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• Executing a .NET Managed Assembly from SQL Server 2008 - Pro's, Con's & Recommendations

  - by RPM1984

  Hi guys, looking for opinions/recommendations/links for the following scenario im currently facing. The Platform: .NET 4.0 Web Application SQL Server 2008 The Task: Overhaul a component of the system that performs (fairly) complex mathematical operations based on a specific user activity, and updates numerous tables in the database. A common user activity might be "Bob" decides to post a forum topic. This results in (the end-solution) needing to look at various factors (about the post he did), then after doing some math based on lookup values/ratios as well as other data in the database, inserting some other data as a result of these operations. The Options: Ok - so here's what im thinking. Although it would be much easier to do this in C# (LINQ-SQL) it doesnt make much sense as the majority of the computations are based on values in the db, and it will get difficult to control/optimize/debug the LINQ over time. Hence, im leaning towards created a managed assembly (C# Class Library) that contains the lookup values (constants) as well as leveraging the math classes in the existing .NET BCL. Basically i'd expose a few methods that can be called by the T-SQL Stored Procedures. This to me has the following advantages: Simplicity of math. Do complex math in .NET vs complex math in T-SQL. No brainer. =) Abstraction of computatations, configurable "lookup" values and business logic from raw T-SQL. T-SQL only needs to care about the data, simplifying the stored procedures and making it easier to maintain. When it needs to do math it delegates off to the managed assembly. So, having said that - ive never done this before (call .NET assmembly from T-SQL), and after some googling the best site i could come up with is here, which is useful but outdated. So - what am i asking? Well, firstly - i need some better references on how to actually do this. "This" being how to call a C# .NET 4 Assembly from within T-SQL Stored Procedures in SQL Server 2008. Secondly, who out there has done this, what problems (if any) did you face? Realize this may be difficult to provide a "correct answer", so ill try to give it to whoever gives me the answer with a combination of good links and a list of pro's/con's/problems with this implementation. Cheers!

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• Using a function with reference as a function with pointers?

  - by epatel

  Today I stumbled over a piece of code that looked horrifying to me. The pieces was chattered in different files, I have tried write the gist of it in a simple test case below. The code base is routinely scanned with FlexeLint on a daily basis, but this construct has been laying in the code since 2004. The thing is that a function implemented with a parameter passing using references is called as a function with a parameter passing using pointers...due to a function cast. The construct has worked since 2004 on Irix and now when porting it actually do work on Linux/gcc too. My question now. Is this a construct one can trust? I can understand if compiler constructors implement the reference passing as it was a pointer, but is it reliable? Are there hidden risks? Should I change the fref(..) to use pointers and risk braking anything in the process? What to you think? #include <iostream> using namespace std; // ---------------------------------------- // This will be passed as a reference in fref(..) struct string_struct { char str[256]; }; // ---------------------------------------- // Using pointer here! void fptr(const char *str) { cout << "fptr: " << str << endl; } // ---------------------------------------- // Using reference here! void fref(string_struct &str) { cout << "fref: " << str.str << endl; } // ---------------------------------------- // Cast to f(const char*) and call with pointer void ftest(void (*fin)()) { void (*fcall)(const char*) = (void(*)(const char*))fin; fcall("Hello!"); } // ---------------------------------------- // Let's go for a test int main() { ftest((void (*)())fptr); // test with fptr that's using pointer ftest((void (*)())fref); // test with fref that's using reference return 0; }

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• Rails. Putting update logic in your migrations

  - by Daniel Abrahamsson

  A couple of times I've been in the situation where I've wanted to refactor the design of some model and have ended up putting update logic in migrations. However, as far as I've understood, this is not good practice (especially since you are encouraged to use your schema file for deployment, and not your migrations). How do you deal with these kind of problems? To clearify what I mean, say I have a User model. Since I thought there would only be two kinds of users, namely a "normal" user and an administrator, I chose to use a simple boolean field telling whether the user was an adminstrator or not. However, after I while I figured I needed some third kind of user, perhaps a moderator or something similar. In this case I add a UserType model (and the corresponding migration), and a second migration for removing the "admin" flag from the user table. And here comes the problem. In the "add_user_type_to_users" migration I have to map the admin flag value to a user type. Additionally, in order to do this, the user types have to exist, meaning I can not use the seeds file, but rather create the user types in the migration (also considered bad practice). Here comes some fictional code representing the situation: class CreateUserTypes < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :user_types do |t| t.string :name, :nil => false, :unique => true end #Create basic types (can not put in seed, because of future migration dependency) UserType.create!(:name => "BASIC") UserType.create!(:name => "MODERATOR") UserType.create!(:name => "ADMINISTRATOR") end def self.down drop_table :user_types end end class AddTypeIdToUsers < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up add_column :users, :type_id, :integer #Determine type via the admin flag basic = UserType.find_by_name("BASIC") admin = UserType.find_by_name("ADMINISTRATOR") User.all.each {|u| u.update_attribute(:type_id, (u.admin?) ? admin.id : basic.id)} #Remove the admin flag remove_column :users, :admin #Add foreign key execute "alter table users add constraint fk_user_type_id foreign key (type_id) references user_types (id)" end def self.down #Re-add the admin flag add_column :users, :admin, :boolean, :default => false #Reset the admin flag (this is the problematic update code) admin = UserType.find_by_name("ADMINISTRATOR") execute "update users set admin=true where type_id=#{admin.id}" #Remove foreign key constraint execute "alter table users drop foreign key fk_user_type_id" #Drop the type_id column remove_column :users, :type_id end end As you can see there are two problematic parts. First the row creation part in the first model, which is necessary if I would like to run all migrations in a row, then the "update" part in the second migration that maps the "admin" column to the "type_id" column. Any advice?

