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• How exactly do MbUnit's [Parallelizable] and DegreeOfParallelism work?

  - by BenA

  I thought I understood how MbUnit's parallel test execution worked, but the behaviour I'm seeing differs sufficiently much from my expectation that I suspect I'm missing something! I have a set of UI tests that I wish to run concurrently. All of the tests are in the same assembly, split across three different namespaces. All of the tests are completely independent of one another, so I'd like all of them to be eligible for parallel execution. To that end, I put the following in the AssemblyInfo.cs: [assembly: DegreeOfParallelism(8)] [assembly: Parallelizable(TestScope.All)] My understanding was that this combination of assembly attributes should cause all of the tests to be considered [Parallelizable], and that the test runner should use 8 threads during execution. My individual tests are marked with the [Test] attribute, and nothing else. None of them are data-driven. However, what I actually see is at most 5-6 threads being used, meaning that my test runs are taking longer than they should be. Am I missing something? Do I need to do anything else to ensure that all of my 8 threads are being used by the runner? N.B. The behaviour is the same irrespective of which runner I use. The GUI, command line and TD.Net runners all behave the same as described above, again leading me to think I've missed something. EDIT: As pointed out in the comments, I'm running v3.1 of MbUnit (update 2 build 397). The documentation suggests that the assembly level [parallelizable] attribute is available, but it does also seem to reference v3.2 of the framework despite that not yet being available. EDIT 2: To further clarify, the structure of my assembly is as follows: assembly - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute)

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• Have you had DLL's fail after upgrading to 64 bit server?

  - by quakkels

  Hey All, I'm wondering if anyone else has experienced failed DLL's after upgrading their servers. My company is in the process of upgrading our code and server's after ten years of using classic ASP. We've set up our new server running Windows 2008 and IIS 7. Our classic ASP code and our new asp.net mvc code work pretty well. Our problems started happening when we began moving our old websites to the new server. When trying to load the page on the actual server machine's browser, we initially got a 500 error. If we refreshed the page then some of the page would load but then display an error: Server object error 'ASP 0177 : 800401f3' Server.CreateObject Failed /folder/scriptname.asp, line 24 800401f3 btw: On remote machines we would just get 500 errors. Line 24 is the first executable code in the script: '23 lines of comments set A0SQL_DATA = server.createobject("olddllname.Data") 'the rest of the script That specific line is trying to use a ten year old DLL to create a server object. I don't think the server configuration is a problem because I'm able to create "adodb.recordset" server objects without any problems. Is there an issue when running correctly registered old DLL's on 64 bit systems? Is there a way to get old DLL's working on 64 bit systems?

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• Interchange xsd and xsi in the output of XmlSerializer

  - by Sri Kumar

  XmlSerializer serializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(IxComment)); System.IO.StringWriter aStream = new System.IO.StringWriter(); serializer.Serialize(aStream,Comments); commentsString = aStream.ToString(); Here the commentsString has the the following element in it <IxComment xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> Is there any possibility to interchange the xsi and xsd attribute and get the element as shown below <IxComment xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" > Will this cause any other issue? EDIT: Why do i need to do this? We are migrating an existing application from 1.1 to 3.0 and in the code there is a if loop int iStartTagIndex = strXMLString.IndexOf("<IxComment xmlns:xsd=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema\" xmlns:xsi=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance\">"); that check for the index of the IxComment. Here the o/p of the serializer and the condition differ in the position of xsd and xsi. So i am trying to know whether we can instruct the serializer to provided the o/p as required. I have another question here as this was an existing application does the serializer O/P differs with versions?

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• PHP Sessions and Passing Session ID

  - by Jason McCreary

  I have an API where I am passing the session id back and forth between calls. I set up the session like so: // start API session session_name('apikey'); session_id($data['apikey']); // required to link session session_start(); Although I named my session and am passing the session id via GET and POST using the name, PHP does not automatically resume that session. It always creates a new one unless I set the explicitly set the session id. I found some old user comments on www.php.net that said unless the session id is the first parameter PHP won't set it automatically. This seems odd, but even when I call tried it still didn't work: rest_services.php?apikey=sdr6d3subaofcav53cpf71j4v3&q=testing I have used PHP for years, but am a little confused on why I needed to explicitly set the session with session_id() when I am naming the session and passing it's key accordingly. UPDATE It seems I wasn't clear. My question is why is setting the session ID with session_id() required when I am passing the id, using the session name apikey, via $_GET or $_POST. Theoretically this is no different than PHP's SID when cookies are disabled. But for me it doesn't work unless I explicitly set the session ID. Why?

