pop forums - Page 158 - Developer IT

Android EVO4G SenseUI Flash Lite 4 cookie problem

- by cmurray

Got the EVO4G today, watching it run Actionscript3 out of the box was EXTREMELY cool. Ran into a problem though. When I connect to a server which creates an HTTP session and hands a cookie to my application, subsequent calls from my client to the server do not have the cookie attached to the HTTP request. That causes the server to invalidate the session and my user is logged out. This appears to be a bug between the Flash Lite 4 player and the SenseUI/browser running in Android 2.1 for the EVO4G. This same application works on other platforms, including the HTC HERO if compiled for flash lite 2. If I hardcode my HTTP requests in the browser address bar, the cookies work, so I know cookies are working on the phone. But when my application is running in the Flash Player, the cookies are not working. I realize this may not be the best forum for this question, so if you cant answer or help me, if you could give me some more appropriate forums to ask on, I would appreciate that. Thanks!

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Creating 1 page PDF of iPad Screen view - How?

- by user314695

Hi All, I've asked this question on a couple other forums and have had zero response, so I'm hoping someone here can help point me in the right direction. I have a pretty simple one screen application for my work. It's basically just a recreation of a 1 page paper report that has a company logo, some labels, a few text boxes and a scroll text box for the report. I need to be able to fill out the report then click a button to save it in a graphical form so I can fax, print or email it later. Currently, I'm just programmatically taking a screen capture and saving it to the photo's library (default for screen capture). Then I can just email it from photo's. This works ok, but is kind of hacky, at best. I've read through the new iPad 3.2 guide for creating PDF's (apparently it's supposed to be much easier than before) but I can not get it to work and I've spent countless hours on it now. I'm hoping someone has the answer for me. Alternatively, if anyone knows how I can redirect where the screen capture is stored (default is in the photo album) then maybe I can make that function work. If I could redirect the screen capture to store in my applications document folder, then I can use MFMailCompose to attach it to an email. Lastly, on a side note, does anyone know of a good way to capture a digital signature via touch. For instance, I'd love to have my users be able to just sign their name via touch at the bottom of the document before I convert to PDF or take a screen capture. Thanks in advance for your help. -Ray

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What CSS do I need to make my site more responsive?

- by user2938757

My site is: http://library.skybundle.com I feel like I almost have a responsive site. I did all the CSS styling myself. It is a Wordpress site but I completely edited the CSS of the original theme, so it is night-and-day different than it used to be. The original theme was mostly just for a canvas for me to work with, since I am not an expert in PHP and we wanted a Wordpress site for easy editing later on. Thanks to stackoverflow, I now have a footer that sticks to the bottom of every page and everything mostly looks good -- the way we want it anyway. The only thing missing now is the we want browser windows on MOBILE devices, such as on an iPhone, to automatically adjust the layout of the content in the body (wrapper). For example, on the main page (library.skybundle.com), I would like those two big icons two become vertically aligned as soon as the browser window sizes to a small, mostly vertical size, like that of a mobile phone. Take this site, for example: http://freedomsoundproductions.securesb.net/ This is what we would like it to do. So one a page with a sidebar, the content to the right of the sidebar should basically jump into the same "column" as the left sidebar and form one single long column. Just like in the example site above. This should all be possible via CSS. People in other forums seem to want me to use jQuery and stuff, but I can only use CSS, and I know that this must be possible without having to resort to jQuery, HTML, or other code.

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Reading PDF form field data from Flex 4 ( via php or coldfusion )

- by Brian Russel Davis

Been searching web for an answer for this for a MONTH. I am not an expert in Coldfusion. So supposedly this is easy in CF -- but the mark-up confuses the HECK out of me. So here I am. I have managed to import and read a PDF using the CF Proxy for Actionscript: http://forums.adobe.com/thread/754629?tstart=0 --- BUT --- After all my trouble there, the precious form filed information that I was looking for was not there in the PDF info object. GRRRR. So I am back to looking for a way to do this with CFC's or CFM's or PHP. All I want is this: Read the PDF from a Flex app. GET the form field information. WRITE a new PDF with the form field values. I have found so many close but no cigar options ... and I have tried so many that failed. There are so many free PDF this and that out there. But Adobe seems to reserve the real functionality for themselves. All the free options don't seem to have access to the form data? Anyways I am so exhausted with looking for ways to do this. I need help!

