLandia... ProxyClass pc = new ProxyClass(); pc.inner.A(); pc.inner.B(); // ... So, how can I proxy calls to an object instance in extensible way? Extensible, meaning that I don't have to modify ProxyClass whenever AnotherClass changes. In my case, AnotherClass can have any number of methods, so it wouldn't be appropriate to overload or wrap all methods to add logging. I am aware that this might not be the best approach for this kind of problem, so if anyone has idea what approach to use, shoot. Thanks!

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  • Codeigniter - change url at method call

    - by NemoPS
    I was wondering if the following can be done in codeigniter. Let's assume I have a file, called Post.php, used to manage posts in an admin interface. It has several methods, such as index (lists all posts), add, update, delete... Now, I access the add method, so that the url becomes /posts/add And I add some data. I click "save" to add the new post. It calls the same method with an if statement like "if "this-input-post('addnew')"" is passed, call the model, add it to the database Here follows the problem: If everything worked fine, it goes to the index with the list of all posts, and displays a confirmation BUT No the url would still be posts/add, since I called the function like $this-index() after verifying data was added. I cannot redirect it to "posts/" since in that case no confirmation message would be shown! So my question is: can i call a method from anther one in the same class, and have the url set to that method (/posts/index instead of /posts/add)? It's kinda confusing, but i hope i gave you enough info to spot the problem Cheers!

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  • How to control dojo widget classes, or how to get fine-grained control of style

    - by djna
    I am creating a UI with dojo that is emulting some aspects of an existing thick client application. I need to programatically put two different menu bars on the same page. I have successfully created the two menu bars using new dijit.Menu(); new dijit.MenuItem(); and so on. Now I want to give them slightly different presentation styles. As I'm going to have quite a few pages of this sort my first thought is to use different CSS style classes. And that's the problem: when I create the Menu and it's items we get quite a set of HTML objects, each with CSS classes specified by dojo, and the classes are the same for the items associated with either menu. How can I best get specific control for any one menu? I could determine the dojo-generated ids for each item, and specify styles by ids, but that seems like hard work. Is there an sensible way to control the classes defined by dojo, or a nice CSS way to select only the items associated with one menu bar?

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  • OpenMP: Get total number of running threads

    - by Konrad Rudolph
    I need to know the total number of threads that my application has spawned via OpenMP. Unfortunately, the omp_get_num_threads() function does not work here since it only yields the number of threads in the current team. However, my code runs recursively (divide and conquer, basically) and I want to spawn new threads as long as there are still idle processors, but no more. Is there a way to get around the limitations of omp_get_num_threads and get the total number of running threads? If more detail is required, consider the following pseudo-code that models my workflow quite closely: function divide_and_conquer(Job job, int total_num_threads): if job.is_leaf(): # Recurrence base case. job.process() return left, right = job.divide() current_num_threads = omp_get_num_threads() if current_num_threads < total_num_threads: # (1) #pragma omp parallel num_threads(2) #pragma omp section divide_and_conquer(left, total_num_threads) #pragma omp section divide_and_conquer(right, total_num_threads) else: divide_and_conquer(left, total_num_threads) divide_and_conquer(right, total_num_threads) job = merge(left, right) If I call this code with a total_num_threads value of 4, the conditional annotated with (1) will always evaluate to true (because each thread team will contain at most two threads) and thus the code will always spawn two new threads, no matter how many threads are already running at a higher level. I am searching for a platform-independent way of determining the total number of threads that are currently running in my application.

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  • Calculating and saving space in Postgresql

    - by punkish
    I have a table in Pg like so CREATE TABLE t ( a BIGSERIAL NOT NULL, -- 8 b b SMALLINT, -- 2 b c SMALLINT, -- 2 b d REAL, -- 4 b e REAL, -- 4 b f REAL, -- 4 b g INTEGER, -- 4 b h REAL, -- 4 b i REAL, -- 4 b j SMALLINT, -- 2 b k INTEGER, -- 4 b l INTEGER, -- 4 b m REAL, -- 4 b CONSTRAINT a_pkey PRIMARY KEY (a) ) The above adds up to 50 bytes per row. My experience is that I need another 40% to 50% for system overhead, without even any user-created indexes to the above. So, about 75 bytes per row. I will have many, many rows in the table, potentially upward of 145 billion rows, so the table is going to be pushing 13-14 Terabytes. What tricks, if any, could I use to compact this table? My possible ideas below -- Convert the REAL values to INTEGERs. If they can stored as SMALLINT, that is a saving of 2 bytes per field. Convert the columns b .. m into an array. I don't need to search on those columns, but I do need to be able to return one column's value at a time. So, if I need column g, I could do something like SELECT a, arr[5] FROM t; Would I save space with the array option? Would there be a speed penalty? Any other ideas?