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• Java plugin framework choice

  - by Marcus

  We're trying to determine how to implement a simple plugin framework for a service we are implementing that allows different types of calculators to be "plugged-in". After reading a number of posts about Java plugin frameworks, it seems like the most common options are: OSGI "Rolling your own" plugin framework The Java Plugin Framework (JPF) The Java Simple Plugin Framework (JSPF) OSGI seems to be more than we need. "Rolling your own" is ok but it would be nice to reuse a common library. So we're down to the JPF and JSPF. JPF seems to not be in active development right now. JSPF seems very simple and really all we need. However I haven't heard much about it. I've only seen one post on StackOverflow about it. Does anyone else have any experience with JSPF? Or any other comments on this design choice? Update: There isn't necessarily a correct answer to this.. however we're going to go with Pavol's idea as we need just a really, really simple solution. Thanks EoH for the nice guide.

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• add a number in while loop

  - by Luke

  if ($num_rows > 0) { while($row=mysql_fetch_assoc($res)) { $fromuser=$row['username']; $comment=$row['comment']; $commentdate=$row['date']; $date=strtotime($commentdate); $final_date=date("g:i a", $date); $final_date2=date("F j Y", $date); ?> <table align="center" width="100%"style='border-top: 1px dotted;'bgcolor="#eeeeee" > <tr><td><?echo "<a href=\"userprofile.php?user=$fromuser\"><b>$fromuser</b></a> commented:\n";?></td></tr> <tr><td><?echo "at $final_date on $final_date2\n";?></td></tr> <tr bgcolor="#ffffff"><td><?echo "$comment\n";?></td></tr> </table><br> <? } } else { echo"There are currently no comments on this user"; } ?> I am looking for a way to add a number to each comment. So 1, 2, 3, 4, etc in DESC order. I can't think how I can do this?

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• Why does Android allocate more memory than needed when loading images

  - by Simon

  Folks, I don't think that this is a duplicate and is NOT one of those how do I avoid OOMs questions. This is a genuine quest for knowledge so hold off on those down votes please... Imagine I have a JPEG of 500x500 pixels. I load it as ARGB_8888 which is as "bad as it gets". I would expect Android to allocate 500x500x4 bytes = a little under 1MB however, look at a heap dump and you will see that Android allocates significantly more, often factors of 5-10 times greater. You frequently see questions on here about OOMS where the stack trace shows a heap request of say 15MB and it is ALWAYS much larger than is required simply to hold the bytes of the image. The OP usually catches some downvotes then is bombarded with stock answers and comments about using less memory (thanks Romain!) and in scaling. I think there is more than meets the eye here. Anybody know why this is? If there is no apparent answer, I will put together an SSCCE if it helps. PS. I assume that JPEG vs PNG etc is irrelevant since we're talking about the memory usage of the backing bitmap which is simply x times y times BPP - or am I being slow?

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• Reorganizing development environment for single developer/small shop

  - by Matthew

  I have been developing for my company for approximately three years. We serve up a web portal using Microsoft .NET and MS SQL Server on DotNetNuke. I am going to leave my job full time at the end of April. I am leaving on good terms, and I really care about this company and the state of the web project. Because I haven't worked in a team environment in a long time, I have probably lost touch with what 'real' setups look like. When I leave, I predict the company will either find another developer to take over, or at least have developers work on a contractual basis. Because I have not worked with other developers, I am very concerned with leaving the company (and the developer they hire) with a jumbled mess. I'd like to believe I am a good developer and everything makes sense, but I have no way to tell. My question, is how do I set up the development environment, so the company and the next developer will have little trouble getting started? What would you as a developer like in place before working on a project you've never worked on? Here's some relevant information: There is a development server onsite and a production server offsite in a data center . There is a server where backups and source code (Sourcegear Vault) are stored. There is no formal documentation but there are comments in the code. The company budget is tight so free suggestions will help the best. I will be around after the end of April on a consulting basis so I can ask simple questions but I will not be available full time to train someone

