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  • Generic ASP.NET MVC Route Conflict

    - by Donn Felker
    I'm working on a Legacy ASP.NET system. I say legacy because there are NO tests around 90% of the system. I'm trying to fix the routes in this project and I'm running into a issue I wish to solve with generic routes. I have the following routes: routes.MapRoute( "DefaultWithPdn", "{controller}/{action}/{pdn}", new { controller = "", action = "Index", pdn = "" }, null ); routes.MapRoute( "DefaultWithClientId", "{controller}/{action}/{clientId}", new { controller = "", action = "index", clientid = "" }, null ); The problem is that the first route is catching all of the traffic for what I need to be routed to the second route. The route is generic (no controller is defined in the constraint in either route definition) because multiple controllers throughout the entire app share this same premise (sometimes we need a "pdn" sometimes we need a "clientId"). How can I map these generic routes so that they go to the proper controller and action, yet not have one be too greedy? Or can I at all? Are these routes too generic (which is what I'm starting to believe is the case). My only option at this point (AFAIK) is one of the following: In the contraints, apply a regex to match the action values like: (foo|bar|biz|bang) and the same for the controller: (home|customer|products) for each controller. However, this has a problem in the fact that I may need to do this: ~/Foo/Home/123 // Should map to "DefaultwithPdn" ~/Foo/Home/abc // Should map to "DefaultWithClientId" Which means that if the Foo Controller has an action that takes a pdn and another action that takes a clientId (which happens all the time in this app), the wrong route is chosen. To hardcode these contstraints into each possible controller/action combo seems like a lot of duplication to me and I have the feeling I've been looking at the problem for too long so I need another pair of eyes to help out. Can I have generic routes to handle this scenario? Or do I need to have custom routes for each controller with constraints applied to the actions on those routes? Thanks

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  • How to keep track of objects for garbage collection

    - by Yman
    May I know what is the proper way to keep track of display objects created and hence allow me to remove it efficiently later, for garbage collection. For example: for(i=0; i<100; i++){ var dobj = new myClass(); //a sprite addChild(dobj); } From what i know, flash's garbage collection will only collect the objects without strong references and event listeners attached to it. Since the var dobj is strongly referenced to the new object created, I will have to "nullify" it too, am I correct? Should I create an array to keep track of all the objects created in the loop such as: var objectList:Array = new Array(); for(i=0; i<100; i++) { var dobj = new myClass(); //a sprite addChild(dobj); objectList.push(dobj); } //remove all children for each (var key in objectList) { removeChild(key as myClass); } Does this allow GC to collect it on sweep?

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  • How are you supposed to layout a page in VS2010 without using tables?

    - by CrustyApple
    I have been using .NET since beta and HTML since the days of HotDog pro & notepad, using table layout of course. I am FINALLY ready to use only div, li, CSS for the layout, but my question is, what is the proper way to layout pages in VS2010? When i use table layout its simple and i can visually see what im creating and where the elements are, such as the sample below - how should I do this using div's, etc in VS2010? <table width="300" border="0" cellpadding="5"> <tr> <td><img src="http://assets.devx.com/MS_Azure/azuremcau.jpg" alt="blah" width="70" height="70" /></td> <td><h2>This is some text to the right of the picture...</h2></td> </tr> <tr> <td colspan="2">Here some text underneath</td> </tr> </table>

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  • When to drop an IT job

    - by Nippysaurus
    In my career I have had two programming jobs. Both these jobs were in a field that I am most familiar with (C# / MSSQL) but I have quit both jobs for the same reason: unmanageable code and bad (loose) company structure. There was something in common with both these jobs: small companies (in one I was the only developer). Currently I am in the following position: being given written instructions which are almost impossible to follow (somewhat of a fools errand). we are given short time constraints, but seldom asked how long work will take, and when we do it is always too long and needs to be shorter (and when it ends up taking longer than they need it to take, it's always our fault). there is no time for proper documenting, but we get blamed for not documenting (see previous point). Management is constantly screwing me around, saying I'm underperforming on a given task (which is not true, and switching me to a task which is much more confusing). So I must ask my fellow developers: how bad does a job need to be before you would consider jumping ship? And what to look out for when considering taking a job. In future I will be asking about documented procedures, release control, bug management and adoption of new technologies. EDIT: Let me add some more fuel to the fire ... I have been in my current job for just over a year, and the work I am doing almost never uses any of the knowledge I have gained from the other work I have been doing here. Everything is a giant learning curve. Because of this about 30% of my time is learning what is going on with this new product (who's owner / original developer has left the company), 30% trying to find the relevant documentation that helps the whole thing make sense, 30% actually finding where to make the change, 10% actually making the change.