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• RenderTargetBitmap + Resource'd VisualBrush = incomplete image

  - by Will

  I've found a new twist on the "Visual to RenderTargetBitmap" question! I'm rendering previews of WPF stuff for a designer. That means I need to take a WPF visual and render it to a bitmap without that visual ever being displayed. Got a nice little method to do it like to see it here it goes private static BitmapSource CreateBitmapSource(FrameworkElement visual) { Border b = new Border { Width = visual.Width, Height = visual.Height }; b.BorderBrush = Brushes.Black; b.BorderThickness = new Thickness(1); b.Background = Brushes.White; b.Child = visual; b.Measure(new Size(b.Width, b.Height)); b.Arrange(new Rect(b.DesiredSize)); RenderTargetBitmap rtb = new RenderTargetBitmap( (int)b.ActualWidth, (int)b.ActualHeight, 96, 96, PixelFormats.Pbgra32); // intermediate step here to ensure any VisualBrushes are rendered properly DrawingVisual dv = new DrawingVisual(); using (var dc = dv.RenderOpen()) { var vb = new VisualBrush(b); dc.DrawRectangle(vb, null, new Rect(new Point(), b.DesiredSize)); } rtb.Render(dv); return rtb; } Works fine, except for one leeetle thing... if my FrameworkElement has a VisualBrush, that brush doesn't end up in the final rendered bitmap. Something like this: <UserControl.Resources> <VisualBrush x:Key="LOLgo"> <VisualBrush.Visual> <!-- blah blah --> <Grid Background="{StaticResource LOLgo}"> <!-- yadda yadda --> Everything else renders to the bitmap, but that VisualBrush just won't show. The obvious google solutions have been attempted and have failed. Even the ones that specifically mention VisualBrushes missing from RTB'd bitmaps. I have a sneaky suspicion this might be caused by the fact that its a Resource, and that lazy resource isn't being inlined. So a possible fix would be to, somehow(???), force resolution of all static resource references before rendering. But I have absolutely no idea how to do that. Anybody have a fix for this?

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• Create class instance in assembly from string name

  - by Arcadian

  I'm not sure if this is possible, and I'm quite new to using assemblies in C#.NET. What I would like to do is to create an instance of a class when supplied the string name of that class. Something like this: using MyAssembly; namespace MyNameSpace { Class MyClass { int MyValue1; int MyValue2; public MyClass(string myTypeName) { foreach(Type type in MyAssembly) { if((string)type == myTypeName) { //create a new instance of the type } } AssignInitialValues(//the type created above) } //Here I use an abstract type which the type above inherits from private void AssignInitialValues(AbstractType myClass) { this.value1 = myClass.value1; this.value2 = myClass.value2; } } } Obviously you cannot compare strings to types but it illustrates what I'm trying to do: create a type from a supplied string. Any thoughts? EDIT: After attempting: var myObject = (AbstractType) Activator.CreateInstance(null, myTypeName); AssignInitialValues(myObject); I get a number of errors: Inconsistent accessibility: parameter type 'MyAssembly.AbstractType' is less accessible than method 'MyNameSpace.MyClass.AssignInitialValues(MyAssembly.AstractType)' 'MyAssembly.AstractType' is inaccessible due to it's protection level The type or namespace name 'MyAssembly' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) The type or namespace name 'AbstractType' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) Not exactly sure why it can't find the assembly; I've added a reference to the assembly and I use a Using Directive for the namespace in the assembly. As for the protection level, it's calling classes (or rather the constructors of classes) which can only be public. Any clues on where the problem is? UPDATE: After looking through several articles on SO I came across this: http://stackoverflow.com/a/1632609/360627 Making the AbstractTypeclass public solved the issue of inconsistent accessibility. The new compiler error is this: Cannot convert type 'System.Runtime.Remoting.ObjectHandle' to 'MyAssembly.AbstractType' The line it references is this one: var myObject = (AbstractType) Activator.CreateInstance(null, myTypeName); Using .Unwrap() get's me past this error and I think it's the right way to do it (uncertain). However, when running the program I then get a TypeLoadException when this code is called. TypeLoadException: Could not load type ‘AbstractType’ from assembly ‘MyNameSpace'... Right away I can spot that the type its looking for is correct but the assembly it's looking in is wrong. Looking up the Activator.CreateInstance(String, String) method revealed that the null as the first argument means that the method will look in the executing assembly. This is contrary to the required behavior as in the original post. I've tried using MyAssembly as the first argument but this produces the error: 'MyAssembly' is a 'namespace' but is used like a 'variable' Any thoughts on how to fix this?

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• Transaction on Entity FrameWork Refactoring and best performance how can i?

  - by programmerist

  i try to use transaction in Entity FrameWork. i have 3 tables Personel, Prim, Finans. in Prim table you look SatisTutari (int) if i add data in SatisTutari.Text instead of int value adding float value. Trannsaction must be run! Everything is ok but how can i refactoring or give best performance or best writing Transaction coding! i have 3 table so i have 3 entities: CREATE TABLE Personel (PersonelID integer PRIMARY KEY identity not null, Ad varchar(30), Soyad varchar(30), Meslek varchar(100), DogumTarihi datetime, DogumYeri nvarchar(100), PirimToplami float); Go create TABLE Prim (PrimID integer PRIMARY KEY identity not null, PersonelID integer Foreign KEY references Personel(PersonelID), SatisTutari int, Prim float, SatisTarihi Datetime); Go CREATE TABLE Finans (ID integer PRIMARY KEY identity not null, Tutar float); Personel, Prim,Finans my tables. if you look Prim table you can see Prim value float value if i write a textbox not float value my transaction must run. protected void btnSave_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { using (TestEntities testCtx = new TestEntities()) { using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope()) { Personel personel = new Personel(); Prim prim = new Prim(); Finans finans = new Finans(); //-----------------------------------------------------------------------Step 1 personel.Ad = txtName.Text; personel.Soyad = txtSurName.Text; personel.Meslek = txtMeslek.Text; personel.DogumTarihi = DateTime.Parse(txtSatisTarihi.Text); personel.DogumYeri = txtDogumYeri.Text; personel.PirimToplami = float.Parse(txtPrimToplami.Text); testCtx.AddToPersonel(personel); testCtx.SaveChanges(); //----------------------------------------------------------------------- step 2 prim.PersonelID = personel.PersonelID; prim.SatisTutari = int.Parse(txtSatisTutari.Text); prim.SatisTarihi = DateTime.Parse(txtSatisTarihi.Text); prim.Prim1 = double.Parse(txtPrim.Text); finans.Tutar = prim.SatisTutari * prim.Prim1; testCtx.AddToPrim(prim); testCtx.SaveChanges(); //----------------------------------------------------------------------- step 3 lblTutar.Text = finans.Tutar.Value.ToString(); testCtx.AddToFinans(finans); testCtx.SaveChanges(); scope.Complete(); } } How can i rearrange codes. i need best practice refactoring and best solution for reading easly and performance!!!

