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  • Actionscript project that loads a Flex SWF, "Could not find resource bundle" Error when using Layout

    - by Leeron
    Hi guys. I'm using an actionsciprt only project (under FlashDevelop) to load an .swf flex file built by another department of the company I work for. Using the follwing code: var mLoader:Loader = new Loader(); var mRequest:URLRequest = new URLRequest('flexSWF.swf'); mLoader.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, onCompleteHandler); mLoader.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(ProgressEvent.PROGRESS, onProgressHandler); mLoader.load(mRequest); That worked fine until I wanted to use Flex's mx.managers.LayoutManager. I've added the this line to my class: import mx.managers.ILayoutManagerClient; import mx.managers.LayoutManager; . . . private var _layoutManager:LayoutManager; And I get this run time error: Error: Could not find resource bundle messaging at mx.resources::ResourceBundle$/getResourceBundle()[C:\autobuild\3.5.0\frameworks\projects\framework\src\mx\resources\ResourceBundle.as:143] at mx.utils::Translator$cinit() at global$init() at mx.messaging.config::ServerConfig$cinit() at global$init() at _app_FlexInit$/init() at mx.managers::SystemManager/http://www.adobe.com/2006/flex/mx/internal::docFrameHandler()[C:\autobuild\3.5.0\frameworks\projects\framework\src\mx\managers\SystemManager.as:3217] at mx.managers::SystemManager/docFrameListener()[C:\autobuild\3.5.0\frameworks\projects\framework\src\mx\managers\SystemManager.as:3069] commenting the LayoutManager line, the swf works fine. But I do want to use LayoutManager. Any hints?

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  • Does DefaultAppPool run with special elevated privilegs on IIS?

    - by Leeks and Leaks
    I'm running a piece of code within a web page that queries the IIS metabase using ADSI. The code is as simple as this: DirectoryEntry iisNode = new DirectoryEntry("/LM/W3SVC/1/ROOT/MyAspWebsite-1-128886021498831845"); foreach (DirectoryEntry de in iisNode.Parent.Children) { System.Console.WriteLine(de.Name); } This works fine when I run the page/site under the DefaultAppPool on IIS7/W2K8. However when I create my own app pool and leave the properties the same as the default app pool, this code fails with the following error: Caught: System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException Failed to parse virtual directory: /LM/W3SVC/1/ROOT/MyAspWebsite-1-128889542757187500 System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException (0x80070005): Access is denied. What special privileges does the DefaultAppPool have? I don't see any documented. I need this to work in non default app pools, but without giving the entire worker process elevated privileges. I've also tried using the username and password parameters of the DirectoryEntry constructor, by using the Admin on the machine that IIS7 is running on, but that didn't change anything. I'll also note that this works fine on IIS6 and W2K3. Any help is appreciated.

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  • jeditable not updating browser display - leaves "click to edit..." after succesful edit

    - by Enoch
    I am using jeditable fairly simply and it all works fine, updates the database, etc. The only problem I have is after the user types the new value data and hits enter it doesn't update the field in the browser to show the new value - instead it puts "Click to edit..." in place of it. Am I missing something like a return value from my php file? the php fucntion just takes the args and updates the database - and it works fine. Enoch the jquery\jeditable code $('.edit').editable('update.php',{ id: 'field', name: 'val', indicator: 'Saving...', tooltip: 'Click to edit...', select : true, submitdata : { db : "pers", kn : "key", rec : "?php echo $rec; ?" } }); the div <div class="edit" id="svc_ad1"><?php echo $row-svc_ad1; ?>< /div> i also have a css class for pEdit edit{ float:left; width:200px; height:15px; margin-bottom:5px; border-bottom:1px solid #aaaaaa; }

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  • Delphi - Populate an imagelist with icons at runtime 'destroys' transparency

    - by ben
    Hi again, I've spended hours for this (simple) one and don't find a solution :/ I'm using D7 and the TImageList. The ImageList is assigned to a toolbar. When I populate the ImageList at designtime, the icons (with partial transparency) are looking fine. But I need to populate it at runtime, and when I do this the icons are looking pretty shitty - complete loose of the partial transparency. I just tried to load the icons from a .res file - with the same result. I've tried third party image lists also without success. I have no clue what I could do :/ Thanks 2 all ;) edit: To be honest I dont know exactly whats going on. Alpha blending is the correkt term... Here are 2 screenies: Icon added at designtime: Icon added at runtime: Your comment that alpha blending is not supported just brought the solution: I've edited the image in an editor and removed the "alpha blended" pixels - and now it looks fine. But its still strange that the icons look other when added at runtime instead of designtime. If you (or somebody else ;) can explain it, I would be happy ;) thanks for you support!