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• Preventing a heavy process from sinking in the swap file

  - by eran

  Our service tends to fall asleep during the nights on our client's server, and then have a hard time waking up. What seems to happen is that the process heap, which is sometimes several hundreds of MB, is moved to the swap file. This happens at night, when our service is not used, and others are scheduled to run (DB backups, AV scans etc). When this happens, after a few hours of inactivity the first call to the service takes up to a few minutes (consequent calls take seconds). I'm quite certain it's an issue of virtual memory management, and I really hate the idea of forcing the OS to keep our service in the physical memory. I know doing that will hurt other processes on the server, and decrease the overall server throughput. Having that said, our clients just want our app to be responsive. They don't care if nightly jobs take longer. I vaguely remember there's a way to force Windows to keep pages on the physical memory, but I really hate that idea. I'm leaning more towards some internal or external watchdog that will initiate higher-level functionalities (there is already some internal scheduler that does very little, and makes no difference). If there were a 3rd party tool that provided that kind of service is would have been just as good. I'd love to hear any comments, recommendations and common solutions to this kind of problem. The service is written in VC2005 and runs on Windows servers.

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• PHP gettext on Windows

  - by Axsuul

  There's some tutorials out there for gettext (w/ Poedit)... unfortunately, it's mostly for a UNIX environment. And even more unfortunate is that I am running my WAMP server on Windows XP (but I am developing for a UNIX environment) and none of the tutorials can get gettext working properly for me. From the man page (http://us3.php.net/manual/en/book.gettext.php), it appears that it's a different process on a Windows environment. I've tried out some of the solutions in the comments but I still can't get it to work! Please, I've spent many hours on this, hopefully someone can point me in the right direction to get this thing to work! (and I'm sure there are others out there who share my frustration). So far with my setup, I'm only getting output "Hello World!" whereas I should be getting the translated string. Here is my setup/code so far: <?php // test.php if (!defined('LC_MESSAGES')) { define('LC_MESSAGES', 6); } $locale = "deu_DEU"; // apparently the locales are different on a WINDOWS platform putenv("LC_ALL=$locale"); setlocale(LC_ALL, $locale); bindtextdomain("greetings", ".\locale"); textdomain("greetings"); echo _("Hello World"); ?> Folder structure root: C:\Program Files\WampServer 2\www test.php: C:\Program Files\WampServer 2\www\site .po: C:\Program Files\WampServer 2\www\site\locale\deu_DEU\LC_MESSAGES\greetings.po .mo: C:\Program Files\WampServer 2\www\site\locale\deu_DEU\LC_MESSAGES\greetings.mo Please advise! Thanks for your time :)

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• Problems breaking out of nested loops

  - by user1040281

  I have problems breaking out off these nested loops correctly. What the code is trying to do is to indicate that a customer has rented a certain movie. Both the movie and customer are compared to properties of arraylist objects and then if all checks out the name property and ID property of a movie object are added as a string to another arraylist. All this works correctly as long as I use the first movie (from movies) and the first customer (from customers) but if I try renting other movies further down my arraylist with other customers then it adds the rented movie to the customerRentedMovies arraylist but prints out the "else message". I figure I need to break out of the foreach(blabla) loops aswell? or could goto be used? Comments was removed (looked kinda messy, can explain further if needed) public void RentMovie(string titel, int movieID, string name, int customerID) { foreach (Customer customer in customers) { if (name == customer.Name && customerID == customer.CustomerID) { foreach (MovieInfo movie in movies) { if (titel == movie.Titel && movieID == movie.MovieID) { movie.rented = true; string rentedMovie = string.Format("{0} ID: {1}", movie.Titel, movie.MovieID); customer.customerRentedMovies.Add(rentedMovie); break; } else { Console.WriteLine("No movie with that titel and ID!"); } } break; } else { Console.WriteLine("No customer with that ID and name"); } } }

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• Draw a comparison between an integer in a specific row and a count