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  • Generic version control strategy for select table data within a heavily normalized database

    - by leppie
    Hi Sorry for the long winded title, but the requirement/problem is rather specific. With reference to the following sample (but very simplified) structure (in psuedo SQL), I hope to explain it a bit better. TABLE StructureName { Id GUID PK, Name varchar(50) NOT NULL } TABLE Structure { Id GUID PK, ParentId GUID (FK to Structure), NameId GUID (FK to StructureName) NOT NULL } TABLE Something { Id GUID PK, RootStructureId GUID (FK to Structure) NOT NULL } As one can see, Structure is a simple tree structure (not worried about ordering of children for the problem). StructureName is a simplification of a translation system. Finally 'Something' is simply something referencing the tree's root structure. This is just one of many tables that need to be versioned, but this one serves as a good example for most cases. There is a requirement to version to any changes to the name and/or the tree 'layout' of the Structure table. Previous versions should always be available. There seems to be a few possibilities to tackle this issue, like copying the entire structure, but most approaches causes one to 'loose' referential integrity. Example if one followed this approach, one would have to make a duplicate of the 'Something' record, given that the root structure will be a new record, and have a new ID. Other avenues of possible solutions are looking into how Wiki's handle this or go a lot further and look how proper version control systems work. Currently, I feel a bit clueless how to proceed on this in a generic way. Any ideas will be greatly appreciated. Thanks leppie

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  • where did the _syscallN macros go in <linux/unistd.h>?

    - by Evan Teran
    It used to be the case that if you needed to make a system call directly in linux without the use of an existing library, you could just include <linux/unistd.h> and it would define a macro similar to this: #define _syscall3(type,name,type1,arg1,type2,arg2,type3,arg3) \ type name(type1 arg1,type2 arg2,type3 arg3) \ { \ long __res; \ __asm__ volatile ("int $0x80" \ : "=a" (__res) \ : "0" (__NR_##name),"b" ((long)(arg1)),"c" ((long)(arg2)), \ "d" ((long)(arg3))); \ if (__res>=0) \ return (type) __res; \ errno=-__res; \ return -1; \ } Then you could just put somewhere in your code: _syscall3(ssize_t, write, int, fd, const void *, buf, size_t, count); which would define a write function for you that properly performed the system call. It seems that this system has been superseded by something (i am guessing that "[vsyscall]" page that every process gets) more robust. So what is the proper way (please be specific) for a program to perform a system call directly on newer linux kernels? I realize that I should be using libc and let it do the work for me. But let's assume that I have a decent reason for wanting to know how to do this :-).

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  • How to send XML and other post parameters via cURL in PHP

    - by tomaszs
    Hello. I've used code below to send XML to my REST API. $xml_string_data contains proper XML, and it is passed well to mypi.php: //set POST variables $url = 'http://www.server.cu/mypi.php'; $fields = array( 'data'=>urlencode($xml_string_data) ); //url-ify the data for the POST $fields_string = ""; foreach($fields as $key=>$value) { $fields_string .= $key.'='.$value.'&'; } rtrim($fields_string,'&'); echo $fields_string; //open connection $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_URL,$url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_POST,count($fields)); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS,$fields_string); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER,array ( "Expect: " )); //execute post $result = @curl_exec($ch); But when I've added other field: $fields = array( 'method' => "methodGoPay", 'data'=>urlencode($xml_string_data) ); It stopped to work. On the mypi.php I don't recieve any more POST parameters at all! Could you you please tell me what to do to send XML and other post parameters in one cURL request? Please don't suggest using any libraries, I wan't to acomplish it in plain PHP.

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  • php: autoload exception handling.