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  • shared memory STL maps

    - by user306963
    Hello, I am writing an Apache module in C++. I need to store the common data that all childs need to read as a portion of shared memory. Structure is kind of map of vectors, so I want to use STL map and vectors for it. I have written a shared allocator and a shared manager for the purpose, they work fine for vectors but not for maps, below is the example: typedef vector<CustomersData, SharedAllocator<CustomersData> > CustomerVector; CustomerVector spData; //this one works fine typedef SharedAllocator< pair< const int, CustomerVector > > PairAllocator; typedef map< int, CustomerVector, less<int>, PairAllocator > SharedMap; SharedMap spIndex; //this one doesn't work I get compile time errors when I try to use the second object (spIndex), which are someting like: ../SpatialIndex.h:97: error: '((SpatialIndex*)this)-SpatialIndex::spIndex' does not have class type It looks like the compiler cannot determine a type for SharedMap template type, which is strange in my opinion, it seems to me that all the template parameters have been specified. Can you help? Thanks Benvenuto

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  • Passing data to a non-static listBox, by calling function from another class

    - by Andrew A
    I have a simple forms program that I have been fighting with for a while now. I simply want to be able to call a method from a different class file (when a certain step is triggered in the code in that class file) in order to insert a string in the listBox. Here is my main method, pretty standard: class Program { [STAThread] static void Main(string[] args) { Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); Application.Run(new MainForm()); } } Here is the function which resides in my MainForm.cs file, which I can call just fine from that class file (via 'TextToBox(myString);'): public partial class MainForm : Form { ... // Function to output results to main Listbox window public void TextToBox(string aString) { // Place messages in Main Display list box window this.listBox1.Items.Insert(0, aString); } ... } But my problem is when I am in another class and I want to call 'TextToBox(myString);'. If I create another object reference of the MainForm, the code compiles fine but nothing will show up in the listBox. How do I do this? I cannot simply make TextToBox() static. I know I must create the object reference but I can't figure out how to reference the ORIGINAL MainForm, the one that was created in the Main method. Thanks in advance...

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  • Clarification needed: How does .NET runtime resolve assembly references from parent folder?

    - by aoven
    I have the following output structure of executables in my solution: %ProgramFiles% | +-[MyAppName] | +-[Client] | | | +-(EXE & several DLL assemblies) | +-[Common] | | | +-[Schema Assemblies] | | | | | +-(several DLL assemblies) | | | +-(several DLL assemblies) | +-[Server] | +-(EXE & several DLL assemblies) Each project in solution references different DLL assemblies, some of which are outputs from other projects in solution, and others are plain 3rd-party assemblies. For example, [Client] EXE might reference an assembly in [Common], which is in a different directory branch. All references have "Copy Local" set to false, to mirror the layout of the files in the final installed application. Now, if I take a look at reference properties in the Visual Studio IDE, I see that "Path" of every reference is absolute and that it corresponds to the actual output location of the assembly. That's understandable and correct. As expected, solution compiles and runs just fine. What I don't understand is, why everything seems to work even when I close the IDE, rename the [MyAppName] directory and run the [Client] EXE manually? How does the runtime find the assemblies if the reference paths aren't the same as they were at the time of linking? To be clear - this is actually exactly what I'm after: a semi-dispersed set of application files that run fine regardless of where the [MyAppName] directory is located or even what it's named. I'd just like to know, how and why this works without any specific path resolution on my part. I've read the answers to this similar question, but I still don't get it. Help much appreciated!