  - by XCoderX

  This is a follow-up question to this one: Check for specific integer in a row WHERE user = $name I want a user to be able to comment on my site for exactly five times a day. After this five times, the user has to wait 24 hours. In order to accomplish that I raise a counter in my MYSQL database, right next to the user. So where the name of the user is, there is where the counter gets raised. When it reaches 5 it should stop counting and reset after 24 hours. In order to check the time I use a timestamp. I check if the timestamp is older than 24 hours. If that is the case, the counter gets reseted (-5) and the user can comment again. In order to do that, I use the following code, however it never stops at five, my guess is that my comparison is wrong somehow: $counter = "SELECT FROM table VALUES CommentCounterReset WHERE Name = '$name'"; if(!isset($_SESSION['ts'])); { $_SESSION['ts'] = time(); } if ($counter >= 5) { if (time() - $_SESSION['ts'] <= 60*60*24){ echo "You already wrote five comments."; } else { $sql = "UPDATE table SET CommentCounterReset = CommentCounterReset-5 WHERE Name = '$name'"; } } else { $sql = "UPDATE table SET CommentCounterReset = CommentCounterReset+1 WHERE Name = '$name'"; echo "Your comment has been added."; }

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• Asp MVC - "The Id field is required" validation message on Create; Id not set to [Required]

  - by Dann

  This is happening when I try to create the entity using a Create style action in Asp.Net MVC 2. The POCO has the following properties: public int Id {get;set;} [Required] public string Message {get; set} On the creation of the entity, the Id is set automatically, so there is no need for it on the Create action. The ModelState says that "The Id field is required", but I haven't set that to be so. Is there something automatic going on here? EDIT - Reason Revealed The reason for the issue is answered by Brad Wilson via Paul Speranza in one of the comments below where he says (cheers Paul): You're providing a value for ID, you just didn't know you were. It's in the route data of the default route ("{controller}/{action}/{id}"), and its default value is the empty string, which isn't valid for an int. Use the [Bind] attribute on your action parameter to exclude ID. My default route was: new { controller = "Customer", action = "Edit", id = " " } // Parameter defaults EDIT - Update Model technique I actually changed the way I did this again by using TryUpdateModel and the exclude parameter array asscoiated with that. [HttpPost] public ActionResult Add(Venue collection) { Venue venue = new Venue(); if (TryUpdateModel(venue, null, null, new[] { "Id" })) { _service.Add(venue); return RedirectToAction("Index", "Manage"); } return View(collection); }

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• Is it possible to replace values in a queryset before sending it to your template?

  - by Issy

  Hi Guys, Wondering if it's possible to change a value returned from a queryset before sending it off to the template. Say for example you have a bunch of records Date | Time | Description 10/05/2010 | 13:30 | Testing... etc... However, based on the day of the week the time may change. However this is static. For example on a monday the time is ALWAYS 15:00. Now you could add another table to configure special cases but to me it seems overkill, as this is a rule. How would you replace that value before sending it to the template? I thought about using the new if tags (if day=1), but this is more of business logic rather then presentation. Tested this in a custom template tag def render(self, context): result = self.model._default_manager.filter(from_date__lte=self.now).filter(to_date__gte=self.now) if self.day == 4: result = result.exclude(type__exact=2).order_by('time') else: result = result.order_by('type') result[0].time = '23:23:23' context[self.varname] = result return '' However it still displays the results from the DB, is this some how related to 'lazy' evaluation of templates? Thanks! Update Responding to comments below: It's not stored wrong in the DB, its stored Correctly However there is a small side case where the value needs to change. So for example I have a From Date & To date, my query checks if todays date is between those. Now with this they could setup a from date - to date for an entire year, and the special cases (like mondays as an example) is taken care off. However if you want to store in the DB you would have to capture several more records to cater for the side case. I.e you would be capturing the same information just to cater for that 1 day when the time changes. (And the time always changes on the same day, and is always the same)