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• Autocomplete server-side implementation

  - by toluju

  What is a fast and efficient way to implement the server-side component for an autocomplete feature in an html input box? I am writing a service to autocomplete user queries in our web interface's main search box, and the completions are displayed in an ajax-powered dropdown. The data we are running queries against is simply a large table of concepts our system knows about, which matches roughly with the set of wikipedia page titles. For this service obviously speed is of utmost importance, as responsiveness of the web page is important to the user experience. The current implementation simply loads all concepts into memory in a sorted set, and performs a simple log(n) lookup on a user keystroke. The tailset is then used to provide additional matches beyond the closest match. The problem with this solution is that it does not scale. It currently is running up against the VM heap space limit (I've set -Xmx2g, which is about the most we can push on our 32 bit machines), and this prevents us from expanding our concept table or adding more functionality. Switching to 64-bit VMs on machines with more memory isn't an immediate option. I've been hesitant to start working on a disk-based solution as I am concerned that disk seek time will kill performance. Are there possible solutions that will let me scale better, either entirely in memory or with some fast disk-backed implementations? Edits: @Gandalf: For our use case it is important the the autocompletion is comprehensive and isn't just extra help for the user. As for what we are completing, it is a list of concept-type pairs. For example, possible entries are [("Microsoft", "Software Company"), ("Jeff Atwood", "Programmer"), ("StackOverflow.com", "Website")]. We are using Lucene for the full search once a user selects an item from the autocomplete list, but I am not yet sure Lucene would work well for the autocomplete itself. @Glen: No databases are being used here. When I'm talking about a table I just mean the structured representation of my data. @Jason Day: My original implementation to this problem was to use a Trie, but the memory bloat with that was actually worse than the sorted set due to needing a large number of object references. I'll read on the ternary search trees to see if it could be of use.

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• Strange behavior of move with strings

  - by Umair Ahmed

  I am testing some enhanced string related functions with which I am trying to use move as a way to copy strings around for faster, more efficient use without delving into pointers. While testing a function for making a delimited string from a TStringList, I encountered a strange issue. The compiler referenced the bytes contained through the index when it was empty and when a string was added to it through move, index referenced the characters contained. Here is a small downsized barebone code sample:- unit UI; interface uses System.SysUtils, System.Types, System.UITypes, System.Rtti, System.Classes, System.Variants, FMX.Types, FMX.Controls, FMX.Forms, FMX.Dialogs, FMX.Layouts, FMX.Memo; type TForm1 = class(TForm) Results: TMemo; procedure FormCreate(Sender: TObject); end; var Form1: TForm1; implementation {$R *.fmx} function StringListToDelimitedString ( const AStringList: TStringList; const ADelimiter: String ): String; var Str : String; Temp1 : NativeInt; Temp2 : NativeInt; DelimiterSize : Byte; begin Result := ' '; Temp1 := 0; DelimiterSize := Length ( ADelimiter ) * 2; for Str in AStringList do Temp1 := Temp1 + Length ( Str ); SetLength ( Result, Temp1 ); Temp1 := 1; for Str in AStringList do begin Temp2 := Length ( Str ) * 2; // Here Index references bytes in Result Move ( Str [1], Result [Temp1], Temp2 ); // From here the index seems to address characters instead of bytes in Result Temp1 := Temp1 + Temp2; Move ( ADelimiter [1], Result [Temp1], DelimiterSize ); Temp1 := Temp1 + DelimiterSize; end; end; procedure TForm1.FormCreate(Sender: TObject); var StrList : TStringList; Str : String; begin // Test 1 : StringListToDelimitedString StrList := TStringList.Create; Str := ''; StrList.Add ( 'Hello1' ); StrList.Add ( 'Hello2' ); StrList.Add ( 'Hello3' ); StrList.Add ( 'Hello4' ); Str := StringListToDelimitedString ( StrList, ';' ); Results.Lines.Add ( Str ); StrList.Free; end; end. Please devise a solution and if possible, some explanation. Alternatives are welcome too.

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• question about book example - Java Concurrency in Practice, Listing 4.12

  - by mike

  Hi, I am working through an example in Java Concurrency in Practice and am not understanding why a concurrent-safe container is necessary in the following code. I'm not seeing how the container "locations" 's state could be modified after construction; so since it is published through an 'unmodifiableMap' wrapper, it appears to me that an ordinary HashMap would suffice. EG, it is accessed concurrently, but the state of the map is only accessed by readers, no writers. The value fields in the map are syncronized via delegation to the 'SafePoint' class, so while the points are mutable, the keys for the hash, and their associated values (references to SafePoint instances) in the map never change. I think my confusion is based on what precisely the state of the collection is in the problem. Thanks!! -Mike Listing 4.12, Java Concurrency in Practice, (this listing available as .java here, and also in chapter form via google) /////////////begin code @ThreadSafe public class PublishingVehicleTracker { private final Map<String, SafePoint> locations; private final Map<String, SafePoint> unmodifiableMap; public PublishingVehicleTracker( Map<String, SafePoint> locations) { this.locations = new ConcurrentHashMap<String, SafePoint>(locations); this.unmodifiableMap = Collections.unmodifiableMap(this.locations); } public Map<String, SafePoint> getLocations() { return unmodifiableMap; } public SafePoint getLocation(String id) { return locations.get(id); } public void setLocation(String id, int x, int y) { if (!locations.containsKey(id)) throw new IllegalArgumentException( "invalid vehicle name: " + id); locations.get(id).set(x, y); } } // monitor protected helper-class @ThreadSafe public class SafePoint { @GuardedBy("this") private int x, y; private SafePoint(int[] a) { this(a[0], a[1]); } public SafePoint(SafePoint p) { this(p.get()); } public SafePoint(int x, int y) { this.x = x; this.y = y; } public synchronized int[] get() { return new int[] { x, y }; } public synchronized void set(int x, int y) { this.x = x; this.y = y; } } ///////////end code

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• Autoconf -- including a static library (newbie)