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  • 32 bit dllimport generating incorrect format error (0x8007000b) on win7 x64 platform

    - by DFP
    Hello, I'm trying to install and run a 32 bit application on a Win7 x64 machine. The application is built as a Win32 app. It runs fine on 32 bit platforms. On the x64 machine it installs correctly in the Programs(x86) directory and runs fine until I make a call into a 32 bit dll. At that time I get the incorrect format error (0x8007000b) indicating it is trying to load the dll of the wrong bitness. Indeed it is trying to load the 64 bit dll from the System32 directory rather than the 32 bit version in the SystemWOW64 directory. Another 32 bit application provided by the dll vendor runs correctly and it does load the 32 bit dll from the SystemWOW64 directory. I do not have source to their application to see how they are accessing the DLL. I'm using the DllImport function as shown below to access the dll. Is there a way to decorate the DllImport calls to force it to load the 32 bit version? Any thoughts appreciated. Thanks, DP public static class Micronas { [DllImport(@"UAC2.DLL")] public static extern short UacBuildDeviceList(uint uFlags); [DllImport(@"UAC2.DLL")] public static extern short UacGetNumberOfDevices(); [DllImport(@"UAC2.DLL")] public static extern uint UacGetFirstDevice(); [DllImport(@"UAC2.DLL")] public static extern uint UacGetNextDevice(uint handle); [DllImport(@"UAC2.DLL")] public static extern uint UacSetXDFP(uint handle, short adr, uint data); [DllImport(@"UAC2.DLL")] public unsafe static extern uint UacGetXDFP(uint handle, short adr, IntPtr data); }

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  • WPF, C# - Making Intellisense/Autocomplete list, fastest way to filter list of strings

    - by user559548
    Hello everyone, I'm writing an Intellisense/Autocomplete like the one you find in Visual Studio. It's all fine up until when the list contains probably 2000+ items. I'm using a simple LINQ statement for doing the filtering: var filterCollection = from s in listCollection where s.FilterValue.IndexOf(currentWord, StringComparison.OrdinalIgnoreCase) >= 0 orderby s.FilterValue select s; I then assign this collection to a WPF Listbox's ItemSource, and that's the end of it, works fine. Noting that, the Listbox is also virtualised as well, so there will only be at most 7-8 visual elements in memory and in the visual tree. However the caveat right now is that, when the user types extremely fast in the richtextbox, and on every key up I execute the filtering + binding, there's this semi-race condition, or out of sync filtering, like the first key stroke's filtering could still be doing it's filtering or binding work, while the fourth key stroke is also doing the same. I know I could put in a delay before applying the filter, but I'm trying to achieve a seamless filtering much like the one in Visual Studio. I'm not sure where my problem exactly lies, so I'm also attributing it to IndexOf's string operation, or perhaps my list of string's could be optimised in some kind of index, that could speed up searching. Any suggestions of code samples are much welcomed. Thanks.

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  • F#, Linux and makefiles

    - by rwallace
    I intend to distribute an F# program as both binary and source so the user has the option of recompiling it if desired. On Windows, I understand how to do this: provide .fsproj and .sln files, which both Visual Studio and MSBuild can understand. On Linux, the traditional solution for C programs is a makefile. This depends on gcc being directly available, which it always is. The F# compiler can be installed on Linux and works under Mono, so that's fine so far. However, as far as I can tell, it doesn't create a scenario where fsc runs the compiler, instead the command is mono ...path.../fsc.exe. This is also fine, except I don't know what the path is going to be. So the full command to run the compiler in my case could be mono ~/FSharp-2.0.0.0/bin/fsc.exe types.fs tptp.fs main.fs -r FSharp.PowerPack.dll except that I'm not sure where fsc.exe will actually be located on the user's machine. Is there a way to find that out within a makefile, or would it be better to fall back on just explaining the above in the documentation and relying on the user to modify the command according to his setup?