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• Mysql random rows

  - by n00b

  please read the whole question... 90% of you dont seem to do that and some of you only read the title obviously... and if you dont know the solution, dont answer - i wont have to downvote you -.-'' im entertaining the idea of getting random rows directly from mysql. what i found was SELECT * FROM tablename WHERE somefield='something' ORDER BY RAND() LIMIT 5 but even i see how slow that would be.. is the only way to do this doing something like SELECT * FROM tablename WHERE somefield='something' LIMIT RAND(aincrementvalue-5), 1 5 times? or is there a way that i with my little knowlege of databases cant come up with ? (no i dont want random indexes. i hate the idea of them...) @commenters - please first look, then think, then look again, think again and then post. i wont point fingers but i dislike stupid comments and why i think random indexes are a nasty hack ? it doesnt give you random results. it gives you x results from a random index in a predefined order its like a gapless id only in the wrong order if you fetch by 1 row and get true randomness you fall back to my method but with an additional junk field finally the reason the field exists is only to serve as a helper to something that can be done without it with almost same performance (but the quality (randomness) is better), so it is a nasty hack ;) i solved it, look @ my answer... if you think its incorrect please tell me :)

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• Generic validate input data via regex. Input error when match.count == 0

  - by Valamas

  Hi, I have a number of types of data fields on an input form, for example, a web page. Some fields are like, must be an email address, must be a number, must be a number between, must have certain characters. Basically, the list is undefinable. I wish to come up with a generic way of validating the data inputed. I thought I would use regex to validate the data. The fields which need validation would be related to a "regex expression" and a "regex error message" stating what the field should contain. My current mock up has that when the match count is zero, that would signify an error and to display the message. While still a white belt regex designer I have come to understand that in certain situations that it is difficult to write a regex which results in a match count of zero for every case. A complex regex case I looked for help on was Link Here. The forum post was a disaster because I confused people helping me. But one of the statements said that it was difficult to make a regex with a match count of zero meaning the input data was invalid; that the regex was very difficult to write that for. Does anyone have comments or suggestions on this generic validation system I am trying to create? thanks

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• adding a token onto a webservice or wcf call

  - by duncanUK

  I have an httphandler which I am using to log the http soap request and response for each webservice that is called from my application as a comms log. i would like to inject a token ont he 1st call (possibly the 1st call to invoke the service that is being logged) and then be able to track all subsequent webservice calls run in the same context with this token so i can tie the subsequent calls back up to the original call. so for example. main webservice -> 2nd web service -> another web service [token] [token] [token] -> nth web service [token] I would like to inject the token on the first call to the main webservice (http handler checks if no token, add it), I would like to use the same http handler to intercept each call to the subsequent webservices and pass on the token if it exists already (the job of the httphandler is to log the in/out soap with the token to reference with. I have managed to inject the first token, but my problem is how do I add the token on the subsequent calls.. can I make it stick on the same context or session? My worry is that when we call a new webservice, we create a whole new proxy/http request which will not inhrit the token... or will it?! Ideally I would like it to persist on the http header as I am setting the token as a header at the moment? has anyone got any ideas or a better way of doing this? I would be most greatful for you comments!

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• Is there a JavaScript event that fires when a tab index switch is triggered? (TABINDEX does not work for inputs in IFRAME)

  - by treeface

  My specific use case is that I have a WYSIWYG editor which is basically an editable iframe. To the user, however, it looks like a standard-issue textarea. My problem is that I have inputs that sit before and after this editor in the (perceived) tab index and I'd like the user to be able to press tab (or the equivalent on his platform of choice) to get to the WYSIWYG editor when he's in the previous element and shift-tab to get to it when he's in the latter element. I know this can be faked using the key events and checking whether or not the tab key was pressed, but I'm curious if there's a better way. UPDATE. treeface clarified the actual problem in the comments. PROBLEM: In normal case, you can use "TABINDEX" attribute of the <input> element to control that, when tabbing out of "Subject" input field (in an email form), the focus lands on "Body" input field in the e-mail. This is done simply by assigning correctly ordered values to "TABINDEX" attribute of both input fields. The problem is that TABINDEX attribute only orders elements within the same frame. So, if "Body" input field is actually in an internal IFRAME, you can't tab out of "Subject" in the parent frame straight into "Body" in the IFRAME using TABINDEX order.