  - by EB

  I am trying to migrate my application from manual build to autoconf, which is working very nicely so far. But I have one static library that I can't figure out how to integrate. That library will NOT be located in the usual library locations - the location of the binary (.a file) and header (.h file) will be given as a configure argument. (Notably, even if I move the .a file to /usr/lib or anywhere else I can think of, it still won't work.) It is also not named traditionally (it does not start with "lib" or "l"). Manual compilation is working with these (directory is not predictable - this is just an example): gcc ... -I/home/john/mystuff /home/john/mystuff/helper.a (Uh, I actually don't understand why the .a file is referenced directly, not with -L or anything. Yes, I have a half-baked understanding of building C programs.) So, in my configure.ac, I can use the relevant configure argument to successfully find the header (.h file) using AC_CHECK_HEADER. Inside the AC_CHECK_HEADER I then add the location to CPFLAGS and the #include of the header file in the actual C code picks it up nicely. Given a configure argument that has been put into $location and the name of the needed files are helper.h and helper.a (which are both in the same directory), here is what works so far: AC_CHECK_HEADER([$location/helper.h], [AC_DEFINE([HAVE_HELPER_H], [1], [found helper.h]) CFLAGS="$CFLAGS -I$location"]) Where I run into difficulties is getting the binary (.a file) linked in. No matter what I try, I always get an error about undefined references to the function calls for that library. I'm pretty sure it's a linkage issue, because I can fuss with the C code and make an intentional error in the function calls to that library which produces earlier errors that indicate that the function prototypes have been loaded and used to compile. I tried adding the location that contains the .a file to LDFLAGS and then doing a AC_CHECK_LIB but it is not found. Maybe my syntax is wrong, or maybe I'm missing something more fundamental, which would not be surprising since I'm a newbie and don't really know what I'm doing. Here is what I have tried: AC_CHECK_HEADER([$location/helper.h], [AC_DEFINE([HAVE_HELPER_H], [1], [found helper.h]) CFLAGS="$CFLAGS -I$location"; LDFLAGS="$LDFLAGS -L$location"; AC_CHECK_LIB(helper)]) No dice. AC_CHECK_LIB is looking for -lhelper I guess (or libhelper?) so I'm not sure if that's a problem, so I tried this, too (omit AC_CHECK_LIB and include the .a directly in LDFLAGS), without luck: AC_CHECK_HEADER([$location/helper.h], [AC_DEFINE([HAVE_HELPER_H], [1], [found helper.h]) CFLAGS="$CFLAGS -I$location"; LDFLAGS="$LDFLAGS -L$location/helper.a"]) To emulate the manual compilation, I tried removing the -L but that doesn't help: AC_CHECK_HEADER([$location/helper.h], [AC_DEFINE([HAVE_HELPER_H], [1], [found helper.h]) CFLAGS="$CFLAGS -I$location"; LDFLAGS="$LDFLAGS $location/helper.a"]) I tried other combinations and permutations, but I think I might be missing something more fundamental....

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• How to access static members in a Velocity template?

  - by matt b

  I'm not sure if there is a way to do this in Velocity or not: I have a User POJO which a property named Status, which looks like an enum (but it is not, since I am stuck on Java 1.4), the definition looks something like this: public class User { // default status to User private Status status = Status.USER; public void setStatus(Status status) { this.status = status; } public Status getStatus() { return status; } And Status is a static inner class: public static final class Status { private String statusString; private Status(String statusString) { this.statusString = statusString; } public final static Status USER = new Status("user"); public final static Status ADMIN = new Status("admin"); public final static Status STATUS_X = new Status("blah"); //.equals() and .hashCode() implemented as well } With this pattern, a user status can easily be tested in a conditional such as if(User.Status.ADMIN.equals(user.getStatus())) ... ... without having to reference any constants for the status ID, any magic numbers, etc. However, I can't figure out how to test these conditionals in my Velocity template with VTL. I'd like to just print a simple string based upon the user's status, such as: Welcome <b>${user.name}</b>! <br/> <br/> #if($user.status == com.company.blah.User.Status.USER) You are a regular user #elseif($user.status == com.company.blah.User.Status.ADMIN) You are an administrator #etc... #end But this throws an Exception that looks like org.apache.velocity.exception.ParseErrorException: Encountered "User" at webpages/include/dashboard.inc[line 10, column 21] Was expecting one of: "[" ... From the VTL User Guide, there is no mention of accessing a Java class/static member directly in VTL, it appears that the right hand side (RHS) of a conditional can only be a number literal, string literal, property reference, or method reference. So is there any way that I can access static Java properties/references in a Velocity template? I'm aware that as a workaround, I could embed the status ID or some other identifier as a reference in my controller (this is a web MVC application using Velocity as the View technology), but I strongly do not want to embed any magic numbers or constants in the view layer.

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• Assembly Load and loading the "sub-modules" dependencies - "cannot find the file specified"

  - by Ted

  There are several questions out there that ask the same question. However the answers they received I cannot understand, so here goes: Similar questions: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1874277/dynamically-load-assembly-and-manually-force-path-to-get-referenced-assemblies ; http://stackoverflow.com/questions/22012/loading-assemblies-and-its-dependencies-closed The question in short: I need to figure out how dependencies, ie References in my modules can be loaded dynamically. Right now I am getting "The system cannot find the file specified" on Assemblies referenced in my so called modules. I cannot really get how to use the AssemblyResolve event... The longer version I have one application, MODULECONTROLLER, that loads separate modules. These "separate modules" are located in well-known subdirectories, like appBinDir\Modules\Module1 appBinDir\Modules\Module2 Each directory contains all the DLLs that exists in the bin-directory of those projects after a build. So the MODULECONTROLLER loads all the DLLs contained in those folders using this code: byte[] bytes = File.ReadAllBytes(dllFileFullPath); Assembly assembly = null; assembly = Assembly.Load(bytes); I am, as you can see, loading the byte[]-array (so I dont lock the DLL-files). Now, in for example MODULE1, I have a static reference called MyGreatXmlProtocol. The MyGreatXmlProtocol.dll then also exists in the directory appBinDir\Modules\Module1 and is loaded using the above code When code in the MODULE1 tries to use this MyGreatXmlProtocol, I get: Could not load file or assembly 'MyGreatXmlProtocol, Version=1.0.3797.26527, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. So, in a post (like this one) they say that To my understanding reflection will load the main assembly and then search the GAC for the referenced assemblies, if it cannot find it there, you can then incorparate an assemblyResolve event: First; is it really needed to use the AssemblyResolve-event to make this work? Shouldnt my different MODULEs themself load their DLLs, as they are statically referenced? Second; if AssemblyResolve is the way to go - how do I use it? I have attached a handler to the Event but I never get anything on MyGreatXmlProctol... === EDIT === CODE regarding the AssemblyResolve-event handler: public GUI() { InitializeComponent(); AppDomain.CurrentDomain.AssemblyResolve += new ResolveEventHandler(CurrentDomain_AssemblyResolve); ... } // Assembly CurrentDomain_AssemblyResolve(object sender, ResolveEventArgs args) { Console.WriteLine(args.Name); return null; } Hope I wasnt too fuzzy =) Thx

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• How to put a background image on GridBagLayout