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  • asp.net doesn't render Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager._initialize code

    - by ajitatif
    i'm using the ASP.NET 2.0 Ajax Extensions on a web site. as always, everything is fine on local but the remote web site does not use ajax calls. my local server has the ASP.NET Ajax extensions installed but the remote one doesn't. i know that i should be able to use the Ajax extensions without installing them. so in turn, i added the extensions' .dll among the web site's references but still no luck. after my further investigation, i found out that local and remote pages have exactly the same HTML code rendered, except that the local (working) one has these lines //<![CDATA[ Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager._initialize('ctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$ScriptManager1', document.getElementById('aspnetForm')); Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager.getInstance()._updateControls(['tctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$updReportArgs','tctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$updReport'], ['ctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$chkTumu','ctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$btnGetir'], [], 90); //]]> obviously, these are the lines of code that make callbacks possible. the question is why doesn't asp.net render these lines? what could be missing? by the way, the ScriptResource.axd and WebResource.axd doesn't give a 404 or anything, i can see through their js codes via Firebug. and one more thing: i'm unsure if it is related or not, but there are client-side asp.net validators on the page whose js code are not rendered either. again, those work fine locally. for further investigation you can see the remote site here : http://www.ajitatif.com/subdomains/nazer/Raporlar/danismanbasarim.aspx

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  • unable to place breakpoints in eclipse

    - by anjanb
    I am using eclipse europa (3.5) on windows vista home premium 64-bit using JDK 1.6.0_18 (32 BIT). Normally, I am able to put breakpoints just fine; However, for a particular class which is NOT part of the project (this class is inside a .JAR file (.JAR file is part of the project) ), although I have attached a source directory to this .JAR file, I am unable to place a breakpoint in this class. If I double-click on the breakpoint pane(left border), I notice that a class breakpoint is placed. I was wondering if there was NO debug info; However, found that this particular class was compiled using ant/javac task using debug="true" and debuglevel="lines,vars,source". I even ran jad on this class to confirm that it indeed contained the debug info. So, why is eclipse preventing me from placing a breakpoint ? EDIT : Just so everyone understands the context, this is a webapp running under tomcat 6.0. I am remote debugging the application from eclipse after having started tomcat outside. The application is working just fine. I am trying to understand the behavior of the above class which I'm unable to do since eclipse is not letting me set a BP. P.S : I saw a few threads here talking about BPs not being hit but in my case, I am unable to place the BP! P.P.S : I tried JDK 1.6.0_16 before trying out 1.6.0_18. Thanks for any pointers.

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  • What is default javac source mode (assert as identifier compilation)?

    - by waste
    According to Orcale's Java7 assert guide: source mode 1.3 (default) — the compiler accepts programs that use assert as an identifier, but issues warnings. In this mode, programs are not permitted to use the assert statement. source mode 1.4 — the compiler generates an error message if the program uses assert as an identifier. In this mode, programs are permitted to use the assert statement. I wrote such class: package mm; public class ClassTest { public static void main(String[] arg) { int assert = 1; System.out.println(assert); } } It should compile fine if Oracle's info right (1.3 is default source mode). But I got errors like this: $ javac -version javac 1.7.0_04 $ javac -d bin src/mm/* src\mm\ClassTest.java:5: error: as of release 1.4, 'assert' is a keyword, and may not be used as an identifier int assert = 1; ^ (use -source 1.3 or lower to use 'assert' as an identifier) src\mm\ClassTest.java:6: error: as of release 1.4, 'assert' is a keyword, and may not be used as an identifier System.out.println(assert); ^ (use -source 1.3 or lower to use 'assert' as an identifier) 2 errors I added manually -source 1.3 and it issued warnings but compiled fine. It seems that Oracle's information is wrong and 1.3 is not default source mode. Which one is it then?

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  • Emulate domready event with a custom event (mootools)

    - by Rob
    I need to fire a one time only custom event that functions like the domready event, in that if new events are added after the event has occurred they are fired immediately. This is for some code that cannot execute until certain data and resources are initialized, so I want to do something like this: // I am including a script (loadResources.js) to load data and other resources, // when loadResources.js is done doing it's thing it will fire resourcesAreLoaded with: window.fireEvent('resourcesAreLoaded'); window.addEvent('resourcesAreLoaded', function() { // this is fine }); $('mybutton').addEvent('click', function() { window.addEvent('resourcesAreLoaded', function() { // this is not fine, because resourcesAreLoaded has already fired // by the time the button is clicked }); }); If possible I would like resourcesAreLoaded to function like domready, and execute the code immediately if the event has already fired: window.addEvent('testIsReady', function() { alert('firing test'); }); window.fireEvent('testIsReady'); window.addEvent('test', function() { // this will never execute unless I call fireEvent('testIsReady') again alert('test 2'); }); window.addEvent('domready', function() { alert('domready is firing'); }); window.addEvent('domready', function() { setTimeout(function() { alert('domready has already fired, so this is executed immediately'); }, 500); });