    - by YuriKolovsky
    Hello again, I'm extending my previous question (Handling exceptions within exception handle) to address my bad coding practice. I'm trying to delegate autoload errors to a exception handler. <?php function __autoload($class_name) { $file = $class_name.'.php'; try { if (file_exists($file)) { include $file; }else{ throw new loadException("File $file is missing"); } if(!class_exists($class_name,false)){ throw new loadException("Class $class_name missing in $file"); } }catch(loadException $e){ header("HTTP/1.0 500 Internal Server Error"); $e->loadErrorPage('500'); exit; } return true; } class loadException extends Exception { public function __toString() { return get_class($this) . " in {$this->file}({$this->line})".PHP_EOL ."'{$this->message}'".PHP_EOL . "{$this->getTraceAsString()}"; } public function loadErrorPage($code){ try { $page = new pageClass(); echo $page->showPage($code); }catch(Exception $e){ echo 'fatal error: ', $code; } } } $test = new testClass(); ?> the above script is supposed to load a 404 page if the testClass.php file is missing, and it works fine, UNLESS the pageClass.php file is missing as well, in which case I see a "Fatal error: Class 'pageClass' not found in D:\xampp\htdocs\Test\PHP\errorhandle\index.php on line 29" instead of the "fatal error: 500" message I do not want to add a try/catch block to each and every class autoload (object creation), so i tried this. What is the proper way of handling this?

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  • ROR accepts_nested_attributes_for one to many relationship with selection

    - by bilash.saha
    I have two models Doctors and Questions like the follwong: Doctor Model class Doctor < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :questions has_many :brands accepts_nested_attributes_for :questions end Question model class Question < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :discipline belongs_to :doctor belongs_to :brand end Now you can clearly see that Doctor has many questions and brands and question belongs to doctor and brand.I want to add previously saved question to a doctor from doctors edit page. I want to remove them as well.How can I proceed ? I tried like : <%= form.fields_for :questions, question,:child_index => (question.new_record? ? "index_to_replace_with_js" : nil) do |question_form| %> <table> <tr> <td> <div class="label">Select Question</div> <%= question_form.collection_select :id, Question.all, :id, :title ,{:include_blank => true } %> </td> </tr> </table> but this doesnot works for me.Can you give me a solution with proper example ?

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  • MySQL move data from one table to another, matching ID's

    - by Reveller
    I have (a.o.) two MySQL tables with (a.o.) the following columns: tweets: ------------------------------------- id text from_user_id from_user ------------------------------------- 1 Cool tweet! 13295354 tradeny 2 Tweeeeeeeet 43232544 bolleke 3 Yet another 13295354 tradeny 4 Something.. 53546443 janusz4 users: ------------------------------------- id from_user num_tweets from_user_id ------------------------------------- 1 tradeny 2235 2 bolleke 432 3 janusz4 5354 I now want to normalize the tweets table, replacing tweets.from_user with an integer that matches users.id. Secondly, I want to fill in the corresponding users.from_user_id, Finally, I want to delete tweets.from_user_id so that the end result would look like: tweets: ------------------------ id text from_user ------------------------ 1 Cool tweet! 1 2 Tweeeeeeeet 2 3 Yet another 1 4 Something.. 3 users: ------------------------------------- id from_user num_tweets from_user_id ------------------------------------- 1 tradeny 2235 13295354 2 bolleke 432 43232544 3 janusz4 5354 53546443 My question is whether one could help me form the proper queries for this. I have only come so far: UPDATE tweets SET from_user = (SELECT id FROM users WHERE from_user = tweets.from_user) WHERE... UPDATE users SET from_user_id = (SELECT from_user_id FROM tweets WHERE from_user = tweets.from_user) WHERE... ALTER TABLE tweets DROP from_user_id Any help would be greatly appreciated :-)

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  • Incorrect sizing of a JPanel in a JScrollPane In Java 1.5

    - by Coder
    Hi, I am making an image loading component which consists of a JPanel containing a JScrollPane, which in turn contains another JPanel. What this component does is allows images to be dropped on top of it, after which point the image is loaded and the inner most JPanel is set to the size of the image dropped. This in turn causes the scroll bars to show up and the user can scroll the image. This all works fine. The problem comes in when i try to auto-shrink the image to the maximum visible area in the outer JPanel. In this case i do a uniform scale of the image to be less than or equal to the width and height of the outer JPanel. What happens now is that both the horizontal and vertical scroll bars show up indicating the the inner JPanel is bigger than the visible area (which should not be the case). I verified that the image is scale to the proper dimensions(ie. the maximum width and height is respected). I also verified that if i decrease the maximum height by 3 pixels, then no scroll bars appear. What i believe the problem is, is that panel.getWidth() and panel.getHeight() don't actually return the visible area (maximum area) that sub components can take up. Ie. there is likely some more width and height taken up by the border around the JPanel or something like that. My question is, how do i get around this problem. Functionally all i want is to determine the maximum size a JPanel can be in a JScrollPane, then set the panel to that size and paint an image over top of it and be assured that the scroll bars of the scroll pane will not show up. Right now the scroll bars are set to AS_NEEDED. Thanks!

