Search Results

Search found 91302 results on 3653 pages for 'code behind'.

Page 1530/3653 | < Previous Page | 1526 1527 1528 1529 1530 1531 1532 1533 1534 1535 1536 1537  | Next Page >

• Looking for an email/report templating engine with database backend - for end-users ...

  - by RizwanK

  We have a number of customers that we have to send monthly invoices too. Right now, I'm managing a codebase that does SQL queries against our customer database and billing database and places that data into emails - and sends it. I grow weary of maintaining this every time we want to include a new promotion or change our customer service phone numbers. So, I'm looking for a replacement to move more of this into the hands of those requesting the changes. In my ideal world, I need : A WYSIWYG (man, does anyone even say that anymore?) email editor that generates templates based upon the output from a Database Query. The ability to drag and drop various fields from the database query into the email template. Display of sample email results with the database query. Web application, preferably not requiring IIS. Involve as little code as possible for the end-user, but allow basic functionality (i.e. arrays/for loops) Either comes with it's own email delivery engine, or writes output in a way that I can easily write a Python script to deliver the email. Support for generic Database Connectors. (I need MSSQL and MySQL) F/OSS So ... can anyone suggest a project like this, or some tools that'd be useful for rolling my own? (My current alternative idea is using something like ERB or Tenjin, having them write the code, but not having live-preview for the editor would suck...)

  Read the article

• Why is post() not updating the DOM after it returns? Wierd timing problem observed.

  - by Sephrial

  Hi all, I have the following code that is really bugging me, I'm thinking perhaps the post() function needs to be blocking. I am new to jQuery(latest version) and AJAX, but I'm using ColdFusion which returns some HTML in the data variable. var dataResult; var statusResult; $.post('fh_result.cfm',$('#myform').serialize(),function(data,status){ dataResult = data; statusResult = status; }); //alert(statusResult); if ('success' == statusResult) { alert(statusResult); $('#result').html(dataResult); } When I uncomment out the first alert, it returns 'undefined' but then it goes into the if block and the next alert box it says 'success'. If I comment out that line it doesn't make it into the if statement at all. My guess is that I want to make this a blocking call or something because I want to insert the data on the page after the post. I also have a problem when I re-write the top code as follows: var dataResult; var statusResult; $.post('fh_result.cfm',$('#myform').serialize(),function(data,status){ dataResult = data; statusResult = status; alert(statusResult); $('#result').html(dataResult); }); //alert(statusResult); Now in this case, the alert says 'success' when I comment out the second alert box. When I uncomment it out, I get one alert that says success and the other that says undefined, but this time it updates the DOM with the result of the postback as desired. How can I do this without the alert box?

  Read the article

• ASP.NET 'Check all checkboxes' control

  - by RUiHAO

  I am using visual studio 2005 c#, and doing server side coding. I have a list of checkboxes in my gridview via checkbox template. I have tried to assign a checkbox in my header template, and assigned a checkbox_checkchange method to make it such that when the checkbox at the header is checked, the list of checkboxes in the template will be checked as well. However, it does not work and I am not able to spot the mistake. Below is my code for my checkbox in header template: protected void CheckAllCB_CheckedChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { CheckBox chk = (CheckBox)GridView1.HeaderRow.FindControl("CheckAll"); if (chk.Checked) { for (int i = 0; i < GridView1.Rows.Count; i++) { CheckBox chkrow = (CheckBox)GridView1.Rows[i].FindControl("UserSelector"); chkrow.Checked = true; } } else { for (int i = 0; i < GridView1.Rows.Count; i++) { CheckBox chkrow = (CheckBox)GridView1.Rows[i].FindControl("UserSelector"); chkrow.Checked = false; } } } Thus I tried using a button to assign the checkall command instead. However, when I clicked on the button, the page does nothing but just refreshes itself. Below is my code for the checkall and uncheckall button: private void ToggleCheckState(bool checkState) { // Iterate through the Products.Rows property foreach (GridViewRow row in GridView1.Rows) { // Access the CheckBox CheckBox cb = (CheckBox)row.FindControl("UserSelector"); if (cb != null) cb.Checked = checkState; } } protected void CheckAll_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { ToggleCheckState(true); } protected void UncheckAll_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { ToggleCheckState(false); } Anyone can help me identify the mistake I did in my method? Thank you UserSelection GridView template:

  Read the article

• Windows File I/O Reading

  - by eyeanand

  Currently working on open/read images in VC++. Some examples i came across on the internet use Windows.h I/O routines like ReadFile...but there seems to be inconsistency in there declaration. Here's what i have got. //So i have this function to load file BYTE* LoadFile ( int* width, int* height, long* size, LPCWSTR bmpfile ) { BITMAPFILEHEADER bmpheader; BITMAPINFOHEADER bmpinfo; DWORD bytesread = 0; HANDLE file = CreateFile ( bmpfile , GENERIC_READ, FILE_SHARE_READ,NULL, OPEN_EXISTING, FILE_FLAG_SEQUENTIAL_SCAN, NULL ); if ( NULL == file ) return NULL; if ( ReadFile ( file, &bmpheader, sizeof ( BITMAPFILEHEADER ),&bytesread, NULL ) == false ) { CloseHandle ( file ); return NULL; } . . . return appropriate value; } Now the ReadFile API function is declared as follows in WinBase.h WINBASEAPI BOOL WINAPI ReadFile( In HANDLE hFile, Out LPVOID lpBuffer, In DWORD nNumberOfBytesToRead, _Out_opt_ LPDWORD lpNumberOfBytesRead, _Inout_opt_ LPOVERLAPPED lpOverlapped ); And in MSDN examples... They call this function like this. ReadFile(hFile, chBuffer, BUFSIZE, &dwBytesRead, NULL) Which expects that "bytesRead" is sort of out parameter. so it gives me number of bytes read. But in my code ..it is giving error message. 'ReadFile' : cannot convert parameter 4 from 'LPDWORD *' to 'LPDWORD' so i just initialized bytesRead to 0 and passed by value.( which is wrong..but just to check if it works ). then it gives this exception Unhandled exception at 0x774406ae in ImProc.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation writing location 0x00000000. Kindly suggest . Kindly tell if any code i missed out....including while forming the question itself. Thanks.

  Read the article

• Problem with inherited classes in C#

  - by Unniloct

  I have a class called "Entity," with two child classes: "Creature" and "Item." (I'm making a game.) Creature has two functions called "Attack," one for attacking Creatures, and one for attacking Items. So far, everything works well. Now I'm working on the shooting bit, so I have a function called SelectTarget(). It takes all of the Entities (both Creatures and Items) in the player's view that the player can shoot and lets the player choose one. So here lies the problem: SelectTarget() returns an Entity, but I need some code to figure out whether that Entity is a Creature or an Item, and process it appropriately. Since this question looks kind of empty without any code, and I'm not 100% sure my explanation is good enough, here's where I'm at: if (Input.Check(Key.Fire)) { Entity target = Game.State.SelectTarget.Run(); this.Draw(); if (target != null) { //Player.Attack(target); // This won't work, because I have: // Player.Attack((Creature)Target) // Player.Attack((Item)Target) // but nothing for Entity, the parent class to Creature and Item. return true; } } (If the way the game is laid out seems weird, it's a roguelike.)

  Read the article

• Should Wordpress be used to create a real estate listing site?