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ASP.Net MVC and Windows 7 404 error

- by Paul Rivers

O.K. Stupid question..... I sepnt nearly a day getting an MVC site working, and then I published it. After that, the hell began. I'm using Windows 7, Visual Studio 2008 and MVC. I published it and first the Default.aspx wouldn't come up. I gave up on playing with that for a few and just did the easy thing a typed in default.aspx. I'll fix that problem later. So, I clicked on one of my navigation buttons which prior to this worked just fine in the internal development IIS, and I get a 404 error. I spent two days surfing the Microsoft support forums and every other support forum I can find. No fix. So, I tried something a little different. Just to see if I screwed up. I created a new TestMVC application. Set the output to a website on the local IIS. Compiled and after typing in the default.aspx (it was set as the startup file in the project) I then clicked on the About button on the base MVC application. And what do I get? 404. I know this is new, folks, but this is crazy. What is it about this process that would take this much effort to get it right, especially since it works on the test server.

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VB.NET CInt(Long) behaving differently in 32- and 64-bit environments

- by LocoDelAssembly

Hello everybody, this is my first message here. Today I had a problem converting a Long (Int64) to an Integer (Int32). The problem is that my code was always working in 32-bit environments, but when I try THE SAME executable in a 64-bit computer it crashes with a System.OverflowException exception. I've prepared this test code in VS2008 in a new project with default settings: Module Module1 Sub Main() Dim alpha As Long = -1 Dim delta As Integer Try delta = CInt(alpha And UInteger.MaxValue) Console.WriteLine("CINT OK") delta = Convert.ToInt32(alpha And UInteger.MaxValue) Console.WriteLine("Convert.ToInt32 OK") Catch ex As Exception Console.WriteLine(ex.GetType().ToString()) Finally Console.ReadLine() End Try End Sub End Module On my 32-bit setups (Windows XP SP3 32-bit and Windows 7 32-bit) it prints "CINT OK", but in the 64-bit computer (Windows 7 64-bit) that I've tested THE SAME executable it prints the exception name only. Is this behavior documented? I tried to find a reference but failed miserably. For reference I leave the MSIL code too: .method public static void Main() cil managed { .entrypoint .custom instance void [mscorlib]System.STAThreadAttribute::.ctor() = ( 01 00 00 00 ) // Code size 88 (0x58) .maxstack 2 .locals init ([0] int64 alpha, [1] int32 delta, [2] class [mscorlib]System.Exception ex) IL_0000: nop IL_0001: ldc.i4.m1 IL_0002: conv.i8 IL_0003: stloc.0 IL_0004: nop .try { .try { IL_0005: ldloc.0 IL_0006: ldc.i4.m1 IL_0007: conv.u8 IL_0008: and IL_0009: conv.ovf.i4 IL_000a: stloc.1 IL_000b: ldstr "CINT OK" IL_0010: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(string) IL_0015: nop IL_0016: ldloc.0 IL_0017: ldc.i4.m1 IL_0018: conv.u8 IL_0019: and IL_001a: call int32 [mscorlib]System.Convert::ToInt32(int64) IL_001f: stloc.1 IL_0020: ldstr "Convert.ToInt32 OK" IL_0025: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(string) IL_002a: nop IL_002b: leave.s IL_0055 } // end .try catch [mscorlib]System.Exception { IL_002d: dup IL_002e: call void [Microsoft.VisualBasic]Microsoft.VisualBasic.CompilerServices.ProjectData::SetProjectError(class [mscorlib]System.Exception) IL_0033: stloc.2 IL_0034: nop IL_0035: ldloc.2 IL_0036: callvirt instance class [mscorlib]System.Type [mscorlib]System.Exception::GetType() IL_003b: callvirt instance string [mscorlib]System.Type::ToString() IL_0040: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(string) IL_0045: nop IL_0046: call void [Microsoft.VisualBasic]Microsoft.VisualBasic.CompilerServices.ProjectData::ClearProjectError() IL_004b: leave.s IL_0055 } // end handler } // end .try finally { IL_004d: nop IL_004e: call string [mscorlib]System.Console::ReadLine() IL_0053: pop IL_0054: endfinally } // end handler IL_0055: nop IL_0056: nop IL_0057: ret } // end of method Module1::Main I suspect that the instruction that is behaving differently is either conv.ovf.i4 or the ldc.i4.m1/conv.u8 pair. If you know what is going on here please let me know Thanks