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  • Is anyone familiar with SDPT.clsSDPT?

    - by David Stratton
    Normally I wouldn't ask this kind of question here, but I'm desperate at this point. I'm attempting to support a classic ASP app written by a predecessor who is no longer available. Keeping it short, several applications use a dll to perform encryption of sensitive data. This dll is named SDPT.dll, and the line of code used to create an object is set objSDPT = server.CreateObject("SDPT.clsSDPT") At this point, I am getting errors in a critical app on one of my servers, and I've actually hit a dead end. The error is a standard "Server.CreateObject Failed" message, which I know how to troubleshoot in most cases. However, in this case, all of my normal tries, plus several hours of Google searches are coming up with nothing that works. At this point, I'm not so much looking for help in troubleshooting the issue as I am in finding any sort of reference on this third party component. Even finding that is proving to be difficult, so I'm resorting to asking any of the seasoned developers that hang out here if they are familiar with this product, who it was developed by, and if any documentation on it exists anywhere.

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  • Retrieve class name hierarchy as string

    - by Jeff Wain
    Our system complexity has risen to the point that we need to make permission names tied to the client from the database more specific. In the client, permissions are referenced from a static class since a lot of client functionality is dependent on the permissions each user has and the roles have a ton of variety. I've referenced this post as an example, but I'm looking for a more specific use case. Take for instance this reference, where PermissionAlpha would be a const string: return HasPermission(PermissionNames.PermissionAlpha); Which is great, except now that things are growing more complex the classes are being structured like this: public static class PermissionNames { public static class PermissionAlpha { public const string SubPermission; } } I'm trying to find an easy way to reference PermissionAlpha in this new setup that will act similar to the first declaration above. Would the only way to do this be to resort to pulling the value of the class name like in the example below? I'm trying to keep all the names in one place that can be reference anywhere in the application. public static class PermissionAlpha { public static string Name { get { return typeof(PermissionAlpha).Name; } } }

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  • Get part of array string

    - by user1560295
    Hello my output PHP code is : Array ( [country] => BG - Bulgaria ) ... and he comes from here : <?php $ip = $_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR']; print_r(geoCheckIP($ip)); //Array ( [domain] => dslb-094-219-040-096.pools.arcor-ip.net [country] => DE - Germany [state] => Hessen [town] => Erzhausen ) //Get an array with geoip-infodata function geoCheckIP($ip) { //check, if the provided ip is valid if(!filter_var($ip, FILTER_VALIDATE_IP)) { throw new InvalidArgumentException("IP is not valid"); } //contact ip-server $response=@file_get_contents('http://www.netip.de/search?query='.$ip); if (empty($response)) { throw new InvalidArgumentException("Error contacting Geo-IP-Server"); } //Array containing all regex-patterns necessary to extract ip-geoinfo from page $patterns=array(); $patterns["country"] = '#Country: (.*?)&nbsp;#i'; //Array where results will be stored $ipInfo=array(); //check response from ipserver for above patterns foreach ($patterns as $key => $pattern) { //store the result in array $ipInfo[$key] = preg_match($pattern,$response,$value) && !empty($value[1]) ? $value[1] : ''; } return $ipInfo; } ?> How can I get ONLY the name of the Country like in my case "Bulgaria"? I think it will happen with preg_replace or substr but i dont know what is the better solution now.