  - by John

  I have a real estate agent client who wants a website to list the properties he's selling. Although there are great 3rd party web apps out there that do this, he adamantly demands that I recreate a simple and custom website for him. I can do this quickly with a php framework like Code Igniter that comes with MVC, data access objects and data bind controllers. The database would be straightforward: t_page: generic content pages t_property: for each property on the market, has fields like address, price, #of bed rooms etc.. However, the client has heard many great things about Wordpress, and strongly advises that I build his real estate site with it. I've only used Wordpress to create blogs and relatively straightforward websites. SO I dont know how effective it is as a real estate property content management system or how effective it is for users to search for real estate properties based on attributes such as "# of bedrooms, square footage, is basement finished etc..." So my question is, is it a good idea to build a real estate agent website with Wordpress? Or should I try harder to convince him to build it with web framework like Code Igniter?

  Read the article

• Is there a better way to detab (expand tabs) using Perl?

  - by Uri

  I wanted to detab my source files. (Please, no flame about WHY I wanted to detab my sources. That's not the point :-) I couldn't find a utility to do that. Eclipse didn't do it for me, so I implemented my own. I couldn't fit it into a one liner (-e) program. I came with the following, which did the job just fine. while( <> ) { while( /\t/ ) { s/^(([^\t]{4})*)\t/$1 /; s/^((([^\t]{4})*)[^\t]{1})\t/$1 /; s/^((([^\t]{4})*)[^\t]{2})\t/$1 /; s/^((([^\t]{4})*)[^\t]{3})\t/$1 /; } print; } However, it makes me wonder if Perl - the champion language of processing text - is the right tool. The code doesn't seem very elegant. If I had to detab source that assume tab=8 spaces, the code would look even worse. Specifically because I can think of a deterministic state machine with only 4 states to do the job. I have a feeling that a more elegant solution exists. Am I missing a Perl idiom? In the spirit of TIMTOWTDI I'm curious about the other ways to do it. u.

  Read the article

• SQLite3 database doesn't actually insert data - iPhone

  - by user334934

  I'm trying to add a new entry into my database, but it's not working. There are no errors thrown, and the code that is supposed to be executed after the insertion runs, meaning there are no errors with the query. But still, nothing is added to the database. I've tried both prepared statements and the simpler sqlite3_exec and it's the same result. I know my database is being loaded because the info for the tableview (and subsequent tableviews) are loaded from the database. The connection isn't the problem. Also, the log of the sqlite3_last_insert_rowid(db) returns the correct number for the next row. But still, the information is not saved. Here's my code: db = [Database openDatabase]; NSString *query = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"INSERT INTO lists (name) VALUES('%@')", newField.text]; NSLog(@"Query: %@",query); sqlite3_stmt *statement; if (sqlite3_prepare_v2(db, [query UTF8String], -1, &statement, nil) == SQLITE_OK) { if(sqlite3_step(statement) == SQLITE_DONE){ NSLog(@"You created a new list!"); int newListId = sqlite3_last_insert_rowid(db); MyList *newList = [[MyList alloc] initWithName:newField.text idNumber:[NSNumber numberWithInt:newListId]]; [self.listArray addObject:newList]; [newList release]; [self.tableView reloadData]; sqlite3_finalize(statement); } else { NSAssert1(0, @"Error while inserting data. '%s'", sqlite3_errmsg(db)); } } [Database closeDatabase:db]; Again, no errors have been thrown. The prepare and step statements return SQLITE_OK and SQLITE_DONE respectively, yet nothing happens. Any help is appreciated!

  Read the article

• What is causing this template-related compile error? (c++)

  - by Setien

  When I try to compile this: #include <map> #include <string> template <class T> class ZUniquePool { typedef std::map< int, T* > ZObjectMap; ZObjectMap m_objects; public: T * Get( int id ) { ZObjectMap::const_iterator it = m_objects.find( id ); if( it == m_objects.end() ) { T * p = new T; m_objects[ id ] = p; return p; } return m_objects[ id ]; } }; int main( int argc, char * args ) { ZUniquePool< std::string > pool; return 0; } I get this: main.cpp: In member function ‘T* ZUniquePool<T>::Get(int)’: main.cpp:12: error: expected `;' before ‘it’ main.cpp:13: error: ‘it’ was not declared in this scope I'm using GCC 4.2.1 on Mac OS X. It works in VS2008. I'm wondering whether it might be a variation of this problem: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1364837/why-doesnt-this-c-template-code-compile But as my error output is only partially similar, and my code works in VS2008, I am not sure. Can anyone shed some light on what I am doing wrong?