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How can I pass a hash to a Perl subroutine?

- by Vishalrix

In one of my main( or primary) routines,I have two or more hashes. I want the subroutine foo() to recieve these possibly-multiple hashes as distinct hashes. Right now I have no preference if they go by value, or as references. I am struggling with this for the last many hours and would appreciate help, so that I dont have to leave perl for php! ( I am using mod_perl, or will be) Right now I have got some answer to my requirement, shown here From http://forums.gentoo.org/viewtopic-t-803720-start-0.html # sub: dump the hash values with the keys '1' and '3' sub dumpvals { foreach $h (@_) { print "1: $h->{1} 3: $h->{3}\n"; } } # initialize an array of anonymous hash references @arr = ({1,2,3,4}, {1,7,3,8}); # create a new hash and add the reference to the array $t{1} = 5; $t{3} = 6; push @arr, \%t; # call the sub dumpvals(@arr); I only want to extend it so that in dumpvals I could do something like this: foreach my %k ( keys @_[0]) { # use $k and @_[0], and others } The syntax is wrong, but I suppose you can tell that I am trying to get the keys of the first hash ( hash1 or h1), and iterate over them. How to do it in the latter code snippet above?

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Which web solution should I use for my project?

- by BenIOs

I'm going to create a fairly large (from my point of view anyway) web project with a friend. We will create a site with roads and other road related info. Our calculations is that we will have around 100k items in our database. Each item will contain some information like location, name etc. (about 30 thing each). We are counting on having a few hundred thousand unique visitors per month. The 100k items and their locations (that will be searchable) will be the main part of the page but we will also have some articles, comments, news and later on some more social functions (accounts, forums, picture uploads etc.). We were going to use Google AppEngine to develop our project since it is really scalable and free (at least for a while). But I'm actually starting to doubt that AppEngine is right for us. It seems to be for webbapps and not sites like ours. Which system (language/framework etc.) would you guys recommend us to use? It doesn't really mater if we know the language since before (we like learning new stuff) but it would be good if it's something that is future proof.

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Adding fields to Django form dynamically (and cleanly)

- by scott

Hey guys, I know this question has been brought up numerous times, but I'm not quite getting the full implementation. As you can see below, I've got a form that I can dynamically tell how many rows to create. How can I create an "Add Row" link that tells the view how many rows to create? I would really like to do it without augmenting the url... # views.py def myView(request): if request.method == "POST": form = MyForm(request.POST, num_rows=1) if form.is_valid(): return render_to_response('myform_result.html', context_instance=RequestContext(request)) else: form = MyForm(num_rows=1) return render_to_response('myform.html', {'form':form}, context_instance=RequestContext(request)) # forms.py class MyForm(forms.Form): def __init__(self, *args, **kwargs): num_rows = kwargs.pop('num_rows',1) super(MyForm, self).__init__(*args, **kwargs) for row in range(0, num_rows): field = forms.CharField(label="Row") self.fields[str(row)] = field # myform.html http://example.com/myform <form action="." method="POST" accept-charset="utf-8"> <ul> {% for field in form %} <li style="margin-top:.25em"> <span class="normal">{{ field.label }}</span> {{ field }} <span class="formError">{{ field.errors }}</span> </li> {% endfor %} </ul> <input type="submit" value="Save"> </form> <a href="ADD_ANOTHER_ROW?">+ Add Row</a>