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  • C# Multi CheckboxList update inserts checked records but doesn't delete unchecked records

    - by DLL
    I have a multi checkboxlist on a formview. Both use queries in a tableadapter. I'm using VS 2012. When the user updates the form, I use the following code to update the checkbox data. If a user checks a new box, a new record is inserted correctly, however if the user unchecks a box the existing record is not deleted. The delete query works fine if I run it from the query builder in the table adapter, it's reaching the expected line in the code correctly, all values are correct and I receive no errors. I use a similar query to delete records when the form level data is deleted which works fine. The very last line is the one that doesn't work. Query: DELETE FROM [SLA_Categories] WHERE (([SLA_ID] = @SLA_ID) AND ([Choice_ID] = @Choice_ID)) protected void FormView1_ItemUpdating(object sender, FormViewUpdateEventArgs e) { if (FormView1.DataKey.Value != null) { Categs = (CheckBoxList)FormView1.FindControl("CheckBoxList1"); CurrentSLA_ID = (int)FormView1.DataKey.Value; } if (CurrentSLA_ID > 0) { foreach (ListItem li in Categs.Items) { // See if there's a record for the current sla in this category int CurrentChoice_ID = Convert.ToInt32(li.Value); SLADataSetTableAdapters.SLA_CategoriesTableAdapter myAdapter; myAdapter = new SLADataSetTableAdapters.SLA_CategoriesTableAdapter(); int myCount = (int)myAdapter.FindCategoryBySLA_IDAndChoice_ID(CurrentSLA_ID, CurrentChoice_ID); // If this category is checked and there is not an existing rec, insert one if (li.Selected == true && myCount < 1) { // Insert a rec for this sla myAdapter.InsertCategory(CurrentChoice_ID, CurrentSLA_ID); } // If this category is unchecked and there is and existing rec, delete it if (li.Selected == false && myCount > 0) { // Delete this rec myAdapter.DeleteCategoryBySLA_IDAndChoice_ID(CurrentChoice_ID, CurrentSLA_ID); } } } }

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  • csc.exe not found error

    - by pokrate
    I have installed a fresh copy of windows xp 2002 with SP2, and then VS.net 2008 enterprise edition. I am trying to build a simplest possible web application, and its not compiling giving error csc.exe not found. I googled a lot, and spot the problem in the following section in web.config : <system.codedom> <compilers> <compiler language="c#;cs;csharp" extension=".cs" warningLevel="4" type="Microsoft.CSharp.CSharpCodeProvider, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089"> <providerOption name="CompilerVersion" value="v3.5"/> <providerOption name="WarnAsError" value="false"/> </compiler> <compiler language="vb;vbs;visualbasic;vbscript" extension=".vb" warningLevel="4" type="Microsoft.VisualBasic.VBCodeProvider, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089"> <providerOption name="CompilerVersion" value="v3.5"/> <providerOption name="OptionInfer" value="true"/> <providerOption name="WarnAsError" value="false"/> </compiler> </compilers> </system.codedom> But if i remove the csharp compiler section , and then compile, it compiles fine with vb compiler section. And if I change the value from v3.5 to v2.0 in the of csharp section, then also it compiles fine. But then all my Linq Queries are not recognized by the compiler. But System.Linq and all classes present in it are accessible in the code. Please help in this weird behavior.

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  • Import-Pssession is not importing cmdlets when used in a custom module