  Read the article

• (iphone) How to access CGRect member variable inside c++ class?

  - by Eugene

  i have a c++ class with CGrect variable and i'm getting segfault when trying to access it. class Parent { //with some virtual functions/dtors }; class Child { public: void SetRect(CGRect rect) { mRect = rect; } CGRect GetRect() { return mRect; } int GetIndex() { return mIndex; } private: CGRect mRect; int mIndex; }; i'm doing CGRect rect = childPtr->GetRect(); from object c code and it segfaults. I printed *childPtr just before the call and rect looks fine with intended data value. int index = childPtr->GetIndex(); from same object c code(*.mm), works fine though. Any idea why I'm getting segfaults? Thank you edit - It's got something to do with virtual functions. (gdb) p singlePuzzlePiece-GetRect() Program received signal EXC_BAD_ACCESS, Could not access memory. Reason: KERN_PROTECTION_FAILURE at address: 0x00000001 0x00000001 in ?? () Cannot access memory at address 0x1 The program being debugged was signaled while in a function called from GDB. GDB remains in the frame where the signal was received. To change this behavior use "set unwindonsignal on" Evaluation of the expression containing the function (at 0x1) will be abandoned. (gdb) Somehow, the function is not properly compiled?

  Read the article

• Why can't I display same object in multiple viewports?

  - by user288973

  Hi, I'm pretty new to OpenGL. Was playing around with some code but can't figure out why the following will not produce two viewports with the same object view. Heres the code: glViewport(0, windowHeight/2, windowWidth/2, windowHeight); glScissor(0, windowHeight/2, windowWidth/2, windowHeight); glMatrixMode(GL_PROJECTION); glLoadIdentity(); gluPerspective( 45.0, (GLfloat)(windowWidth/2)/(GLfloat)(windowHeight/2), 0.1f, 500.0 ); glMatrixMode(GL_MODELVIEW); glLoadIdentity(); glClear(GL_DEPTH_BUFFER_BIT | GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT); drawParticleView(); glViewport(windowWidth/2, 0, windowWidth, windowHeight/2); glScissor(windowWidth/2, 0, windowWidth, windowHeight/2); glMatrixMode(GL_PROJECTION); glLoadIdentity(); gluPerspective( 45.0, (GLfloat)(windowWidth/2)/(GLfloat)(windowHeight/2), 0.1f, 500.0 ); glMatrixMode(GL_MODELVIEW); glLoadIdentity(); glClear(GL_DEPTH_BUFFER_BIT | GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT); drawParticleView(); drawParticleView() just draws an array of rectangles. The problem is that the second viewport is a squashed representation of the first. My window width is 1280 and height 960. I'm obviously doing something wrong but what? Thanks

  Read the article

• Adding different objects to array, but only one object repeating

  - by Carpetfizz

  I have a small piece of PHP code that goes through valid values and fetches information about them. It then pushes it to an array. For some reason, I'm only getting the last item of $row, repeated several times. When I try to print_r at #1 in the code, the expected values are outputted. However, at the end of the loop, or outside of it, when I try to print_r($ipArray), I'm only getting the last value repeated multiple times. Any help would be much appreciated! while($row = mysqli_fetch_array($getIpQuery, MYSQLI_NUM)){ for($x=0;$x<count($row);$x++) { $getIpInfo = mysqli_query($dbcon, "SELECT * FROM ipInfo WHERE address='$row[$x]'"); $retrievedInfo = mysqli_fetch_array($getIpInfo, MYSQLI_NUM); $ipInfo->ipAddress = $retrievedInfo[0]; $ipInfo->portNum = $retrievedInfo[1]; print_r($ipInfo); //#1: Works perfectly fine. array_push($ipArray,$ipInfo); } } print_r($ipArray); //this is where I'm getting an output of only the last element of `$row`. Thanks! ~Carpetfizz

  Read the article

• How can I use two or more COUNT()s in one SELECT statament?