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my web service works locally but, not when it is deployed

- by rogdawg

When I deploy my web service, I get the following error: There is no build provider registered for the extension '.svc'. You can register one in the section in machine.config or web.config. Make sure is has a BuildProviderAppliesToAttribute attribute which includes the value 'Web' or 'All'. I found one thread (http://forums.asp.net/t/1228638.aspx) that suggested a solution but, I can not get it to work. If I make the changes to my web config file as suggested in the thread, I then get a configuration error. One odd thing is that, if I check the machine.config file on my machine, located at C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\CONFIG\machine.config, I don't see any of the config settings described in the thread. As a matter of fact, there is no mention of "compilation" or "buildProviders" at all. The on-line documents I have found regarding BuildProviderAppliesToAttribute have not been of any help. Thanks in advance for any advice you can give. Here is my entire config file listing: <?xml version="1.0"?>

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(Android) Why won't invalidate() update my buttons immediately?

- by frustrated user

I have read several forums and examples on using invalidate() in order to update views immediately but I still do not understand why what I am doing will not work. The code below uses image buttons defined by "red", "blue", "green", and "yellow". I set a 1 second delay between each time I try and change a button's appearance. Please someone tell me what i'm doing wrong. private void showPattern() { if (correct == true) { for (int k = 0; k < temp_basket.length; k++) { if (temp_basket[k] == 0) { red.setPressed(true); red.invalidate(); final Handler handler = new Handler(); Timer t = new Timer(); t.schedule(new TimerTask() { public void run() { handler.post(new Runnable() { public void run() { red.setPressed(false); red.invalidate(); } }); } }, 1000); There are 3 more or these blocks after this one that are blue, green, and yellow.

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Why does the onclick function run on onclick, but not when I call it manually?

- by Codemonkey

This is my code // Register onclick var old_onclick = link.onclick; link.onclick = function() { astr_track_action(param); if(typeof(old_onclick) == "function") old_onclick(); } And this is the html <a onclick="alert('hello!');" href="http://www.google.com?acme=link&foo=bar">To google!</a> When I click the link, the alert pops up. But when I override the onclick with my JS code, the alert does not pop up. Any ideas? Edit: I just want to add, I have debugged and confirmed that old_onclick() is run, but no alert message shows up. Edit: Here is the full code from the loop start. I don't see how it's relevant, but it was requested: for(var i = 0; i < document.links.length; i++) { var link = document.links[i]; var eventlink = link.href.split("acme="); if(eventlink.length > 1) { var param = eventlink[1].split("&")[0]; var newlink = link.href; // Register onclick var old_onclick = link.onclick; link.onclick = function() { astr_track_action(param); if(typeof(old_onclick) == "function") old_onclick(); }

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iphone navigation

- by Rona

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Dynamic programming Approach- Knapsack Puzzle