    - by Douglas Plumley
    I have a PowerShell script/function that works great when I use it in my PowerShell profile or manually copy/paste the function in the PowerShell window. I'm trying to make the function accessible to other members of my team as a module. I want to have the module stored in a central place so we can all add it to our PSModulePath. Here is a copy of the basic function: Function Connect-O365{ $o365cred = Get-Credential [email protected] $session365 = New-PSSession -ConfigurationName Microsoft.Exchange -ConnectionUri https://ps.outlook.com/powershell/ -Credential $o365cred -Authentication Basic -AllowRedirection Import-PSSession $session365 -AllowClobber } If I save this function in my PowerShell profile it works fine. I can dot source a *.ps1 script with this function in it and it works as well. The issue is when I save the function as a *.psm1 PowerShell script module. The function runs fine but none of the exported commands from the Import-PSSession are available. I think this may have something to do with the module scope. I'm looking for suggestions on how to get around this. EDIT When I create the following module and run Connect-O365 the imported cmdlets will not be available. $scriptblock = { Function Connect-O365{ $o365cred = Get-Credential [email protected] $session365 = New-PSSession -ConfigurationName Microsoft.Exchange -ConnectionUri "https://ps.outlook.com/powershell/" -Credential $o365cred -Authentication Basic -AllowRedirection Import-PSSession $session365 -AllowClobber } } New-Module -Name "Office 365" -ScriptBlock $scriptblock When I import the next module without the Connect-O365 function the imported cmdlets are available. $scriptblock = { $o365cred = Get-Credential [email protected] $session365 = New-PSSession -ConfigurationName Microsoft.Exchange -ConnectionUri "https://ps.outlook.com/powershell/" -Credential $o365cred -Authentication Basic -AllowRedirection Import-PSSession $session365 -AllowClobber } New-Module -Name "Office 365" -ScriptBlock $scriptblock This appears to be a scope issue of some sort, just not sure how to get around it.

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  • Timer a usage in msp430 in high compiler optimization mode

    - by Vishal
    Hi, I have used timer A in MSP430 with high compiler optimization, but found that my timer code is failing when high compiler optimization used. When none optimization is used code works fine. This code is used to achieve 1 ms timer tick. timeOutCNT is increamented in interrupt. Following is the code, //Disable interrupt and clear CCR0 TIMER_A_TACTL = TIMER_A_TASSEL | // set the clock source as SMCLK TIMER_A_ID | // set the divider to 8 TACLR | // clear the timer MC_1; // continuous mode TIMER_A_TACTL &= ~TIMER_A_TAIE; // timer interrupt disabled TIMER_A_TACTL &= 0; // timer interrupt flag disabled CCTL0 = CCIE; // CCR0 interrupt enabled CCR0 = 500; TIMER_A_TACTL &= TIMER_A_TAIE; //enable timer interrupt TIMER_A_TACTL &= TIMER_A_TAIFG; //enable timer interrupt TACTL = TIMER_A_TASSEL + MC_1 + ID_3; // SMCLK, upmode timeOutCNT = 0; //timeOutCNT is increased in timer interrupt while(timeOutCNT <= 1); //delay of 1 milisecond TIMER_A_TACTL = TIMER_A_TASSEL | // set the clock source as SMCLK TIMER_A_ID | // set the divider to 8 TACLR | // clear the timer MC_1; // continuous mode TIMER_A_TACTL &= ~TIMER_A_TAIE; // timer interrupt disabled TIMER_A_TACTL &= 0x00; // timer interrupt flag disabled Can anybody help me here to resolve this issue? Is there any other way we can use timer A so it works fine in optimization modes? Or do I have used is wrongly to achieve 1 ms interrupt? Thanks in advanced. Vishal N

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  • Forwarding first responder to UIScrollView unsuccessful

    - by Winston
    Hello, I am trying to create an image cropping bpx whereby the underlying image can be zoomed an scrolled while the cropping "maskview" layer stays the same and the corners can be dragged in any direction. To achieve this, the ImageView is added to a UIScrollView, and this is added to the SelectionViewController.view . I then add the cropping "maskview" layer to the SelectionViewController.view. I did this instead of adding to the scrollview so that the cropping maskview won't be expanded when the underlying image expands. @interface SelectionViewController : UIViewController <UIScrollViewDelegate> { UIImageView *photoview; // Added to self.scrollview MaskedView *maskedview; // Added to self.view UIScrollView *scrollview; // Added to self.view } The maskview has first responder status and responds accordingly. However, the only event I am interested in the maskview is if any of the corners are dragged (this works fine). The problem I want to try to solve is two-fold: If it is a pinch or zoom gesture, I am trying to forward the responder to the UIScrollview using: [self.nextResponder touchesMoved:touches withEvent:event]; The scrollview does not seem to respond. I have confirmed that the self.nextResponder after the maskedview is the SelectionViewController's view itself. From there, it doesn't seem like the UIScrollview responds. It does respond fine if I remove the cropping maskedview. If I zoom in on the underlying image and the cropping maskview rectangle is still the same, I want to now crop the actual zoomed image. Let's say for the upper left hand corner of the crop box, how can I find what the coordinates translates to in the underlying UIImageView now that the image has been zoomed? Any insight into either of these questions would be appreciated. Thank you, Winston

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  • Is 1/0 a legal Java expression?