  - by jjj

  i develop this code: SELECT COUNT(NewEmployee.EmployeeID), NewEmployee.EmployeeId,EmployeeName FROM NewEmployee INNER JOIN NewTimeAttendance ON NewEmployee.EmployeeID = NewTimeAttendance.EmployeeID and NewTimeAttendance.TotalTime is null and (NewTimeAttendance.note = '' or NewTimeAttendance.note is null) and (month = 1 or month = 2 or month = 3) GROUP BY NewEmployee.EmployeeID, EmployeeName order by EmployeeID from my previous two questions selecting null stuff and counting issue...that amazing code is working beautifully fine..but now i need to select more than one count... ...searched (google) .... found alias...tried: SELECT COUNT(NewEmployee.EmployeeID) as attenddays, COUNT(NewEmployee.EmployeeID) as empabsent , NewEmployee.EmployeeId,EmployeeName FROM NewEmployee INNER JOIN NewTimeAttendance ON empabsent =NewEmployee.EmployeeID = NewTimeAttendance.EmployeeID and NewTimeAttendance.TotalTime is null and (NewTimeAttendance.note = '' or NewTimeAttendance.note is null ) and (month=1 or month =2 or month = 3) , attenddays = NewTimeAttendance.EmployeeID and NewTimeAttendance.TotalTime is null and (NewTimeAttendance.note = '' or NewTimeAttendance.note is null ) and (month=1 or month =2 or month = 3) GROUP BY NewEmployee.EmployeeID, EmployeeName order by EmployeeID Incorrect syntax near '='. second try: SELECT COUNT(NewEmployee.EmployeeID) as attenddays, COUNT(NewEmployee.EmployeeID) as absentdays, NewEmployee.EmployeeId,EmployeeName FROM NewEmployee INNER JOIN NewTimeAttendance ON attenddays(NewEmployee.EmployeeID = NewTimeAttendance.EmployeeID and NewTimeAttendance.TotalTime is null and (NewTimeAttendance.note = '' or NewTimeAttendance.note is null ) and (month=1 or month =2 or month = 3)) , absentdays(NewEmployee.EmployeeID = NewTimeAttendance.EmployeeID and NewTimeAttendance.TotalTime is null and (NewTimeAttendance.note = '' or NewTimeAttendance.note is null ) and (month=1 or month =2 or month = 3)) GROUP BY NewEmployee.EmployeeID, EmployeeName order by EmployeeID Incorrect syntax near '='. not very good ideas... so ...help thanks in advance

  Read the article

• android service using SystemClock.elapsedRealTime() instead of SystemClock.uptimeMillis() works in emulator but not in samsung captivate ?

  - by Aleadam

  First question here in stackoverflow :) I'm running a little android 2.2 app to log cpu frequency usage. It is set up as a service that will write the data every 10 seconds using a new thread. The code for that part is very basic (see below). It works fine, except that it would not keep track of time while the phone is asleep (which, I know, is the expected behavior). Thus, I changed the code to use SystemClock.elapsedRealTime() instead. Problem is, in emulator both commands are equivalent, but in the phone the app will start the thread but it will never execute the mHandler.postAtTime command. Any advice regarding why this is happening or how to overcome the issue is greatly appreciated. PS: stopLog() is not being called. That's not the problem. mUpdateTimeTask = new Runnable() { public void run() { long millis = SystemClock.uptimeMillis() - mStartTime; int seconds = (int) (millis / 1000); int minutes = seconds / 60; seconds = seconds % 60; String freq = readCPU (); if (freq == null) Toast.makeText(CPU_log_Service.this, "CPU frequency is unreadable.\nPlease make sure the file has read rights.", Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); String str = new String ((minutes*60 + seconds) + ", " + freq + "\n"); if (!writeLog (str)) stopLog(); mHandler.postAtTime(this, mStartTime + (((minutes * 60) + seconds + 10) * 1000)); }}; mStartTime = SystemClock.uptimeMillis(); mHandler.removeCallbacks(mUpdateTimeTask); mHandler.postDelayed(mUpdateTimeTask, 100);