  - by Loligans

  I am trying to work with layout managers for the first time, and they are just kicking me in the teeth. I am trying to make a background image and then put buttons on top, using GridBagLayout, if there is a a better layoutmanager please do tell. As for trying to learn how to use layout managers, its very difficult and any learning references would also be much appreciated. This is what it looks like currently, I can get the frame to show the full image, but when i use gridlayout manager, it does that public void addComponentsToPane(Container pane){ BackgroundImage image = new BackgroundImage(); JButton button1, button2, button3, button4, button5; pane.setLayout(new GridBagLayout()); GridBagConstraints c = new GridBagConstraints(); if(shouldFill){ c.fill = GridBagConstraints.NONE; } button1 = new JButton("Button 1"); if (shouldWeightX) { c.weightx = 0.5; } c.fill = GridBagConstraints.HORIZONTAL; c.gridx = 1; c.gridy = 0; button1.setOpaque(false); pane.add(button1, c); button2 = new JButton("Button 2"); c.fill = GridBagConstraints.HORIZONTAL; c.weightx = 0.5; c.gridx = 0; c.gridy = 0; button2.setOpaque(false); pane.add(button2, c); button3 = new JButton("Button 3"); c.fill = GridBagConstraints.HORIZONTAL; c.weightx = 0.5; c.gridx = 2; c.gridy = 0; button3.setOpaque(false); pane.add(button3, c); button4 = new JButton("Long-Named Button 4"); c.fill = GridBagConstraints.HORIZONTAL; c.ipady = 40; //make this component tall c.weightx = 0.0; c.gridwidth = 3; c.gridx = 0; c.gridy = 1; pane.add(button4, c); button5 = new JButton("button 1"); c.fill = GridBagConstraints.HORIZONTAL; c.ipady = 0; //reset to default c.weighty = 1.0; //request any extra vertical space c.anchor = GridBagConstraints.PAGE_END; //bottom of space c.insets = new Insets(10,0,0,0); //top padding c.gridx = 1; //aligned with button 2 c.gridwidth = 2; //2 columns wide c.gridy = 2; //third row pane.add(button5, c); c.ipadx = 800; c.ipady = 400; pane.add(image, c); } This is what i'm trying to make it look like

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• How do I stack images to simulate depth using Core Animation?

  - by Jeffrey Berthiaume

  I have a series of UIImages with which I need to simulate depth. I can't use scaling because I need to be able to rotate the parent view, and the images should look like they're stacked visibly in front of each other, not on the same plane. I made a new ViewController-based project and put this in the viewDidLoad (as well as attached three 120x120 pixel images named 1.png, 2.png, and 3.png): - (void)viewDidLoad { // display image 3 UIImageView *three = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"3.png"]]; three.center = CGPointMake(160 + 60, 240 - 60); [self.view addSubview:three]; // rotate image 3 around the z axis // THIS IS INCORRECT CATransform3D theTransform = three.layer.transform; theTransform.m34 = 1.0 / -1000; three.layer.transform = theTransform; // display image 2 UIImageView *two = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"2.png"]]; two.center = CGPointMake(160, 240); [self.view addSubview:two]; // display image 1 UIImageView *one = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"1.png"]]; one.center = CGPointMake(160 - 60, 240 + 60); [self.view addSubview:one]; // rotate image 3 around the z axis // THIS IS INCORRECT theTransform = one.layer.transform; theTransform.m34 = 1.0 / 1000; one.layer.transform = theTransform; // release the images [one release]; [two release]; [three release]; // rotate the parent view around the y axis theTransform = self.view.layer.transform; theTransform.m14 = 1.0 / -500; self.view.layer.transform = theTransform; [super viewDidLoad]; } I have very specific reasons why I'm not using an EAGLView and why I'm not loading the images as CALayers (i.e. why I'm using UIImageViews for each one). This is just a quick demo that I can use to work out exactly what I need in my parent application. Is there some matrix way to translate these 2d images along the z-axis so they will look like what I'm trying to represent? I've gone through the other StackOverflow articles as well as the Wikipedia references, and have not found what I'm looking for -- although I might not necessarily be using the right terms for what I'm trying to do.

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• usercontrol hosted in IE renders as a textbox

  - by coxymla

  On my ongoing saga to mirror the hosting of a legacy app on a clean box, I've hit my next snag. One page relies on a big .NET UserControl that on the new machine renders only as a big, greyed out textarea (greyed out vertical scrollbar on the right hand edge. Inspecting the source shows the expected object tag.) This is particularly tricky because nobody seems to know much about hosted UserControls and all the discussions data back to 2002-2004. The page is quite simple: <%@ Page language="c#" Codebehind="DataExport.aspx.cs" AutoEventWireup="false" Inherits="yyyyy.Web.DataExport" %> <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.0 Transitional//EN" > <html> <head> <title>DataExport</title> <link rel="Configuration" href="/xxxxx/yyyyy/DataExport.config"> </head> <body style="margin:0px;padding:0px;overflow:hidden"> <OBJECT id="DataExport" style="WIDTH: 100%; HEIGHT: 100%; position:absolute; left: 0px; top:0px" classid="yyyyy.Common.dll#yyyyy.Controls.DataExport" VIEWASTEXT> </OBJECT> </body> </html> The config file referenced: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> <sectionGroup name="yyyyy"> <section name="dataExport" type="yyyyy.Controls.DataExportSectionHandler,yyyyy.Common" /> </sectionGroup> </configSections> <yyyyy> <dataExport> <layoutFile>http://vm2/xxxxx/yyyyy/layout.xml</layoutFile> <webServiceUrl>http://vm2/xxxxx/yyyyy/services/yyyyy.asmx</webServiceUrl> </dataExport> </yyyyy> </configuration> What I've checked: Security permissions should be OK, the site is trusted and adding a URL exception to grant FullTrust doesn't change anything. Config file is acessible over the web, layout.xml is accessible, ASMX shows the expected command list Machine.config grants GET permission for the usercontrol.config file. What perhaps looks fishy to me: The DataExport UserControl references Aspose.Excel to generate the spreadsheets it exports. When I navigate to the page and get a blank textbox, then run gacutil /ldl, nothing is in the local download cache. On the working machine, running the same command after viewing the page shows a laundry list of DLLs including the control DLL and the Aspose DLL.

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• Why SQL2008 debugger would NOT step into a certain child stored procedure