- by idalsin

I'm trying to solve the Knapsack problem with the dynamical programming(DP) approach, with Python 3.x. My TA pointed us towards this code for a head start. I've tried to implement it, as below: def take_input(infile): f_open = open(infile, 'r') lines = [] for line in f_open: lines.append(line.strip()) f_open.close() return lines def create_list(jewel_lines): #turns the jewels into a list of lists jewels_list = [] for x in jewel_lines: weight = x.split()[0] value = x.split()[1] jewels_list.append((int(value), int(weight))) jewels_list = sorted(jewels_list, key = lambda x : (-x[0], x[1])) return jewels_list def dynamic_grab(items, max_weight): table = [[0 for weight in range(max_weight+1)] for j in range(len(items)+1)] for j in range(1,len(items)+1): val= items[j-1][0] wt= items[j-1][1] for weight in range(1, max_weight+1): if wt > weight: table[j][weight] = table[j-1][weight] else: table[j][weight] = max(table[j-1][weight],table[j-1][weight-wt] + val) result = [] weight = max_weight for j in range(len(items),0,-1): was_added = table[j][weight] != table[j-1][weight] if was_added: val = items[j-1][0] wt = items[j-1][1] result.append(items[j-1]) weight -= wt return result def totalvalue(comb): #total of a combo of items totwt = totval = 0 for val, wt in comb: totwt += wt totval += val return (totval, -totwt) if totwt <= max_weight else (0,0) #required setup of variables infile = "JT_test1.txt" given_input = take_input(infile) max_weight = int(given_input[0]) given_input.pop(0) jewels_list = create_list(given_input) #test lines print(jewels_list) print(greedy_grab(jewels_list, max_weight)) bagged = dynamic_grab(jewels_list, max_weight) print(totalvalue(bagged)) The sample case is below. It is in the format line[0] = bag_max, line[1:] is in form(weight, value): 575 125 3000 50 100 500 6000 25 30 I'm confused as to the logic of this code in that it returns me a tuple and I'm not sure what the output tuple represents. I've been looking at this for a while and just don't understand what the code is pointing me at. Any help would be appreciated.

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Database PK-FK design for future-effective-date entries?

- by Scott Balmos

Ultimately I'm going to convert this into a Hibernate/JPA design. But I wanted to start out from purely a database perspective. We have various tables containing data that is future-effective-dated. Take an employee table with the following pseudo-definition: employee id INT AUTO_INCREMENT ... data fields ... effectiveFrom DATE effectiveTo DATE employee_reviews id INT AUTO_INCREMENT employee_id INT FK employee.id Very simplistic. But let's say Employee A has id = 1, effectiveFrom = 1/1/2011, effectiveTo = 1/1/2099. That employee is going to be changing jobs in the future, which would in theory create a new row, id = 2 with effectiveFrom = 7/1/2011, effectiveTo = 1/1/2099, and id = 1's effectiveTo updated to 6/30/2011. But now, my program would have to go through any table that has a FK relationship to employee every night, and update those FK to reference the newly-effective employee entry. I have seen various postings in both pure SQL and Hibernate forums that I should have a separate employee_versions table, which is where I would have all effective-dated data stored, resulting in the updated pseudo-definition below: employee id INT AUTO_INCREMENT employee_versions id INT AUTO_INCREMENT employee_id INT FK employee.id ... data fields ... effectiveFrom DATE effectiveTo DATE employee_reviews id INT AUTO_INCREMENT employee_id INT FK employee.id Then to get any actual data, one would have to actually select from employee_versions with the proper employee_id and date range. This feels rather unnatural to have this secondary "versions" table for each versioned entity. Anyone have any opinions, suggestions from your own prior work, etc? Like I said, I'm taking this purely from a general SQL design standpoint first before layering in Hibernate on top. Thanks!

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Run SQL Scripts from C# application across domains

- by Saravanan AR

To run sql script files from my C# application, I referred this. http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en/adodotnetdataproviders/thread/43e8bc3a-1132-453b-b950-09427e970f31 it works perfectly when my machine and DB server are in the same domain. my problem now is, i'm executing this console application from a machine (name: X, user id: abc, domain D1). the SQL server is in another machine (name: Y, domain: D2). I use VPN to connect to machine Y with user id 'abc' and work on SQL in remote desktop. how can i run sql scripts across domains? I use this in a custom activity in my TFS build template as the last step to run the scripts in the target database which is in domain D2. i'm getting this error: "A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: SQL Network Interfaces, error: 26 - Error Locating Server/Instance Specified)" is it possible to connect to the DB using the admin user ID of machine Y in domain D2?