  Read the article

• Intelligently removing excess indention from a string

  - by TravisO

  I'm trying to remove some excessive indention from a string, in this case it's SQL, so it can be put into a log file. So I need the find the smallest amount of indention (aka tabs) and remove it from the front of each line, but the following code ends up printing out exactly the same, any ideas? In other words, I want to take the following SELECT blah FROM table WHERE id=1 and convert it to SELECT blah FROM table WHERE id=1 here's the code I tried and fails $sql = ' SELECT blah FROM table WHERE id=1 '; // it's most likely idented SQL, remove any idention $lines = explode("\n", $sql); $space_count = array(); foreach ( $lines as $line ) { preg_match('/^(\t+)/', $line, $matches); $space_count[] = strlen($matches[0]); } $min_tab_count = min($space_count); $place = 0; foreach ( $lines as $line ) { $lines[$place] = preg_replace('/^\t{'. $min_tab_count .'}/', '', $line); $place++; } $sql = implode("\n", $lines); print '<pre>'. $sql .'</pre>';

  Read the article

• Flash video plays well, but time and time-remaining are out of sync.

  - by sparkyfied

  Hey guys, Could be a known issue, an issue with my code or an oversight on my part. I have created a video player in flash. I have got it playing progressive and streaming over rtmp/rtmpt so that is all fine. My only issue is that when the video's are playing, the time-codes for time played and time remaining are not synced. So, if my video is 20 secs long and 5 have been played, time played will be 5secs, time remaining will be 16secs until it updates about half a second later. So even though they are both being set with the same line of code, there are not changing at the same time. The time played changes, then a split second later the time remaining changes. Anyone got any idea what this could be. Maybe a miscalculation on my part. Maybe I need to round up or down the remaining time. How can I sync the two times. I understand this is probably an tough question to answer, I have done my best to explain it. Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• rails route question

  - by badnaam

  I am trying to build a search functionality which at a high level works like this. 1 - I have a Search model, controller with a search_set action and search views/partial to render the search. 2 - At the home page a serach form is loaded with an empty search object or a search object initialized with session[:search] (which contains user search preferences, zip code, proximity, sort order, per page etc). This form has a post(:put) action to search_set. 3 - When a registered user performs a set the params of the search form are collected and a search record is saved against that user. If a unregistered user performs a search then the search set action simply stores the params in the session[:search]. In either case, the search is executed with the given params and the results are displayed. At this point the url of in the location bar is something like.. http://localhost:3000/searches/search_set?stype=1 At this point if the user simply hits enter on the location bar, I get an error that says "No action responded to show" I am guessing because the URL contains search_set which uses a put method and even though I have a search_show (:get) action (which simply reruns the search in the session or saved in the database) does not get called. How can I handle this situation where I can route a user hitting enter into the location bar to a get method? If this does not explain the problem , please let me know I can share more details/code etc. Thanks!

  Read the article

• Can anyone explain this impossible bit of PHP logic?

  - by user268208

  I'm attempting to debug a simple PHP script. Essentially, there's a variable which is defined with: $variable = ($_GET['variable'] == 'true') ? TRUE : FALSE; Then, in the view file, the following code is meant to display a box if $variable == TRUE: <? if ($variable == true) { ?> <p class="box">You have imported a new plan.</p> <? } ?> Now, even when that $variable, as shown by var_dump($variable); == FALSE, that HTML is printed between the if { } tags. To me, this defies logic. I simply can't figure out this problem out. Furthermore, this code works fine on many PHP4 and PHP5 installations except for one particular server running PHP5.2. Any possible suggestions? Leads? I'm pulling out my hair trying to figure this one out. Thank you.