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• Looking for Opinions and Sugestions on my Website. (General Question)

  - by MrEnder

  I am looking for general opinions and suggestions about the site in whole. Its ok I don't mind hearing where I went wrong on anything. I'm still learning. All tips and pointers on any subject relating are highly welcome. If you are going to make a suggestion and post a snippet or code please explain how it works in detail. The site was design as a interface to display the labs I have to do in my college (the labs are all basic things that I'm way beyond). So I decided to take it all to the next level with this. The link is http://opentech.durhamcollege.ca/~intn2201/brittains/labs/ It is 100% designed by me with the exception of the icons. (I could not think of anything better to draw) There is no specific area of the site I want suggestions or opinions on this is a general question. You may answer about the site in whole or an area of the coding just please specify. If you have any questions related to my site or code you may ask them as well. Thank you for your time and any comments Shelby

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• Strange behaviour of NSScanner on simple whitespace removal

  - by Michael Waterfall

  I'm trying to replace all multiple whitespace in some text with a single space. This should be a very simple task, however for some reason it's returning a different result than expected. I've read the docs on the NSScanner and it seems like it's not working properly! NSScanner *scanner = [[NSScanner alloc] initWithString:@"This is a test of NSScanner !"]; NSMutableString *result = [[NSMutableString alloc] init]; NSString *temp; NSCharacterSet *whitespace = [NSCharacterSet whitespaceCharacterSet]; while (![scanner isAtEnd]) { // Scan upto and stop before any whitespace [scanner scanUpToCharactersFromSet:whitespace intoString:&temp]; // Add all non whotespace characters to string [result appendString:temp]; // Scan past all whitespace and replace with a single space if ([scanner scanCharactersFromSet:whitespace intoString:NULL]) { [result appendString:@" "]; } } But for some reason the result is @"ThisisatestofNSScanner!" instead of @"This is a test of NSScanner !". If you read through the comments and what each line should achieve it seems simple enough!? scanUpToCharactersFromSet should stop the scanner just as it encounters whitespace. scanCharactersFromSet should then progress the scanner past the whitespace up to the non-whitespace characters. And then the loop continues to the end. What am I missing or not understanding?

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• Good Replacement for User Control?

  - by David Lively

  I found user controls to be incredibly useful when working with ASP.NET webforms. By encapsulating the code required for displaying a control with the markup, creation of reusable components was very straightforward and very, very useful. While MVC provides convenient separation of concerns, this seems to break encapsulation (ie, you can add a control without adding or using its supporting code, leading to runtime errors). Having to modify a controller every time I add a control to a view seems to me to integrate concerns, not separate them. I'd rather break the purist MVC ideology than give up the benefits of reusable, packaged controls. I need to be able to include components similar to webforms user controls throughout a site, but not for the entire site, and not at a level that belongs in a master page. These components should have their own code not just markup (to interact with the business layer), and it would be great if the page controller didn't need to know about the control. Since MVC user controls don't have codebehind, I can't see a good way to do this. I've searched previous SO questions, and have yet to find a good answer. Options so far In an attempt to avoid turning the comments section into a discussion... RenderAction This allows the view to call another controller, which will be responsible for interacting with the BLL and whatever data is necessary to its corresponding view. The calling view needs to be aware of the sub controller. This seems to provide a nice way to encapsulate partial views and controls, without having to modify the calling controller. RenderPartial The calling controller is still responsible for executing whatever code is associated with the partial view, and making sure that the model passed to the partial view contains the data it expects. Effectively, modifying the partial view potentially means modifying the calling controller. Annoying especially if this is used in multiple places. Portable Areas Place each control in its own project/area?

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• Why can't I handle a KeyboardInterrupt in python?

  - by Josh

  I'm writing python 2.6.6 code on windows that looks like this: try: dostuff() except KeyboardInterrupt: print "Interrupted!" except: print "Some other exception?" finally: print "cleaning up...." print "done." dostuff() is a function that loops forever, reading a line at a time from an input stream and acting on it. I want to be able to stop it and clean up when I hit ctrl-c. What's happening instead is that the code under except KeyboardInterrupt: isn't running at all. The only thing that gets printed is "cleaning up...", and then a traceback is printed that looks like this: Traceback (most recent call last): File "filename.py", line 119, in <module> print 'cleaning up...' KeyboardInterrupt So, exception handling code is NOT running, and the traceback claims that a KeyboardInterrupt occurred during the finally clause, which doesn't make sense because hitting ctrl-c is what caused that part to run in the first place! Even the generic except: clause isn't running. EDIT: Based on the comments, I replaced the contents of the try: block with sys.stdin.read(). The problem still occurs exactly as described, with the first line of the finally: block running and then printing the same traceback.

