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  • Entity Framework - Condition on one to many join (Lambda)

    - by nirpi
    Hi, I have 2 entities: Customer & Account, where a customer can have multiple accounts. On the account, I have a "PlatformTypeId" field, which I need to condition on (multiple values), among other criterions. I'm using Lambda expressions, to build the query. Here's a snippet: var customerQuery = (from c in context.CustomerSet.Include("Accounts") select c); if (criterions.UserTypes != null && criterions.UserTypes.Count() > 0) { List<short> searchCriterionsUserTypes = criterions.UserTypes.Select(i => (short)i).ToList(); customerQuery = customerQuery.Where(CommonDataObjects.LinqTools.BuildContainsExpression<Customer, short>(c => c.UserTypeId, searchCriterionsUserTypes)); } // Other criterions, including the problematic platforms condition (below) var customers = customerQuery.ToList(); I can't figure out how to build the accounts' platforms condition: if (criterions.Platforms != null && criterions.Platforms.Count() > 0) { List<short> searchCriterionsPlatforms = criterions.Platforms.Select(i => (short)i).ToList(); customerQuery = customerQuery.Where(c => c.Accounts.Where(LinqTools.BuildContainsExpression<Account, short>(a => a.PlatformTypeId, searchCriterionsPlatforms))); } (The BuildContainsExpression is a method we use to build the expression for the multi-select) I'm getting a compilation error: The type arguments for method 'System.Linq.Enumerable.Where(System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable, System.Func)' cannot be inferred from the usage. Try specifying the type arguments explicitly. Any idea how to fix this? Thanks, Nir.

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  • Powershell Transcript is empty when running script from SQL Agent Job in 2005 SQL Server

    - by Greg Bray
    I have a complex Powershell script that gets run as part of a SQL 2005 Server Agent Job. The script works fine, but it uses the "Start-Transcript $strLogfile -Append" command to log all of it's actions to a transcript file. The problem is that the transcript is always empty. It adds the header and footer to indicate that the transcript is starting and stopping, but it doesn't actually log anything. Example: ********************** Windows PowerShell Transcript Start Start time: 20100304173001 Username : xxxxxxxxxxxx\SYSTEM Machine : xxxxx-xxx (Microsoft Windows NT 5.2.3790 Service Pack 2) ********************** ********************** Windows PowerShell Transcript End End time: 20100304173118 ********************** When I execute the script from a command prompt or start - run everything works just fine. Here is the command used to run the script (same command used in the Operating system CmdExec step of the SQL Agent Job) powershell.exe -File "c:\temp\Backup\backup script.ps1" I first thought it must have something to do with the script running under the System account (default SQL Agent account), but even when I tried changing the SQL Agent to run under my own personal account it still created a blank transcript. Is there any way to get PowerShell Transcripts to work when executing them as part of a 2005 SQL Server Agent Job?

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  • Combobox with collection view itemssource does not update selection box item on changes to the Model

    - by Vinit Sankhe
    Hello, Sorry for the earlier lengthy post. Here is my concise (!) description. I bind a collection view to a combobox as a itemsSource and also bind its selectedvalue with a property from my view model. I must keep IsSynchronizedWithCurrentItem="False". I change the source list ofr the view and then refresh the view. The changed (added, removed, edited) items appear correctly in the item list of the combo. But problem is with the selected item. When I change its property which is also the displaymember path of the combo, the changed property value does not reflect back on the selecton box of the combo. If you open the combo dropdown it appears correctly on the item list but not on the selection box. Now if I change the combobox tag to Listbox in my XAML (keeping all attributes as it is) then when selected item's displaymember property value is updated, the changes reflect back on the selected item of the list box . Why this issue? Just FYI: My View Model has properties EmployeeCollectionView and SelectedEmployeeId which are bound to combo as ItemsSource and SelectedValue resp. This VM implements the INotifyPropertyChanged interface. My core employee class (list of which is the source for the EmployeeCollectionView) is simply a Model class without INotifyPropertyChanged. DisplayMemberPath is "Name" property of employee Model class. I change this by some means and expect the combo selection box to update the value. I tried refreshing ther SelectedEmployeeId by setting it 0 (where it correctly selects the dummy "-- Select All --" employee entry from itemsSource) and old selected value back. But no use. The old value takes me back to the old label. Items collection has latest entry though. When I make combobox's IsEditable=True before the view's refresh and after refresh I make IsEditable=False then the things work out correctly! But this is a patch and is unnecessary. Thx Vinit Sankhe

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  • NSPredicates, scopes and SearchDisplayController