  Read the article

• Page does update with details from the database after i hit a button

  - by swathi

  I have a code and the way it should work is,when they click on NEW CUSTOMER,it takes them to test1.php where in they enter the details and they hit submit.it saves all the details in properly in the database and when i go back and hit REFRESH ,it should come up with the customer details which they had entered in previously. But what happens is, when i click on the REFRESH,it refreshes the same old page which is empty.I wanted to find out where am i missing the logic.Thanks in advance. The sample code would be <tr> <td class="tdvisitbig" colspan="5">THIS IS A TEST</td> </tr> <tr> <td class='tdvisitbig' colspan="5"><input type="button" onClick="openVisit('test1.php?id=<?=$key?>&name=<?=$name?>');return false;" value="NEW CUSTOMER" class="submit">&nbsp;<input type="button" value="REFRESH" name="add_xyz" class="submit" onClick="document.add.target='_self';document.add.action='test3.php?redirect=visit&section=test page';document.add.submit();"></td> </tr> <? $q = "SELECT address,customernum,status FROM customer WHERE name='$name' ORDER BY customernum"; $r = mysql_query( $q , $Link ); while( $rw = mysql_fetch_assoc( $r ) ) { extract( $rw ); ?> <tr> <? } ?>

  Read the article

• jQuery errorContainer practice

  - by Eyla

  I'm trying to be able to place the error message when using jQuery validation to a asp.net label if the text message is empty. please advice how to modify my code to get that!! here is my code: <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="head" runat="server"> <script src="js/jquery-1.4.1.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="js/jquery.validate.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#aspnetForm").validate({ errorContainer: "#<%=TextBox1 %>", errorLabelContainer: "#<%=TextBox1 %> #<%=Label1 %>", wrapper: "li", debug: true, submitHandler: function() { alert("Submitted!") } }) }); </script> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder1" runat="server"> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content3" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder2" runat="server"> <p style="height: 313px"> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server" class="required"></asp:TextBox> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text="Label" ></asp:Label> </p> </asp:Content>

  Read the article

• Is it possible to exclude some elements from parsing when using regular expression and .replace()?

  - by Fletus Mefitis

  <script language="javascript"> $("div.post-content , .parsedsig").each(function(){ if($(this).html().indexOf("[/tabulaScriptum]") != -1) { pattern = /\[tabulaScriptum=(.*?)\]([^\[]*)\[\/tabulaScriptum\]/gi $(this).html($(this).html().replace(pattern, "<div class='tabulaScriptum'><div class='tabulaNomen'>$1</div><div class='tabulaImpleo'>$2</div></div>")) } }); </script> This script is working perfectly, except for one thing... I need not to replace [tabulaScriptum=][/tabulaScriptum] in certain elements. For example, I don't want to replace those "tags" in element that has class .code-box. Is it possible? Clarification: element .code-box is located within .post-content. Clarification #2: this script creates simple division spoiler. .tabulaScriptum is spoier's body, .tabulaNomen is spoiler's name and button which, in turn, reveals(or hides) .tabulaImpleo on click. Reveal\hide script is located in some other place, and I didn't post it here since it doesn't really matter. Clarification #3: http://jsfiddle.net/PRtsw/1/ fiddle.

  Read the article

• Template function overloading with identical signatures, why does this work?