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• Best way to migrate export/import from SQL Server to oracle

  - by matao

  Hi guys! I'm faced with needing access for reporting to some data that lives in Oracle and other data that lives in a SQL Server 2000 database. For various reasons these live on different sides of a firewall. Now we're looking at doing an export/import from sql server to oracle and I'd like some advice on the best way to go about it... The procedure will need to be fully automated and run nightly, so that excludes using the SQL developer tools. I also can't make a live link between databases from our (oracle) side as the firewall is in the way. The data needs to be transformed in the process from a star schema to a de-normalised table ready for reporting. What I'm thinking about is writing a monster query for SQL Server (which I mostly have already) that will denormalise and read out the data from SQL Server into a flat file using the sql server equivalent of sqlplus as a scheduled task, dump into a Well Known Location, then on the oracle side have a cron job that copies down the file and loads it with sql loader and rebuilds indexes etc. This is all doable, but very manual. Is there one or a combination of FOSS or standard oracle/SQL Server tools that could automate this for me? the Irreducible complexity is the query on one side and building indexes on the other, but I would love to not have to write the CSV dumping detail or the SQL loader script, just say dump this view out to CSV on one side, and on the other truncate and insert into this table from CSV and not worry about mapping column names and all other arcane sqlldr voodoo... best practices? thoughts? comments? edit: I have about 50+ columns all of varying types and lengths in my dataset, which is why I'd prefer to not have to write out how to generate and map each single column...

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• How to check if a node's value in one XML is present in another XML with a specific attribute?

  - by Manish

  The question seems to be little confusing. So let me describe my situation through an example: Suppose I have an XML: A.xml <Cakes> <Cake>Egg</Cake> <Cake>Banana</Cake> </Cakes> Another XML: B.xml <Cakes> <Cake show="true">Egg</Cake> <Cake show="true">Strawberry</Cake> <Cake show="false">Banana</Cake> </Cakes> Now I want to show some text say "TRUE" if all the Cake in A.xml have show="true" in B.xml else "FALSE". In the above case, it will print FALSE. I need to develop an XSL for that. I can loop through all the Cake in A.xml and check if that cake has show="true" in B.xml but I don't know how to break in between (and set a variable) if a show="false" is found. Is it possible? Any help/comments appreciated.

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• Using a join with three tables when a field might be null

  - by John

  Hello, The code below works great. It combines data from two MySQL tables. I would like to modify it by pulling in some data from a third MySQL table called "comment." In the HTML table below, "title" is a field in the MySQL table "submission." Every "title" has a corresponding "submissionid" field. The field "submissionid" is also found in the "comment" MySQL table. In the HTML table below, I would like "countComments" to equal the number of times a field called "commentid" appears in the MySQL table "comment" for any given "submissionid," where the "submissionid" is the same in both the "submission" and "comment" tables, and where the "submissionid" corresponds to the "title" being used. Here's the catch: if there is no row in the MySQL table "comment" that corresponds with the "submissionid" being used for "table", I would like "countComments" to equal to zero. How can I do this? Thanks in advance, John $sqlStr = "SELECT s.loginid, s.title, s.url, s.displayurl, l.username FROM submission AS s, login AS l WHERE s.loginid = l.loginid ORDER BY s.datesubmitted DESC LIMIT 10"; $result = mysql_query($sqlStr); $arr = array(); echo "<table class=\"samplesrec\">"; while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { echo '<tr>'; echo '<td class="sitename1"><a href="http://www.'.$row["url"].'">'.$row["title"].'</a></td>'; echo '</tr>'; echo '<tr>'; echo '<td class="sitename2"><a href="http://www...com/sandbox/members/index.php?profile='.$row["username"].'">'.$row["username"].'</a><a href="http://www...com/sandbox/comments/index.php?submission='.$row["title"].'">'.$row["countComments"].'</a></td>'; echo '</tr>'; } echo "</table>";

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