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  • Java/Groovy File IO Replacing an Image File with it's own Contents - Why Does This Work?

    - by jboyd
    I have some JPG files that need to be replaced at runtime with a JFIF standardized version of themselves (we are using a vendor that gives us JPG that do not have proper headers so they don't work in certain applications)... I am able to create a new file from the existing image, then get a buffered image from that file and write the contents right back into the file without having to delete it and it works... imageSrcFolder.eachFileMatch ( ~/.*\.jpg/, { BufferedImage bi = ImageIO.read( it ) ImageIO.write( bi, "jpg", it ) }); The question I have is why? Why doesn't the file end up doubled in size? Why don't I have to delete it first? Why am I able to take a file object to an existing file and then treat it as if it were a brand new one? It seems that what I consider to be a "file" is not what the File object in java actually is, or else this wouldn't work at all. My code does exactly what I want it to do, but I'm not convinced it always will... it just seems way too easy

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  • can't read XML via PHP

    - by jasmine
    I can't find the reason, only see the following error message. Input is not proper UTF-8, indicate encoding ! Bytes: 0x00 0x5D 0x5D 0x3E the followings are my php code $reader2 = new XMLReader(); $reader2->XML($xmlstring); $user_data=""; while ($reader2->read()) { if ($reader2->name == "user_id" && $reader2->nodeType == XMLReader::ELEMENT) { $reader2->read(); $user_data .=$reader2->value; } } $reader2->close(); The followings are XML data <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" ?> <SOAP:Envelope xmlns:SOAP="http://www.w3.org/2003/05/soap-envelope" > <SOAP:Body > <user_id>1234567890</user_id> <greeting_name><![CDATA[ABCDEF ..yl/?]]></greeting_name> </SOAP:Body> </SOAP:Envelope> I try a lot of ways,but still can't find the solution. the greeting tag value may be chinese or English words.

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  • mod_rewrite to redirect URL with query string

    - by meeble
    I've searched all over stackoverflow, but none of the answers seem to be working for this situation. I have a lot of working mod_rewrite rules already in my httpd.conf file. I just recently found that Google had indexed one of my non-rewritten URLs with a query string in it: http://domain.com/?state=arizona I would like to use mod_rewrite to do a 301 redirect to this URL: http://domain.com/arizona The issue is that later on in my rewrite rules, that 2nd URL is being rewritten to pass query variables on to WordPress. It ends up getting rewritten to: http://domain.com/index.php?state=arizona Which is the proper functionality. Everything I have tried so far has either not worked at all or put me in an endless rewrite loop. This is what I have right now, which is getting stuck in a loop: RewriteCond %{QUERY_STRING} state=arizona [NC] RewriteRule .* http://domain.com/arizona [R=301,L] #older rewrite rule that passes query string based on URL: RewriteRule ^([A-Za-z-]+)$ index.php?state=$1 [L] which gives me an endless rewrite loop and takes me to this URL: http://domain.com/arizona?state=arizona I then tried this: RewriteRule .* http://domain.com/arizona? [R=301,L] which got rid of the query string in the URL, but still creates a loop.