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  • many to many and integrity when saving the null

    - by user369759
    I have two classes Software, Tag - they are related by ManyToMany. We CAN NOT create Software without putting the Tag to it. I want to write a test which check that: @Test public void createSoftwareWithNullTags() { List<Tag> tags = null; Software software = new Software("software1", "description1", tags); try { software.save(); fail("tags should not be null"); } catch (Exception ex) { // NEVER COME HERE !!! } } So, this test fails. I guess it is not good test for that case - because it even do not try to SAVE data to SOFTWARE_TAG table. Of course i could do validation manually but i want implement it with hibernate, using some annotation or something. Is it possible? Or how would you do this? My entities: @Entity public class Tag extends Model { public String title; public Tag(String title) { this.title = title; } @ManyToMany( cascade = {CascadeType.ALL}, mappedBy = "tags", targetEntity = Software.class ) public List<Software> softwares; } @Entity public class Software extends Model { public String title; public String description; @ManyToOne(optional = false) public Author author; @ManyToMany(cascade = CascadeType.ALL) @JoinTable( name = "SOFTWARE_TAG", joinColumns = @JoinColumn(name = "Software_id"), inverseJoinColumns = @JoinColumn(name = "Tag_id") ) public List<Tag> tags; public Software(String title, String description, Author author, List<Tag> tags) { this.title = title; this.description = description; this.author = author; this.tags = tags; } }

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  • Classic ASP Recursive function

    - by user333411
    Hi everyone, I havent done any classic ASP for a couple of years and now trying to get back into it from c# is prooving impossible! I've got a recursive function which very simply is supposed to query a database based on a value passed to the function and once the function has stopped calling itself it returns the recordset....however im getting the old error '80020009' message. I've declared the recordset outside of the function. Cany anyone see the error in my ways? Dim objRsTmp Function buildList(intParentGroupID) Set objRsTmp = Server.CreateObject("Adodb.Recordset") SQLCommand = "SELECT * FROM tblGroups WHERE tblGroups.intParentGroupID = " & intParentGroupID & ";" objRsTmp.Open SQLCommand, strConnection, 3, 3 If Not objRsTmp.Eof Then While Not objRsTmp.Eof Response.Write(objRsTmp("strGroup") & "<br />") buildList(objRsTmp("intID")) objRsTmp.MoveNext Wend End If Set buildList = objRsTmp '#objRsTmp.Close() 'Set objRsTmp = Nothing End Function Set objRs = buildList(0) If Not objRs.Eof Then Response.Write("There are records") While Not objRs.Eof For Each oFld in objRs.Fields Response.Write(oFld.Name & ": " & oFld.Value & ",") next Response.Write("<br />") objRs.MoveNext Wend End If Any assistance would be greatly appreciated. Regards, Al

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  • doubt in javascript name validation

    - by raja
    Hi: I am using the below validation for textbox which accepts only alphabets and maximum of 50 characters. I am passing the object directly in the parameter. The below case by giving the field name i.e "my_text" directly is working is working fine. But if i pass it in variable, that time it is not working(commented the if statement). Please help me. My requirement is each time when we enter the charater, the hardcode field name should not be used in the validation. <html><head> <script language=JavaScript> function check_length(my_form,fieldName) { alert(fieldName); // if (my_form.fieldName.value.length >= maxLen) { if (my_form.my_text.value.length >= maxLen) { var msg = "You have reached your maximum limit of characters allowed"; alert(msg); my_form.my_text.value = my_form.my_text.value.substring(0, maxLen); } else{ var keyCode = window.event.keyCode; if ((keyCode < 65 || keyCode > 90) && (keyCode < 97 || keyCode > 123) && keyCode != 32) { window.event.returnValue = false; alert("Enter only Alphabets"); } my_form.text_num.value = maxLen - my_form.my_text.value.length;} } </script> </head> <body> <form name=my_form method=post> <input type="text" onKeyPress=check_length(this.form,this.name); name=my_text rows=4 cols=30> <br> <input size=1 value=50 name=text_num> Characters Left </form> </body> </html>

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  • iPhone Apps, Objective C, a Graph, and Functions vs. Objects (or something like that)