  - by John Galt

  I'm encountering differences in T-SQL with SQL2008 (vs. SQL2000) that are leading me to dead-ends. I've verified that the technique of sharing #TEMP tables between a caller which CREATES the #TEMP and the child sProc which references it remain valid in SQL2008 See recent SO question. My core problem remains a critical "child" stored procedure that works fine in SQL2000 but fails in SQL2008 (i.e. a FROM clause in the child sProc is coded as: SELECT * FROM #AREAS A) despite #AREAS being created by the calling parent. Rather than post snippets of the code now, here is another symptom that may help you suggest something. I fired up the new debugger in SQL Mgmt Studio: EXEC dbo.AMS1 @S1='06',@C1='037',@StartDate='01/01/2008',@EndDate='07/31/2008',@Type=1,@ACReq = 1,@Output = 0,@NumofLines = 30,@SourceTable = 'P',@LoanPurposeCatg='P' This is a very large sProc and the key snippet that is weird is the following: **create table #Areas ( State char(2) , County char(3) , ZipCode char(5) NULL , CityName varchar(28) NULL , PData varchar(3) NULL , RData varchar(3) NULL , SMSA_CD varchar(10) NULL , TypeCounty varchar(50) , StateAbbr char(2) ) EXECUTE dbo.AMS_I_GetAreasV5 -- this child populates #Areas @SMSA = @SMSA , @S1 = @S1 , @C1 = @C1 , @Z1 = @Z1 , @SourceTable = @SourceTable , @CustomID = @CustomID , @UserName = @UserName , @CityName = @CityName , @Debug=0 EXECUTE dbo.AMS_I_GetAreas_FixAC -- this child cannot reference #Areas @StartDate = @StartDate , @EndDate = @EndDate , @SMSA_CD = @SMSA_CD , @S1 = @S1 , @C1 = @C1 , @Z1 = @Z1 , @CityName = @CityName , @CustomID = @CustomID , @Debug=0 -- continuation of the parent sProc** I can step through the execution of the parent stored procedure. When I get to the first child sproc above, I can either STEP INTO dbo.AMS_I_GetAreasV5 or STEP OVER its execution. When I arrive at the invocation of the 2nd child sProc - dbo.AMS_I_GetAreas_FixAC - I try to STEP INTO it (because that is where the problem statement is) and STEP INTO is ignored (i.e. treated like STEP OVER instead; yet I KNOW I pressed F11 not F10). It WAS executed however, because when control is returned to the statement after the EXECUTE, I click Continue to finish execution and the results windows shows the errors in the dbo.AMS_I_GetAreas_FixAC (i.e. the 2nd child) stored procedure. Is there a way to "pre-load" an sProc with the goal of setting a breakpoint on its entry so that I can pursue execution inside it? In summary, I wonder if the inability to step into a given child sproc might be related to the same inability of this particular child to reference a #temp created by its parent (caller).

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• Web development - relative URLs without duplicating files

  - by eshriek

  I have a site with index.php in the root folder, images in /img , and overview.php in /content . I have a sidebar.php file that is included in both index.php and overview.php . How should I refer to /img/image.gif if I include a link in each file? The location of image.gif changes relative to the location of the file that references it. Using /img/image.gif in sidebar.php will work in index.php, but it fails for the file located at /content/overview.php. The only solution that I can see is to either include a seperate sidebar.php in each subdirectory, or include an /img directory in every sub-directory. The best suggestion that I can find is to use the <base html tag as suggested here: Change relative link paths for included content in PHP However, in the same link, SamGoody suggests that the <base tag "is no longer properly supported in Internet Explorer, since version 7." I'd like some insight on the matter before committing to a course of action. Thanks. EDIT: I am using the wrong approach below with "../" Example- root/index.php: ... <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="style.css" /> <title>title</title> </head> <body> <?php include('include/header.php'); ?> <?php include('include/menu.php'); ?> ... root/include/header.php: ... <div id="header"> <span class="fl"><img src="img/dun1.png"/></span><span class="fr"><img src="img/dun2.png"/></span> ... root/content/overview.php: ... <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="../style.css" media="screen" /> <title>Overview</title> </head> <body> <?php include('../include/header.php'); ?> <?php include('../include/menu.php'); ?> ...

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• Android GridView - How to change a bitmap dynamically?

  - by Alborz

  Hello I have a gridView which I use to show some pictures on (small thumb of diffrent levels). When the user finishes one level, I would like to change the thumb for that level. (Somehow show that it has been completed). I created two thumbs for each level. One is the original and one that shows that the level is completed. But how can i change the source of the images? The code which I use to draw the images looks like this. The main activity: /** Called when the activity is first created. */ public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.maps); GridView gridview = (GridView) findViewById(R.id.gridview); gridview.setAdapter(new ImageAdapter(this)); gridview.setOnItemClickListener(new OnItemClickListener() { @Override public void onItemClick(AdapterView<?> parent, View v, int position, long id) { //Open the map which was clicked on, if there is one if(position+1 > 1){ Toast.makeText(maps.this, "Level " + (position+1) + " is not yet available!", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); }else{ Toast.makeText(maps.this, "Opening Level " + (position+1), Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); Intent myIntent = new Intent(v.getContext(), Tutorial2D.class); startActivity(myIntent); } } }); } The ImageAdapter Class: public class ImageAdapter extends BaseAdapter { private Context mContext; public ImageAdapter(Context c) { mContext = c; } public int getCount() { return mThumbIds.length; } public Object getItem(int position) { return null; } public long getItemId(int position) { return 0; } // create a new ImageView for each item referenced by the Adapter public View getView(int position, View convertView, ViewGroup parent) { ImageView imageView; if (convertView == null) { // if it's not recycled, initialize some attributes imageView = new ImageView(mContext); imageView.setLayoutParams(new GridView.LayoutParams(85, 85)); imageView.setScaleType(ImageView.ScaleType.CENTER_CROP); imageView.setPadding(8, 8, 8, 8); } else { imageView = (ImageView) convertView; } //Changing imageView.setImageResource(mThumbIds[position]); return imageView; } // references to our images private Integer[] mThumbIds = { R.drawable.map1, R.drawable.map2, R.drawable.map3, R.drawable.map4, R.drawable.map5, R.drawable.map6, R.drawable.map7, R.drawable.map8, R.drawable.map9, R.drawable.map10, R.drawable.map11, R.drawable.map12, R.drawable.map13, R.drawable.map14, R.drawable.map15, R.drawable.map16, R.drawable.map17, R.drawable.map18, R.drawable.map19 }; }

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• JSON or YAML encoding in GWT/Java on both client and server

  - by KennethJ

  I'm looking for a super simple JSON or YAML library (not particularly bothered which one) written in Java, and can be used in both GWT on the client, and in its original Java form on the server. What I'm trying to do is this: I have my models, which are shared between the client and the server, and these are the primary source of data interchange. I want to design the web service in between to be as simple as possible, and decided to take the RESTful approach. My problem is that I know our application will grow substantially in the future, and writing all the getters, setters, serialization, factories, etc. by hand fills me with absolute dread. So in order to avoid it, I decided to implement annotations to keep track of attributes on the models. The reason I can't just serialize everything directly, using GWT's own one, or one which works through reflection, is because we need a certain amount of logic going on in the serialization process. I.e. whether references to other models get serialized during the serialization of the original model, or whether an ID is just passed, and general simple things like that. I've then written an annotation processor to preprocess my shared models and generate an implementing class with all the getters, setters, serialization, lazy-loading, etc. To make a long story short, I need some type of simple YAML or JSON library, which allows me to encode and decode manually, so I can generate this code through my annotation processor. I have had a look around the interwebs, but every single one I ran into supported some reflection which, while all fine and dandy, make it pretty much useless for GWT. And in the case of GWT's own JSON library, it uses JSNI for speed purposes, making it useless server side. One solution I did think about involved writing writing two sets of serialization methods on the models, one for the client and one for the server, but I'd rather not do that. Also, I'm pretty new to GWT, and even though I have done a lot of Java, it was back in the 1.2 days, so it's a bit rusty. So if you think I'm going about this problem completely the wrong way, I'm open to suggestions.