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  • WCF cross-domain policy security error

    - by George2
    Hello everyone, I am using VSTS 2008 + C# + WCF + .Net 3.5 + Silverlight 3.0. I host Silverlight control in an html page and debug it from VSTS 2008 (press F5, then run in VSTS 2008 built-in ASP.Net development web server), then call another WCF service (hosted in another machine running IIS 7.0 + Vista). The WCF service is very simple, just return a constant string to client. When invoking the WCF service from Silverlight, I got the following error message, An error occurred while trying to make a request to URI 'https://LabTest/Test.svc'. This could be due to attempting to access a service in a cross-domain way without a proper cross-domain policy in place, or a policy that is unsuitable for SOAP services. You may need to contact the owner of the service to publish a cross-domain policy file and to ensure it allows SOAP-related HTTP headers to be sent. This error may also be caused by using internal types in the web service proxy without using the InternalsVisibleToAttribute attribute. Please see the inner exception for more details. Here is the clientaccesspolicy.xml file, anything wrong? <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <access-policy> <cross-domain-access> <policy> <allow-from http-request-headers="*"> <domain uri="*"> </domain> </allow-from> <grant-to> <resource path="/" include-subpaths="true"></resource> </grant-to> </policy> </cross-domain-access> </access-policy> thanks in advance, George

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  • Why is BorderLayout calling setSize() and setBounds()?

    - by ags
    I'm trying to get my head around proper use of the different LayoutManagers to make my GUI design skills more efficient and effective. For me, that usually requires a detailed understanding of what is going on under the hood. I've found some good discussion of the interaction and consequences of a Container using BorderLayout containing a Container using FlowLayout. I understand it for the most part, but wanted to confirm my mental model and to do so I am looking at the code for BorderLayout. In the code snippet below taken from BorderLayout.layoutContainer(), note the calls to the child Component's setSize() method followed by setBounds(). Looking at the source for these methods of Component, setSize() actually calls setBounds() with the current values for Component.x and Component.y. Why is this done (and not entirely redudant?) Doesn't the setBounds() call completely overwrite the results of the setSize() call? if ((c=getChild(NORTH,ltr)) != null) { c.setSize(right - left, c.height); Dimension d = c.getPreferredSize(); c.setBounds(left, top, right - left, d.height); top += d.height + vgap; } I'm also tring to understand where/when the child Component's size is initially set (before the LayoutManager.layoutContainer() method is called). Finally, this post itself raises a "meta-question": in a situation like this, where the source is available elsewhere, is the accepteed protocol to include the entire method? Or some other way to make it easier for folks to participate in the thread? Thanks.

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  • JSF2.0: variable list of custom component

    - by rattaman
    Hello Is there any way of using JSF2.0 in connection with variable lists of components? For example, lets say I have list o people that I would like to edit. They are presented on the page as list of components PersonEditor, which allow changing person data. Each editor is associated with single Person element. In order for this to work I need to perform following steps: On initial request: Get list of people For each person create PersonEditor and associate it with Person object. Fill editor's data. On user action: When user changes values and presses Save, data is processed by backing bean. I can either fill editor with data from list of people or bind it to the backing bean, but not at the same time, so I am stuck. I tried people.xhtml <ui:render value="#{bean.people}" var="person"> <example:personEditor person="#{person}"/> </ui:render> where personEditor.xhtml: a) proper association with person object, but no connection to backing bean <h:form> <h:outputText value="#{cc.attr.person.name}"/> <h:commandButton name="Save" actionListener="editorBean.save"> <f:ajax execute="@form" render="@form"/> </h:commandButton> </h:form> b) no association with person object, but there is connection to backing bean - there is no way to pass that person to the backing bean <h:form> <h:outputText value="#{editorBean.name}"/> <h:commandButton name="Save" actionListener="editorBean.save"> <f:ajax execute="@form" render="@form"/> </h:commandButton> </h:form> If I had each editor on separate page, I could pass the person id as url parameter (either using f:param or f:attribute) and initialize it accordingly. Is there any solution to this problem?

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  • Cache AJAX requests

    - by Willem
    I am sending AJAX GET-requests to a PHP application and would like to cache the request returns for later use. Since I am using GET this should be possible because different requests request different URLs (e.g. getHTML.php?page=2 and getHTML.php?page=5). What headers do I need to declare in the PHP-application to make the clients browser cache the request URL content in a proper way? Do I need to declare anything in the Javascript which handles the AJAX-request (I am using jQuery's $.ajax function which has a cache parameter)? How would I handle edits which change the content of e.g. getHTML.php?page=2 so that the client doesn't fall back to the cached version? Adding another parameter to the GET request e.g. getHTML.php?page=2&version=2 is not possible because the link to the requested URL is created automatically without any checking (which is preferably the way I want it to be). How will the browser react when I try to AJAX-request a cached request URL? Will the AJAX-request return success immediately? Thanks Willem

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  • How to properly implement the Strategy pattern in a web MVC framework?