    - by BillEccles
    Gentleones, I've got a UIImageView that I have in a UIView. This particular UIImageView displays a PNG of a graph. It's important for this particular view controller and another view controller to know what the graph "looks like," i.e., the function described by the PNG graph. These other view controllers need to be able to call a "function" of some sort with the X value returning the Y value. Please ignore the fact (from an outsider's perspective) that I could probably generate the graph programmatically. So my questions are: 1 - Where should I put this function? Should it go in one view controller or the other, or should it go in its own class or main or...? 2 - Should it be an object in some way? Or should it be a straight function? (In either case, where's it belong?) Pardon the apparent n00b-iness of the question. It's 'cause I'm honestly a n00b! This OOP stuff is giving my head a spin having been a procedural programmer for 30 years. (And I choose to learn it by jumping into an iPhone app. Talk about baptism by fire!) Thanks in advance,Bill

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  • Why are my connections not closed even if I explicitly dispose of the DataContext?

    - by Chris Simpson
    I encapsulate my linq to sql calls in a repository class which is instantiated in the constructor of my overloaded controller. The constructor of my repository class creates the data context so that for the life of the page load, only one data context is used. In my destructor of the repository class I explicitly call the dispose of the DataContext though I do not believe this is necessary. Using performance monitor, if I watch my User Connections count and repeatedly load a page, the number increases once per page load. Connections do not get closed or reused (for about 20 minutes). I tried putting Pooling=false in my config to see if this had any effect but it did not. In any case with pooling I wouldn't expect a new connection for every load, I would expect it to reuse connections. I've tried putting a break point in the destructor to make sure the dispose is being hit and sure enough it is. So what's happening? Some code to illustrate what I said above: The controller: public class MyController : Controller { protected MyRepository rep; public MyController () { rep = new MyRepository(); } } The repository: public class MyRepository { protected MyDataContext dc; public MyRepository() { dc = getDC(); } ~MyRepository() { if (dc != null) { //if (dc.Connection.State != System.Data.ConnectionState.Closed) //{ // dc.Connection.Close(); //} dc.Dispose(); } } // etc } Note: I add a number of hints and context information to the DC for auditing purposes. This is essentially why I want one connection per page load

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  • Pass in a value into Python Class through command line

    - by chrissygormley
    Hello, I have got some code to pass in a variable into a script from the command line. The script is: import sys, os def function(var): print var class function_call(object): def __init__(self, sysArgs): try: self.function = None self.args = [] self.modulePath = sysArgs[0] self.moduleDir, tail = os.path.split(self.modulePath) self.moduleName, ext = os.path.splitext(tail) __import__(self.moduleName) self.module = sys.modules[self.moduleName] if len(sysArgs) > 1: self.functionName = sysArgs[1] self.function = self.module.__dict__[self.functionName] self.args = sysArgs[2:] except Exception, e: sys.stderr.write("%s %s\n" % ("PythonCall#__init__", e)) def execute(self): try: if self.function: self.function(*self.args) except Exception, e: sys.stderr.write("%s %s\n" % ("PythonCall#execute", e)) if __name__=="__main__": test = test() function_call(sys.argv).execute() This works by entering ./function <function> <arg1 arg2 ....>. The problem is that I want to to select the function I want that is in a class rather than just a function by itself. The code I have tried is the same except that function(var): is in a class. I was hoping for some ideas on how to modify my function_call class to accept this. Thanks for any help.

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  • c# "==" operator : compiler behaviour with different structs

    - by Moe Sisko
    Code to illustrate : public struct MyStruct { public int SomeNumber; } public string DoSomethingWithMyStruct(MyStruct s) { if (s == null) return "this can't happen"; else return "ok"; } private string DoSomethingWithDateTime(DateTime s) { if (s == null) return "this can't happen"; // XX else return "ok"; } Now, "DoSomethingWithStruct" fails to compile with : "Operator '==' cannot be applied to operands of type 'MyStruct' and '<null>'". This makes sense, since it doesn't make sense to try a reference comparison with a struct, which is a value type. OTOH, "DoSomethingWithDateTime" compiles, but with compiler warning : "Unreachable code detected" at line marked "XX". Now, I'm assuming that there is no compiler error here, because the DateTime struct overloads the "==" operator. But how does the compiler know that the code is unreachable ? e.g. Does it look inside the code which overloads the "==" operator ? (This is using Visual Studio 2005 in case that makes a difference). Note : I'm more curious than anything about the above. I don't usually try to use "==" on structs and nulls.