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• Self updating app, wont overwrite existing app, using Android packagemanager?

  - by LokiSinclair

  I know there are plenty of questions about this on here, but I've tried everything (but the correct 'thing', obviously!) and nothing seems to shine any light on the problem I'm having. I've written an app (for a customer), which is designed to be hosted on their own server. The app references a simple text file with the latest version code in it and checks it against it's own version. If it's out of date it goes off and downloads the update. Everything is working as intended up to this point. I use the: Intent i = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_VIEW); i.setDataAndType(Uri.fromFile(outputFile), "application/vnd.android.package-archive"); i.setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); startActivity(i); ...code to start the install process of the newly downloaded .apk file. And that all starts as I would expect. I click on "Install" - when I'm prompted to confirm the overwriting of the current app, with the new. It starts, and then displays: App not installed. And existing package by the same name with a conflicting signature is already installed. Now I'm aware that Android can't have multiple applications sharing the same package name, which is fine, but nothing comes up in LogCat and I can only assume that the OS is annoyed at me attempting to 'update' my app, even though I'm going through all the correct channels and using the inbuilt package manager to do it for me! Can anyone tell me what the OS is moaning about? I'm not attempting to install two apps side by side, I want it to update it, which it starts to do, and then gets really confused. Is it something to do with me using the same keystore for signing the packages? I highly doubt it as I've used the same keystores previously to handle updates to games and the like, but I just can't figure out what it's complaining about. Hopefully someone out there has had this issue and solved it, and can point me in the right direction. I'm flying a bit blind with the limited information it's giving me :( Cheers.

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• Web image loaded by thread in android

  - by Bostjan

  I have an extended BaseAdapter in a ListActivity: private static class RequestAdapter extends BaseAdapter { and some handlers and runnables defined in it // Need handler for callbacks to the UI thread final Handler mHandler = new Handler(); // Create runnable for posting final Runnable mUpdateResults = new Runnable() { public void run() { loadAvatar(); } }; protected static void loadAvatar() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub //ava.setImageBitmap(getImageBitmap("URL"+pic)); buddyIcon.setImageBitmap(avatar); } In the getView function of the Adapter, I'm getting the view like this: if (convertView == null) { convertView = mInflater.inflate(R.layout.messageitem, null); // Creates a ViewHolder and store references to the two children views // we want to bind data to. holder = new ViewHolder(); holder.username = (TextView) convertView.findViewById(R.id.username); holder.date = (TextView) convertView.findViewById(R.id.dateValue); holder.time = (TextView) convertView.findViewById(R.id.timeValue); holder.notType = (TextView) convertView.findViewById(R.id.notType); holder.newMsg = (ImageView) convertView.findViewById(R.id.newMsg); holder.realUsername = (TextView) convertView.findViewById(R.id.realUsername); holder.replied = (ImageView) convertView.findViewById(R.id.replied); holder.msgID = (TextView) convertView.findViewById(R.id.msgID_fr); holder.avatar = (ImageView) convertView.findViewById(R.id.buddyIcon); holder.msgPreview = (TextView) convertView.findViewById(R.id.msgPreview); convertView.setTag(holder); } else { // Get the ViewHolder back to get fast access to the TextView // and the ImageView. holder = (ViewHolder) convertView.getTag(); } and the image is getting loaded this way: Thread sepThread = new Thread() { public void run() { String ava; ava = request[8].replace(".", "_micro."); Log.e("ava thread",ava+", username: "+request[0]); avatar = getImageBitmap(URL+ava); buddyIcon = holder.avatar; mHandler.post(mUpdateResults); //holder.avatar.setImageBitmap(getImageBitmap(URL+ava)); } }; sepThread.start(); Now, the problem I'm having is that if there are more items that need to display the same picture, not all of those pictures get displayed. When you scroll up and down the list maybe you end up filling all of them. When I tried the commented out line (holder.avatar.setImageBitmap...) the app sometimes force closes with "only the thread that created the view can request...". But only sometimes. Any idea how I can fix this? Either option.

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• Sitecore E-Commerce Module - Discount/Promotional Codes

  - by Zachary Kniebel

  I am working on a project for which I must use Sitecore's E-Commerce Module (and Sitecore 6.5 rev. 120706 - aka 'Update 5') to create a web-store. One of the features that I am trying to implement is a generic promotional/discount code system - customer enters a code at checkout which grants a discount like 'free shipping', '20% off', etc. At the moment, I am looking for some guidance (a high-level solution, a few pseudo-ideas, some references to review, etc) as to how this can be accomplished. Summary: What I am looking for is a way to detect whether or not the user entered a promo code at a previous stage in the checkout line, and to determine what that promo code is, if they did. Progress Thus Far: I have thoroughly reviewed all of the Sitecore E-Commerce Services (SES) documentation, especially "SES Order Line Extension" documentation (which I believe will have to be modified/extended in order to accomplish this task). Additionally, I have thoroughly reviewed the Sitecore Community article Extending Sitecore E-Commerce - Pricing and believe that it may be a useful guide for applying a discount statically, but does not say much in the way of applying a discount dynamically. After reviewing these documents, I have come up with the following possible high-level solution to start from: I create a template to represent a promotional code, which holds all data relevant to the promotion (percent off, free shipping, code, etc). I then create another template (based on the Product Search Group template) that holds a link to an item within a global "Promotional Code" items folder. Next, I use the Product Search Group features of my new template to choose which products to apply the discount to. In the source code for the checkout I create a class that checks if a code has been entered and, if so, somehow carry it through the rest of the checkout process. This is where I get stuck. More Details: No using cookies No GET requests No changing/creating/deleting items in the Sitecore Database during the checkout process (e.g., no manipulation of fields of a discount item during checkout to signal that the discount has been applied) must stay within the scope of C# Last Notes: I will update this post with any more information that I find/progress that I make. I upgrade all answers that are relevant and detailed, thought-provoking, or otherwise useful to me and potentially useful to others, in addition to any high-level answers that serve as a feasible solution to this problem; even if your idea doesn't help me, if I think it will help someone else I will still upgrade it. Thanks, in advance, for all your help! :)

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• Initialization of components with interdependencies - possible antipattern?