    - by jboxer
    In my Django app, I have a model (lets call it Foo) with a field called "type". I'd like to use Foo.type to indicate what type the specific instance of Foo is (possible choices are "Number", "Date", "Single Line of Text", "Multiple Lines of Text", and a few others). There are two things I'd like the "type" field to end up affecting; the way a value is converted from its normal type to text (for example, in "Date", it may be str(the_date.isoformat())), and the way a value is converted from text to the specified type (in "Date", it may be datetime.date.fromtimestamp(the_text)). To me, this seems like the Strategy pattern (I may be completely wrong, and feel free to correct me if I am). My question is, what's the proper way to code this in a web MVC framework? In a client-side app, I'd create a Type class with abstract methods "serialize()" and "unserialize()", override those methods in subclasses of Type (such as NumberType and DateType), and dynamically set the "type" field of a newly-instantiated Foo to the appropriate Type subclass at runtime. In a web framework, it's not quite as straightforward for me. Right now, the way that makes the most sense is to define Foo.type as a Small Integer field and define a limited set of choices (0 = "Number", 1 = "Date", 2 = "Single Line of Text", etc.) in the code. Then, when a Foo object is instantiated, use a Factory method to look at the value of the instance's "type" field and plug in the correct Type subclass (as described in the paragraph above). Foo would also have serialize() and unserialize() methods, which would delegate directly to the plugged-in Type subclass. How does this design sound? I've never run into this issue before, so I'd really like to know if other people have, and how they've solved it.

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  • What is the best practice for including third party jar files in a Java program?

    - by ZoFreX
    I have a program that needs several third-party libraries, and at the moment it is packaged like so: zerobot.jar (my file) libs/pircbot.jar libs/mysql-connector-java-5.1.10-bin.jar libs/c3p0-0.9.1.2.jar As far as I know the "best" way to handle third-party libs is to put them on the classpath in the manifest of my jar file, which will work cross-platform, won't slow down launch (which bundling them might) and doesn't run into legal issues (which repackaging might). The problem is for users who supply the third party libraries themselves (example use case, upgrading them to fix a bug). Two of the libraries have the version number in the file, which adds hassle. My current solution is that my program has a bootstrapping process which makes a new classloader and instantiates the program proper using it. This custom classloader adds all .jar files in lib/ to its classpath. My current way works fine, but I now have two custom classloaders in my application and a recent change to the code has caused issues that are difficult to debug, so if there is a better way I'd like to remove this complexity. It also seems like over-engineering for what I'm sure is a very common situation. So my question is, how should I be doing this?

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  • Uploading a file to imgur using PHP Imgurv3 API

    - by user434885
    I writing a webapp which uploads images to imgur directly. Since all older version of their APIs have been deprecated i am forced to use v3 of their APIs. Unfortunately I am unable to get the API to work. I am using curl to access the API. $pvars = array('image' => base64_encode($data)); $timeout = 30; $curl = curl_init(); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_URL, 'https://api.imgur.com/3/upload'); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, $timeout); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_POST, 1); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $pvars); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, array('Authorization: Client-ID xxxxxxa61xxxxxx')); $xml = curl_exec($curl); $xmlsimple = new SimpleXMLElement($xml); print gettype($xml)."<hr>"; echo '<img height="180" src="'; echo $xmlsimple->links->original; echo '">'; curl_close ($curl); The "Xml" variable always return as "false", no server error is displayed. Can someone guide me to what I am doing wrong ? Unfortunately I am also unable to find any proper example in the documentation nor around to guide me.

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  • Get Image from Byte Aarray.

    - by Arun Thakkar
    Hello Everyone!! Hope You all are fine and also in one of your best of moods!! Hope You all are Enjoying iPhone development. I herewith one issue that i am not able to solve, may be i don't know the depth concept of iPhone. So Its my humble requet to you to guide me or suggest or share your ideas. I do find an issue with getting an image from Bytes array. I am calling a webservice which returns an image in form of Bytes Array as response. I have Converted this bytes array in to form of NSData, Now i have NSData, But When i Try to get an image from this NSData, It shows nil. I Did lots of R&D and Find one suggestion to use base64 encoder, But unfortunately because of not proper guidance I was not able to Implement that. I was also suggested to use OPenSSL Library for base64 from url http://www.cocoadev.com/index.pl?BaseSixtyFour But again i was not able to include #include #include these two files. as in Newer Version of SDK 3.X family Apple has depreciated those (as i guess). So Now i need help from you guys. kindly help me if you have solution or if you know the steps to solve these. Looking Forwards. Regards, Arun Thakkar

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  • Strict pointer aliasing: is access through a 'volatile' pointer/reference a solution?