    - by polygenelubricants
    The following compiles fine in my Eclipse: final int j = 1/0; // compiles fine!!! // throws ArithmeticException: / by zero at run-time Java prevents many "dumb code" from even compiling in the first place (e.g. "Five" instanceof Number doesn't compile!), so the fact this didn't even generate as much as a warning was very surprising to me. The intrigue deepens when you consider the fact that constant expressions are allowed to be optimized at compile time: public class Div0 { public static void main(String[] args) { final int i = 2+3; final int j = 1/0; final int k = 9/2; } } Compiled in Eclipse, the above snippet generates the following bytecode (javap -c Div0) Compiled from "Div0.java" public class Div0 extends java.lang.Object{ public Div0(); Code: 0: aload_0 1: invokespecial #8; //Method java/lang/Object."<init>":()V 4: return public static void main(java.lang.String[]); Code: 0: iconst_5 1: istore_1 // "i = 5;" 2: iconst_1 3: iconst_0 4: idiv 5: istore_2 // "j = 1/0;" 6: iconst_4 7: istore_3 // "k = 4;" 8: return } As you can see, the i and k assignments are optimized as compile-time constants, but the division by 0 (which must've been detectable at compile-time) is simply compiled as is. javac 1.6.0_17 behaves even more strangely, compiling silently but excising the assignments to i and k completely out of the bytecode (probably because it determined that they're not used anywhere) but leaving the 1/0 intact (since removing it would cause an entirely different program semantics). So the questions are: Is 1/0 actually a legal Java expression that should compile anytime anywhere? What does JLS say about it? If this is legal, is there a good reason for it? What good could this possibly serve?

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  • Why can't I Bind a viewmodel property to a dependency property of a custom control

    - by Robert
    I want to use a color picker in my wpf application and I saw a nice looking one on this codeproject page. The control works fine until I want to connect the control to a viewmodel. I created a small test program with this viewmodel: public class ColorViewModel : ViewModelBase { public ColorViewModel() { LineColor = Brushes.Yellow; } SolidColorBrush _brushColor; public SolidColorBrush LineColor { get { return _brushColor; } set { _brushColor = value; RaisePropertyChanged(() => LineColor); } } } The test program has a textbox and the colorpicker controls: <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <TextBlock Text="Please Select a Color" FontWeight="Bold" Margin="10" Foreground="{Binding Path=LineColor, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged}"/> <vw:ColorPickerControlView x:Name="ForeColorPicker" Margin="10" CurrentColor="{Binding Path=LineColor, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged }"/> </StackPanel> In the loaded event of the window I set the viewmodel to the datacontext like this: DataContext = new ColorViewModel(); The problem is that I can't seem to bind the LineColor property of the viewmodel to the CurrentColor property of the ColorPickerControlView. The CurrentControl property of the ColorPickerControlView seems to be fine. The constructor looks like this: public ColorPickerControlView() { this.DataContext = this; InitializeComponent(); CommandBindings.Add(new CommandBinding(SelectColorCommand, SelectColorCommandExecute)); } In the constructor of the UserControl there is the line this.DataContext = this; I read that is is necessary to bind the dependency properties. Do I override this line when I set my viewmodel to the datacontext and is that why I can't bind to the CurrentColor property? Is there any workaround? Or did I make another mistake?

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  • Just messed up a server misusing chown, how to execute it correctly?