  - by Rosarch

  I'm writing a game that has many components. Many of these are dependent upon one another. When creating them, I often get into catch-22 situations like "WorldState's constructor requires a PathPlanner, but PathPlanner's constructor requires WorldState." Originally, this was less of a problem, because references to everything needed were kept around in GameEngine, and GameEngine was passed around to everything. But I didn't like the feel of that, because it felt like we were giving too much access to different components, making it harder to enforce boundaries. Here is the problematic code: /// <summary> /// Constructor to create a new instance of our game. /// </summary> public GameEngine() { graphics = new GraphicsDeviceManager(this); Components.Add(new GamerServicesComponent(this)); //Sets dimensions of the game window graphics.PreferredBackBufferWidth = 800; graphics.PreferredBackBufferHeight = 600; graphics.ApplyChanges(); IsMouseVisible = true; screenManager = new ScreenManager(this); //Adds ScreenManager as a component, making all of its calls done automatically Components.Add(screenManager); // Tell the program to load all files relative to the "Content" directory. Assets = new CachedContentLoader(this, "Content"); inputReader = new UserInputReader(Constants.DEFAULT_KEY_MAPPING); collisionRecorder = new CollisionRecorder(); WorldState = new WorldState(new ReadWriteXML(), Constants.CONFIG_URI, this, contactReporter); worldQueryUtils = new WorldQueryUtils(worldQuery, WorldState.PhysicsWorld); ContactReporter contactReporter = new ContactReporter(collisionRecorder, worldQuery, worldQueryUtils); gameObjectManager = new GameObjectManager(WorldState, assets, inputReader, pathPlanner); worldQuery = new DefaultWorldQueryEngine(collisionRecorder, gameObjectManager.Controllers); gameObjectManager.WorldQueryEngine = worldQuery; pathPlanner = new PathPlanner(this, worldQueryUtils, WorldQuery); gameObjectManager.PathPlanner = pathPlanner; combatEngine = new CombatEngine(worldQuery, new Random()); } Here is an excerpt of the above that's problematic: gameObjectManager = new GameObjectManager(WorldState, assets, inputReader, pathPlanner); worldQuery = new DefaultWorldQueryEngine(collisionRecorder, gameObjectManager.Controllers); gameObjectManager.WorldQueryEngine = worldQuery; I hope that no one ever forgets that setting of gameObjectManager.WorldQueryEngine, or else it will fail. Here is the problem: gameObjectManager needs a WorldQuery, and WorldQuery needs a property of gameObjectManager. What can I do about this? Have I found an anti-pattern?

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• Normalizing Item Names & Synonyms

  - by RabidFire

  Consider an e-commerce application with multiple stores. Each store owner can edit the item catalog of his store. My current database schema is as follows: item_names: id | name | description | picture | common(BOOL) items: id | item_name_id | picture | price | description | picture item_synonyms: id | item_name_id | name | error(BOOL) Notes: error indicates a wrong spelling (eg. "Ericson"). description and picture of the item_names table are "globals" that can optionally be overridden by "local" description and picture fields of the items table (in case the store owner wants to supply a different picture for an item). common helps separate unique item names ("Jimmy Joe's Cheese Pizza" from "Cheese Pizza") I think the bright side of this schema is: Optimized searching & Handling Synonyms: I can query the item_names & item_synonyms tables using name LIKE %QUERY% and obtain the list of item_name_ids that need to be joined with the items table. (Examples of synonyms: "Sony Ericsson", "Sony Ericson", "X10", "X 10") Autocompletion: Again, a simple query to the item_names table. I can avoid the usage of DISTINCT and it minimizes number of variations ("Sony Ericsson Xperia™ X10", "Sony Ericsson - Xperia X10", "Xperia X10, Sony Ericsson") The down side would be: Overhead: When inserting an item, I query item_names to see if this name already exists. If not, I create a new entry. When deleting an item, I count the number of entries with the same name. If this is the only item with that name, I delete the entry from the item_names table (just to keep things clean; accounts for possible erroneous submissions). And updating is the combination of both. Weird Item Names: Store owners sometimes use sentences like "Harry Potter 1, 2 Books + CDs + Magic Hat". There's something off about having so much overhead to accommodate cases like this. This would perhaps be the prime reason I'm tempted to go for a schema like this: items: id | name | picture | price | description | picture (... with item_names and item_synonyms as utility tables that I could query) Is there a better schema you would suggested? Should item names be normalized for autocomplete? Is this probably what Facebook does for "School", "City" entries? Is the first schema or the second better/optimal for search? Thanks in advance! References: (1) Is normalizing a person's name going too far?, (2) Avoiding DISTINCT

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• JPA entity design / cannot delete entity

  - by timaschew

  I though its simple what I want, but I cannot find any solution for my problem. I'm using playframework 1.2.3 and it's using Hibernate as JPA. So I think playframework has nothing to do with the problem. I have some classes (I omit the nonrelevant fields) public class User { ... } public class Task { public DataContainer dataContainer; } public class DataContainer { public Session session; public User user; } public class Session { ... } So I have association from Task to DataContainer and from DataContainer to Sesssion and the DataContainer belongs to a User. The DataContainers can have always the same User, but the Session have to be different for each instance. And the DataContainer of a Task have also to be different in each instance. A DataContainer can have a Sesesion or not (it's optinal). I use only unidirectional assoc. It should be sufficient. In other words: Every Task must has one DataContainer. Every DataContainer must has one/the same User and can have one Session. To create a DB schema I use JPA annotations: @Entity public class User extends Model { ... } @Entity public class Task extends Model { @OneToOne(optional = false, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public DataContainer dataContainer; } @Entity public class DataContainer extends Model { @OneToOne(optional = true, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public Session session; @ManyToOne(optional = false, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public User user; } @Entity public class Session extends Model { ... } BTW: Model is a play class and provides the primary id as long type. When I create some for each entity a object and 'connect them', I mean the associations, it works fine. But when I try to delete a Session, I get a constraint violation exception, because a DataContainer still refers to the Session I want to delete. I want that the Session (field) of the DataContainer will be set to null respectively the foreign key (session_id) should be unset in the database. This will be okay, because its optional. I don't know, I think I have multiple problems. Am I using the right annotation @OneToOne ? I found on the internet some additional annotation and attributes: @JoinColumn and a mappedBy attribute for the inverse relationship. But I don't have it, because its not bidirectional. Or is a bidirectional assoc. essentially? Another try was to use @OnDelete(action = OnDeleteAction.CASCADE) the the contraint changed from NO ACTIONs when update or delete to: ADD CONSTRAINT fk4745c17e6a46a56 FOREIGN KEY (session_id) REFERENCES annotation_session (id) MATCH SIMPLE ON UPDATE NO ACTION ON DELETE CASCADE; But in this case, when I delete a session, the DataContainer and User is deleted. That's wrong for me. EDIT: I'm using postgresql 9, the jdbc stuff is included in play, my only db config is db=postgres://app:app@localhost:5432/app

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