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HTTP 401.3 when PUT, DELETE to ADO.NET Data Service (.svc)

- by Nate

I have an ADO.NET Data Service (we'll call it service.svc). When I deploy it to an IIS 6 site with Integrated Windows Authentication turned on, all requests (GET, POST, PUT, and DELETE) work fine for me, because I am an administrator on the box. However, when a non-admin user hits the service, only GET and POST requests work. When they try a PUT or DELETE request, they get an HTTP 401.3 "Access is Denied" error: "Error message 401.3: You do not have permission to view this directory or page using the credentials you supplied (access denied due to Access Control Lists). Ask the web server's administrator to give you access to '...\service.svc'." If I give the "Authenticated Users" local group write access to the .svc file, everything works as it should, but I really don't want to do this (and don't think I should have to do this to get this to work). In fact, I'm confused as to why changing the file permissions would affect this at all, but it definitely seems to be the problem. I've found a couple of different suggestions to fix somewhat similar problems in the Microsoft forums (Here, and I would post more links, but am being told that new users can only post one link in a post), but none of the solutions help. Any help is much appreciated. I am certainly no IIS expert, and this one has got me stumped.

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jquery dialog calls a server side method with button parameters

- by Chiefy

Hello all, I have a gridview control with delete asp:ImageButton for each row of the grid. What I would like is for a jquery dialog to pop up when a user clicks the delete button to ask if they are sure they want to delete it. So far I have the dialog coming up just fine, Ive got buttons on that dialog and I can make the buttons call server side methods but its getting the dialog to know the ID of the row that the user has selected and then passing that to the server side code. The button in the page row is currently just an 'a' tag with the id 'dialog_link'. The jquery on the page looks like this: $("button").button(); $("#DeleteButton").click(function () { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "ManageUsers.aspx/DeleteUser", data: "{}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (msg) { // Replace the div's content with the page method's return. $("#DeleteButton").text(msg.d); } }); }); // Dialog $('#dialog').dialog({ autoOpen: false, width: 400, modal: true, bgiframe: true }); // Dialog Link $('#dialog_link').click(function () { $('#dialog').dialog('open'); return false; }); The dialog itself is just a set of 'div' tags. Ive thought of lots of different ways of doing this (parameter passing, session variable etc...) but cant figure out how to get any of them working. Any ideas are most welcome As always, thanks in advance to those who contribute.

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Ensuring WPF window is on top all the time even when user clicks another maximised application

- by mttumbledown

Hi I am trying to ensure my WPF window stays on top as long as it is open. It is acting as a pop-up set to TopMost=true, and a call to the win32 SetWindowPos to TOPMOST. When first opened it appears on top of another running application on the desktop- maximized or not. If the user activates or uses a window in the application mine loses focus and disappears. I thought of manipulating the other application window, setting it to a lower z index. How do I find the application window? How do I iterate through all windows? (This question still stands, even if it is not the correct approach). I would be using SetWindowPos, GetForegroundWindow, GetForegroundWindow, GetDesktopWindow et cetera. I suspect that as soon as the user clicks in their application that it will still focus it regardless and I am barking up the wrong tree. At the moment, my application is a black box and I can’t handle it the other way, for example, periodically messaging my app to focus. I also thought of having a long running background thread which periodically focuses my WPF popup, but need to watch resources and processor. Kind regards,

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entering datas of php page to database

- by Rahima farzana.S

I have a php form with two text boxes and i want to enter the text box values into the database. I have created the table (with two columns namely webmeasurementsuite id and webmeasurements id) I used the following syntax for creating table: CREATE TABLE `radio` ( `webmeasurementsuite id` INT NOT NULL, `webmeasurements id` INT NOT NULL ); Utilising the tutorial in the following link, I wrote the php coding but unfortunately the datas are not getting entered into the database. I am getting an error in the insert sql syntax. I checked it but i am not able to trace out the error.Can anyone correct me? I got the coding from http://www.webune.com/forums/php-how-to-enter-data-into-database-with-php-scripts.html $sql = "INSERT INTO $db_table(webmeasurementsuite id,webmeasurements id) values ('".mysql_real_escape_string(stripslashes($_REQUEST['webmeasurementsuite id']))."','".mysql_real_escape_string(stripslashes($_REQUEST['webmeasurements id']))."')"; echo$sql; My error is as follows: INSERT INTO radio(webmeasurementsuite id,webmeasurements id) values ('','')ERROR: You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near 'id,webmeasurements id) values ('','')' at line 1

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Interpretation of range(n) and boolean list, one-to-one map, simpler?