  - by user1843978

  Minimal program: #include <stdio.h> #include <type_traits> template<typename S, typename T> int foo(typename T::type s) { return 1; } template<typename S, typename T> int foo(S s) { return 2; } int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { int x = 3; printf("%d\n", foo<int, std::enable_if<true, int>>(x)); return 0; } output: 1 Why doesn't this give a compile error? When the template code is generated, wouldn't the functions int foo(typename T::type search) and int foo(S& search) have the same signature? If you change the template function signatures a little bit, it still works (as I would expect given the example above): template<typename S, typename T> void foo(typename T::type s) { printf("a\n"); } template<typename S, typename T> void foo(S s) { printf("b\n"); } Yet this doesn't and yet the only difference is that one has an int signature and the other is defined by the first template parameter. template<typename T> void foo(typename T::type s) { printf("a\n"); } template<typename T> void foo(int s) { printf("b\n"); } I'm using code similar to this for a project I'm working on and I'm afraid that there's a subtly to the language that I'm not understanding that will cause some undefined behavior in certain cases. I should also mention that it does compile on both Clang and in VS11 so I don't think it's just a compiler bug.

  Read the article

• How do I trust a self signed cert using https?

  - by dave

  Edit: I originally thought the server's certificate was self signed. Turns out it was signed by a self-signed CA certificate. I'm trying to write a Node.js application that accesses an HTTPS site that's protected using a self-signed certificate certificate signed by a private, self-signed CA certificate. I'd also like to not completely disable certificate checking. I tried putting the self signed certificate server's certificate in the request options, but that doesn't seem to be working. Anyone know how to do this? I expect the following code to print statusCode 200, but instead it prints [Error: SELF_SIGNED_CERT_IN_CHAIN]. I've tried similar code with request with the same results. var https = require('https'); var fs = require('fs'); var opts = { hostname: host, port: 443, path: '/', method: 'GET', ca: fs.readFileSync(serverCertificateFile, 'utf-8') }; var req = https.request(opts, function (res) { console.log('statusCode', res.statusCode); }); req.end(); req.on('error', function (err) { console.error(err); });

  Read the article

• Application widget with bundle?

  - by Varand pezeshk

  Hey guys, I have application widget, and I want to send some data to the intent that is attached to PendingIntent, by clicking the widget. here's my code final int N = appWidgetIds.length; for (int i = 0; i < N; i++) { int appWidgetId = appWidgetIds[i]; Intent intent = new Intent(context, UpComingBDays.class); if(bdaysAmount != 0){ Bundle bundle = new Bundle(); bundle.putIntegerArrayList("WIDGETIDS", tempAllIDS); intent.putExtras(bundle); System.out.println("bund insertedddddddddddddd....................."); } PendingIntent pendingIntent = PendingIntent.getActivity(context, 0, intent, 0); RemoteViews remoteView = new RemoteViews(context.getPackageName(), R.layout.widget_layout); remoteView.setTextViewText(R.id.widget_text, finalText4TextView); remoteView.setOnClickPendingIntent(R.id.WidgetImageButton, pendingIntent); appWidgetManager.updateAppWidget(appWidgetId, remoteView); } super.onUpdate(context, appWidgetManager, appWidgetIds); I realize always "bund insertedddddddddd......" is printed on CatLog, but the intent's bundle is null. what is incorrect? how can i send data by clicking on widget. plz dont offer to use services as my code does not have anything with it. many thanks.

  Read the article

• Do Distributed Version Control Systems promote poor backup habits?

  - by John

  In a DVCS, each developer has an entire repository on their workstation, to which they can commit all their changes. Then they can merge their repo with someone else's, or clone it, or whatever (as I understand it, I'm not a DVCS user). To me that flags a side-effect, of being more vulnerable to forgetting to backup. In a traditional centralised system, both you as a developer and the people in charge know that if you commit something, it's held on a central server which can have decent backup solutions in place. But using a DVCS, it seems you only have to push your work to a server when you feel like sharing it. It's all very well you have the repo locally so you can work on your feature branch for a month without bothering anyone, but it means (I think) that checking in your code to the repo is not enough, you have to remember to do regular pushes to a backed-up server. It also means, doesn't it, that a team lead can't see all those nice SVN commit emails to keep a rough idea what's going on in the code-base? Is any of this a real issue?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 1526 1527 1528 1529 1530 1531 1532 1533 1534 1535 1536 1537  | Next Page >