    - by Jack Webb-Heller
    Hi! I'm moving from an old shared host to a dedicated server at MediaTemple. The server is running Plesk CP, but, as far as I can tell, there's no way via the Interface to do what I want to do. On the old shared host, running cPanel, I creative a .zip archive of all the website's files. I downloaded this to my computer, then uploaded it with FTP to the new host account I'd set up. Finally, I logged in via SSH, navigated to the directory the zip was stored in (something like var/www/vhosts/mysite.com/httpdocs/ and ran the unzip command on the file sitearchive.zip. This extracted everything just the fine. The site appeared to work just fine. The problem: When I tried to edit a file through FTP, I got Error - 160: Permission Denied. When I Get Info for the file I'm trying to edit, it says the owner and group is swimwir1. I attemped to use chown at this point to change owner - and yes, as you may be able to tell, I'm a little inexperienced in SSH ;) luckily the server was new, since the command I ran - chown -R newuser / appeared to mess a load of stuff up. The reason I used / on the end rather than /var/www/vhosts/mysite.com/httpdocs/ was because I'd already cded into their, so I presumed the / was relative to where I was working. This may be the case, I have no idea, either way - Plesk was no longer accessible, although Apache and things continued to work. I realised my mistake, and deciding it wasn't worth the hassle of 1) being an amateur and 2) trying to fix it, I just reprovisioned the server to start afresh. So - what do I do to change the owner of these files correctly? Thanks for helping out a confused beginner! Jack

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  • Authenticated user cannot log in, "The user does not exist or is not unique."

    - by Aquinas
    This is a weird one. I have a WSS3 site, no MOSS, with a custom membership and role provider that authenticates against CRM. All the users have also been added to the site user list so once logged in they have correct display names. On dev and stage everything works fine, but on UAT the users can't get past the login screen. The login screen is working, in that if you type an incorrect password for a user it comes back with the right message, meaning the custom provider is working fine. If you fill the login form in correctly you are immediately redirected straight back to the login screen, with the IIS logs showing that the login screen sent the authenticated user to the site and then was sent back. Setting the site to allow anonymous access shows that the user is not logged in on the site side after authenticating correctly. The ULS logs show: The user does not exist or is not unique. Found 1 trusted forests nzct.local. Found 0 trusted domains Adding logging code to the site I have verified that the membership provider is correctly set, and can find the user when asked. Also, when accessing the site user list, I can find the SP user with the right name. It just refuses to set the current user to be the authenticated user. Weird.

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  • Positioning problem in VIsta when Aero Theme is enabled

    - by Adeel Rehman
    Hi, I have a Windows form which has tab pages. On a Tab Page, I have a Combo Box. When I click the combobox a drop down opens up just below the combo box to give the impression of a drop down. The drop down is a windows form and this is how I set its position Popup.Location = control.PointToScreen(parentcontrol.PointToClient(new System.Drawing.Point(0, control.Height))); Popup = drop down that opens below the combo box (Windows Form) control = my combo box (Combo Box) parentcontrol = the windows form on which the control is present (Parent Form) Problem:- The X coordinate is not plotted correctly on the screen with Aero theme enabled. This works perfectly fine on XP (with some variance in y due to tablelayout panel i assume). But when i use the same code on Vista with Aero theme enabled the x-cordinate wanders away about 20-30 pixels. If I Turn Aero theme off on Vista, it works fine. I have found the X and Y coordiantes calculated in both cases are the same. But the way Vista draws these coordinates on the screen (when aero theme is enabled) is different. Is there any solution to this problem? Thanks, Adeel Rehman.

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  • How to do a javascript redirection to a ClickOnce deployment URL?

    - by jerem
    I have a ClickOnce application used to view some documents on a website. When connected, the user sees a list of documents as links to http://server/myapp.application?document=docname. It worked fine until I had to integrate the website authentication/security system into my application. The website uses a ticketing system to grant access to its users. A ticket is generated by a web application and needs to be added to the deployment URL querystring, then I have to check at application startup that the ticket given in querystring was right by making another request to the web application. So the deployment URL becomes something like: h ttp://server/myapp.application?document=docname&ticket=ticketnumber. The problem is the ticket is valid only 10 seconds, so I have to get it only after the user has clicked a link. My first try was to have some javascript do the request to get the ticket, generate the proper deployment URL and then redirect the user to this URL with "window.location = deploymentUrl;". It works fine in Firefox, but IE does not prompt the user for installation. I guess it is a ClickOnce security constraints, but I am able to do the redirection when doing it on localhost, so I hope there is a workaround. I have also added the server on the "trusted sites" list in IE options. Is it possible to have that working in IE? What are my other options to do that?

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