- by HH

#!/usr/bin/python # # Description: bitwise factorization and then trying to find # an elegant way to print numbers # Source: http://forums.xkcd.com/viewtopic.php?f=11&t=61300#p2195422 # bug with large numbers such as 99, but main point in simplifying it # def primes(n): # all even numbers greater than 2 are not prime. s = [False]*2 + [True]*2 + [False,True]*((n-4)//2) + [False]*(n%2) i = 3; while i*i < n: # get rid of ** and skip even numbers. s[i*i : n : i*2] = [False]*(1+(n-i*i)//(i*2)) i += 2 # skip non-primes while not s[i]: i += 2 return s # TRIAL: can you find a simpler way to print them? # feeling the overuse of assignments but cannot see a way to get it simpler # p = 49 boolPrimes = primes(p) numbs = range(len(boolPrimes)) mydict = dict(zip(numbs, boolPrimes)) print([numb for numb in numbs if mydict[numb]]) Something I am looking for, can you get TRIAL to be of the extreme simplicity below? Any such method? a=[True, False, True] b=[1,2,3] b_a # any such simple way to get it evaluated to [1,3] # above a crude way to do it in TRIAL

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Vector Usage in MPI(C++)

- by lsk1985

I am new to MPI programming,stiil learning , i was successful till creating the Derived data-types by defining the structures . Now i want to include Vector in my structure and want to send the data across the Process. for ex: struct Structure{ //Constructor Structure(): X(nodes),mass(nodes),ac(nodes) { //code to calculate the mass and accelerations } //Destructor Structure() {} //Variables double radius; double volume; vector<double> mass; vector<double> area; //and some other variables //Methods to calculate some physical properties Now using MPI i want to sent the data in the structure across the processes. Is it possible for me to create the MPI_type_struct vectors included and send the data? I tried reading through forums, but i am not able to get the clear picture from the responses given there. Hope i would be able to get a clear idea or approach to send the data PS: i can send the data individually , but its an overhead of sending the data using may MPI_Send/Recieve if we consider the domain very large(say 10000*10000)

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Management API - The request body XML was invalid or not correctly specified