    - by doublep
    On the heels of a specific problem, a self-answer and comments to it, I'd like to understand if it is a proper solution, workaround/hack or just plain wrong. Specifically, I rewrote code: T x = ...; if (*reinterpret_cast <int*> (&x) == 0) ... As: T x = ...; if (*reinterpret_cast <volatile int*> (&x) == 0) ... with a volatile qualifier to the pointer. Let's just assume that treating T as int in my situation makes sense. Does this accessing through a volatile reference solve pointer aliasing problem? For a reference, from specification: [ Note: volatile is a hint to the implementation to avoid aggressive optimization involving the object because the value of the object might be changed by means undetectable by an implementation. See 1.9 for detailed semantics. In general, the semantics of volatile are intended to be the same in C++ as they are in C. — end note ] EDIT: The above code did solve my problem at least on GCC 4.5.

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  • ASP.NET MVC Unit Testing Controllers - Repositories

    - by Brian McCord
    This is more of an opinion seeking question, so there may not be a "right" answer, but I would welcome arguments as to why your answer is the "right" one. Given an MVC application that is using Entity Framework for the persistence engine, a repository layer, a service layer that basically defers to the repository, and a delete method on a controller that looks like this: public ActionResult Delete(State model) { try { if( model == null ) { return View( model ); } _stateService.Delete( model ); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch { return View( model ); } } I am looking for the proper way to Unit Test this. Currently, I have a fake repository that gets used in the service, and my unit test looks like this: [TestMethod] public void Delete_Post_Passes_With_State_4() { //Arrange var stateService = GetService(); var stateController = new StateController( stateService ); ViewResult result = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var model = (State)result.ViewData.Model; //Act RedirectToRouteResult redirectResult = stateController.Delete( model ) as RedirectToRouteResult; stateController = new StateController( stateService ); var newresult = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var newmodel = (State)newresult.ViewData.Model; //Assert Assert.AreEqual( redirectResult.RouteValues["action"], "Index" ); Assert.IsNull( newmodel ); } Is this overkill? Do I need to check to see if the record actually got deleted (as I already have Service and Repository tests that verify this)? Should I even use a fake repository here or would it make more sense just to mock the whole thing? The examples I'm looking at used this model of doing things, and I just copied it, but I'm really open to doing things in a "best practices" way. Thanks.

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  • How to determine the width of content or size a container to content

    - by ISVK
    My goal is to display the entire contents of a FlowDocument (that is, without paginating) in a column layout. It would have a fixed height, but the width would depend on the contents of the FlowDocument. My problem is: FlowDocumentReader does not automatically resize to the contents of the FlowDocument. As you see in my XAML below, FlowDocumentReader.Width is 5000 units (just a large number that can accommodate most documents) -- when I make it Auto, it just clips to the width of the ScrollViewer and paginates my stuff! Is there a proper way of solving this problem? I also made a screenshot of what this looks like now, but the ScrollViewer scrolls past the end of the document in most cases: http://i.imgur.com/3FSRl.png <ScrollViewer x:Name="scrollViewer" HorizontalScrollBarVisibility="Visible" VerticalScrollBarVisibility="Disabled" > <FlowDocumentReader x:Name="flowDocReader" ClipToBounds="False" Width="5000" > <FlowDocument x:Name="flowDoc" Foreground="#FF404040" ColumnRuleWidth="2" ColumnGap="40" ColumnRuleBrush="#FF404040" IsHyphenationEnabled="True" IsOptimalParagraphEnabled="True" ColumnWidth="150"> <Paragraph> Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, ...etc... </Paragraph> <Paragraph> Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, ...etc... </Paragraph> <Paragraph> Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, ...etc... </Paragraph> </FlowDocument> </FlowDocumentReader> </ScrollViewer>

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