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  • Thread-safty of boost RNG

    - by Maciej Piechotka
    I have a loop which should be nicely pararellized by insering one openmp pragma: boost::normal_distribution<double> ddist(0, pow(retention, i - 1)); boost::variate_generator<gen &, BOOST_TYPEOF(ddist)> dgen(rng, ddist); // Diamond const std::uint_fast32_t dno = 1 << i - 1; // #pragma omp parallel for for (std::uint_fast32_t x = 0; x < dno; x++) for (std::uint_fast32_t y = 0; y < dno; y++) { const std::uint_fast32_t diff = size/dno; const std::uint_fast32_t x1 = x*diff, x2 = (x + 1)*diff; const std::uint_fast32_t y1 = y*diff, y2 = (y + 1)*diff; double avg = (arr[x1][y1] + arr[x1][y2] + arr[x2][y1] + arr[x2][y2])/4; arr[(x1 + x2)/2][(y1 + y2)/2] = avg + dgen(); } (unless I make an error each execution does not depend on others at all. Sorry that not all of code is inserted). However my question is - are boost RNG thread-safe? They seems to refer to gcc code for gcc so even if gcc code is thread-safe it may not be the case for other platforms.

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  • Reporting Services: Tablix RepeatColumnHeaders doesn't work on some reports

    - by I Have the Hat
    So I've got various reports that consist of a DataSet rendered in a Tablix... pretty garden variety stuff. There is a property for the Tablix control named RepeatColumnHeaders, which I have set to True for each report in question. The explanation for this property states “Indicates whether column headers are repeated on each page on which part of the data region appear.” Sounds pretty straightforward, but on some reports it works and on others it does not. I can't seem to find what's different about the reports that might affect this. On one report where the headers do repeat, there is some fairly arcane grouping mojo, but in an example where it doesn't work the Tablix only has one level--no grouping. I would expect the multi-nested one to be the problem, not the flat one. Maybe it's a different problem altogether. I threw together a simple Tablix rendering SELECT * FROM Foo, accepted all the default values, which results in RepeatColumnHeaders being set to False, and lo and behold the column headers do repeat for that report... Grrr. Any insights greatly appreciated.

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  • Not loading associations without proxies in NHibernate

    - by Alice
    I don't like the idea of proxy and lazy loading. I don't need that. I want pure POCO. And I want to control loading associations explicitly when I need. Here is entity public class Post { public long Id { get; set; } public long OwnerId { get; set; } public string Content { get; set; } public User Owner { get; set; } } and mapping <class name="Post"> <id name="Id" /> <property name="OwnerId" /> <property name="Content" /> <many-to-one name="Owner" column="OwnerId" /> </class> However if I specify lazy="false" in the mapping, Owner is always eagerly fetched. I can't remove many-to-one mapping because that also disables explicit loading or a query like from x in session.Query<Comment>() where x.Owner.Title == "hello" select x; I specified lazy="true" and set use_proxy_validator property to false. But that also eager loads Owner. Is there any way to load only Post entity?

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  • Spring MVC: How to get the remaining path after the controller path?

    - by Willis Blackburn
    I've spent over an hour trying to find the answer to this question, which seems like it should reflect a common use case, but I can't figure it out! Basically I am writing a file-serving controller using Spring MVC. The URLs are of the format http://www.bighost.com/serve/the/path/to/the/file.jpg, in which the part after "/serve" is the path to the requested file, which may have an arbitrary number of path segments. I have a controller like this: @Controller class ServerController { @RequestMapping(value = "/serve/???") public void serve(???) { } } What I am trying to figure out is: What do I use in place of "???" to make this work? I have two theories about how this should work. The first theory is that I could replace the first "???" in the RequestMapping with a path variable placeholder that has some special syntax meaning "capture to the end of the path." If a regular placeholder looks like "{path}" then maybe I could use "{path:**}" or "{path:/}" or something like that. Then I could use a @PathVariable annotation to refer to the path variable in the second "???". The other theory is that I could replace the first "???" with "**" (match anything) and that Spring would give me an API to obtain the remainder of the path (the part matching the "**"). But I can't find such an API. Thanks for any help you can provide!

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