- by maartenba

Cross posting from http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/windowsazuretroubleshooting/thread/31b6aedc-c069-4e32-8e8f-2ff4b7c30793 I'm getting this error on changing configuration through the service management API: The request body XML was invalid or not correctly specified The request body payload: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <ChangeConfiguration xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/windowsazu re"> <Configuration>PD94bWwgdmVyc2lvbj0iMS4wIj8+CjxTZXJ2aWNlQ29uZmlndX JhdGlvbiB4bWxuczp4c2k9Imh0dHA6Ly93d3cudzMub3JnLzIwMDEvWE1MU2NoZW1hLWluc3RhbmNlIi B4bWxuczp4c2Q9Imh0dHA6Ly93d3cudzMub3JnLzIwMDEvWE1MU2NoZW1hIiB4bWxucz0iaHR0cDovL3 NjaGVtYXMubWljcm9zb2Z0LmNvbS9TZXJ2aWNlSG9zdGluZy8yMDA4LzEwL1NlcnZpY2VDb25maWd1cm F0aW9uIiBzZXJ2aWNlTmFtZT0iIiBvc0ZhbWlseT0iMSIgb3NWZXJzaW9uPSIqIj4KICA8Um9sZSBuYW 1lPSJXZWJSb2xlMSI+CiAgICA8Q29uZmlndXJhdGlvblNldHRpbmdzPgogICAgICA8U2V0dGluZyBuYW 1lPSJNaWNyb3NvZnQuV2luZG93c0F6dXJlLlBsdWdpbnMuRGlhZ25vc3RpY3MuQ29ubmVjdGlvblN0cm luZyIgdmFsdWU9IlVzZURldmVsb3BtZW50U3RvcmFnZT10cnVlIi8+CiAgICA8L0NvbmZpZ3VyYXRpb2 5TZXR0aW5ncz4KICAgIDxJbnN0YW5jZXMgY291bnQ9IjIiLz4KICAgIDxDZXJ0aWZpY2F0ZXMvPgogID wvUm9sZT4KPC9TZXJ2aWNlQ29uZmlndXJhdGlvbj4K</Configuration> </ChangeConfiguration> I'm passing it the following configuration: $configuration = '<?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <ServiceConfiguration xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/ServiceHosting/2008/10/ServiceConfiguration" serviceName="" osFamily="1" osVersion="*"> <Role name="WebRole1"> <ConfigurationSettings> <Setting name="Microsoft.WindowsAzure.Plugins.Diagnostics.ConnectionString" value="UseDevelopmentStorage=true"/> </ConfigurationSettings> <Instances count="2"/> <Certificates/> </Role> </ServiceConfiguration>'; Does anyone know why this error occurs? I suspect it has something to do with encoding but not sure.

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Cannot connect to mysql via servlet

- by JBoy

Hi all I have been since 2 days trying to figure out why my servlet does not connect to the database MySql. I have mysql installed and working properly and eclipse. Whenever i try to etabilish a connection i get the ClassNotFoundException for the com.mysql.jdbc.Driver, which is actually properly imported, the connector i'm using is the mysql-connector-java5.1.14 added properly as external jar so everything seems fine. here's my code protected void doPost(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { String dbUrl="jdbc:mysql://localhost:3306/test"; String username="root"; String password=""; try { Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver").newInstance(); conn=DriverManager.getConnection(dbUrl); System.out.println("Connected!"); } catch (SQLException e) { e.printStackTrace(); System.out.println("not connected"); } catch(ClassNotFoundException x){ x.printStackTrace(); } catch(Exception e){ e.printStackTrace(); } } The stacktrace(part of): java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: com.mysql.jdbc.Driver at org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.loadClass(WebappClassLoader.java:1645) at org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.loadClass(WebappClassLoader.java:1491) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClassInternal(ClassLoader.java:375) at java.lang.Class.forName0(Native Method) at java.lang.Class.forName(Class.java:164) i'm following the connection steps from a published java book and also in forums and tutorials i just see the same code, cannot figure out why that Exception comes. On a normal application which does not run on the server the Exception isn't thrown and the connection (in the exact same way) its successfull. Do you have any advice?

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JQuery event that triggers after CSS is loaded?

- by Dave

(I posted this on the jquery forums but it's still awaiting moderation, so I thought I'd try my luck here since stackoverflow is so awesome. If I get an answer I'll post it here.) Maybe someone can help me with this, I have a couple of links on my page (inside a <div id="theme-selector">) which allow you to change the CSS stylesheets: $('#theme-selector a').click(function(){ var path = $(this).attr('href'); $('head link').remove(); $('head').append('<link type="text/css" href="'+path+'" rel="stylesheet" />'); return false; }); Now, after I've changed the style on the page, I want to get the new background color, using the following code (which I put after the $('head').append call): var bgcolor = $('body').css('background-color'); alert(bgcolor); The problem is, I think, that it takes some time for the browser to download the new stylesheet and I sometimes get the old background color in my alert message. Is there some event I can bind that will only alert me after all the stylesheets are loaded on the page? At the moment, all I can think of is using a setTimeout(function(){}, 5000); which isn't great, because what if it takes longer/shorter to load all the CSS on the page. Let me know if I need to clarify anything and I can provide more code. Thanks in advance.

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