    - by Bryan Veloso
    Building a search with some custom objects and three scopes: All, Active, and Former. Got it working with the below code: - (void)filterContentForSearchText:(NSString*)searchText scope:(NSString *)scope { [[self filteredArtists] removeAllObjects]; for (HPArtist *artist in [self artistList]) { if ([scope isEqualToString:@"All"] || [[artist status] isEqualToString:scope]) { NSComparisonResult result = [[artist displayName] compare:searchText options:(NSCaseInsensitiveSearch|NSDiacriticInsensitiveSearch) range:NSMakeRange(0, [searchText length])]; if (result == NSOrderedSame) { [[self filteredArtists] addObject:artist]; } } } } This works fine and takes scope into account. Since I wanted to search four fields at at time, this question helped me come up with the below code: - (void)filterContentForSearchText:(NSString*)searchText scope:(NSString *)scope { [[self filteredArtists] removeAllObjects]; NSPredicate *resultPredicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"familyName CONTAINS[cd] %@ OR familyKanji CONTAINS[cd] %@ OR givenName CONTAINS[cd] %@ OR givenKanji CONTAINS[cd] %@", searchText, searchText, searchText, searchText]; [[self filteredArtists] addObjectsFromArray:[[self artistList] filteredArrayUsingPredicate:resultPredicate]]; } However it no longer takes scope into account. I have been playing around with if statements, adding AND scope == 'Active', etc. to the end of the statement and using NSCompoundPredicates to no avail. Whenever I activate a scope, I'm not getting any matches for it. Just a note that I've seen approaches like this one that take scope into account, however they only search inside one property.

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  • should I use Entity Framework instead of raw ADO.NET

    - by user110182
    I am new to CSLA and Entity Framework. I am creating a new CSLA / Silverlight application that will replace a 12 year old Win32 C++ system. The old system uses a custom DCOM business object library and uses ODBC to get to SQL Server. The new system will not immediately replace the old system -- they must coexist against the same database for years to come. At first I thought EF was the way to go since it is the latest and greatest. After making a small EF model and only 2 CSLA editable root objects (I will eventually have hundreds of objects as my DB has 800+ tables) I am seriously questioning the use of EF. In the current system I have the need many times to do fine detail performance tuning of the queries which I can do because of 100% control of generated SQL. But it seems in EF that so much happens behind the scenes that I lose that control. Article like http://toomanylayers.blogspot.com/2009/01/entity-framework-and-linq-to-sql.html don't help my impression of EF. People seem to like EF because of LINQ to EF but since my criteria is passed between client and server as criteria object it seems like I could build queries just as easily without LINQ. I understand in WCF RIA that there is query projection (or something like that) where I can do client side LINQ which does move to the server before translation into actual SQL so in that case I can see the benefit of EF, but not in CSLA. If I use raw ADO.NET, will I regret my decision 5 years from now? Has anyone else made this choice recently and which way did you go?

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  • should I use Entity Framework instead of raw ADO.NET

    - by user110182
    I am new to CSLA and Entity Framework. I am creating a new CSLA / Silverlight application that will replace a 12 year old Win32 C++ system. The old system uses a custom DCOM business object library and uses ODBC to get to SQL Server. The new system will not immediately replace the old system -- they must coexist against the same database for years to come. At first I thought EF was the way to go since it is the latest and greatest. After making a small EF model and only 2 CSLA editable root objects (I will eventually have hundreds of objects as my DB has 800+ tables) I am seriously questioning the use of EF. In the current system I have the need many times to do fine detail performance tuning of the queries which I can do because of 100% control of generated SQL. But it seems in EF that so much happens behind the scenes that I lose that control. Article like http://toomanylayers.blogspot.com/2009/01/entity-framework-and-linq-to-sql.html don't help my impression of EF. People seem to like EF because of LINQ to EF but since my criteria is passed between client and server as criteria object it seems like I could build queries just as easily without LINQ. I understand in WCF RIA that there is query projection (or something like that) where I can do client side LINQ which does move to the server before translation into actual SQL so in that case I can see the benefit of EF, but not in CSLA. If I use raw ADO.NET, will I regret my decision 5 years from now? Has anyone else made this choice recently and which way did you go?

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  • MVC App Works in Visual Studio, but not IIS7

    - by kesh
    Working on a an ASP.NET MVC Project, and I'm having some difficulties deploying to a shared dev server. Locally, when debugging using the local Visual Studio 2008 server, everything works peachy. However, once deployed, I receive the following error: Parser Error Description: An error occurred during the parsing of a resource required to service this request. Please review the following specific parse error details and modify your source file appropriately.## Heading ## Parser Error Message: Unable to find an entry point named 'BCryptGetFipsAlgorithmMode' in DLL 'bcrypt.dll'. Source Error: Line 1: <%@ Application Codebehind="Global.asax.cs" Inherits="APPLICATION_NAME.Web.MvcApplication" Language="C#" %> Source File: /APPLICATION_NAME/global.asax Line: 1 Version Information: Microsoft .NET Framework Version:2.0.50727.4927; ASP.NET Version:2.0.50727.4927 In the error log: Event sequence: 1 Event occurrence: 1 Event detail code: 0 Application information: Application domain: /LM/W3SVC/1/ROOT/APPLICATION_NAME-4-128995312096183595 Trust level: Full Application Virtual Path: /APPLICATION_NAME Application Path: E:\PROJECTS\APPLICATION\APPLICATION_NAME\APPLICATION_NAME\app\APPLICATION_NAME.Web\ Machine name: PC Process information: Process ID: 4608 Process name: w3wp.exe Account name: IIS APPPOOL\DefaultAppPool Exception information: Exception type: HttpException Exception message: Unable to find an entry point named 'BCryptGetFipsAlgorithmMode' in DLL 'bcrypt.dll'. Request information: Request URL: http://localhost/APPLICATION_NAME Request path: /APPLICATION_NAME User host address: ::1 User: Is authenticated: False Authentication Type: Thread account name: IIS APPPOOL\DefaultAppPool Thread information: Thread ID: 6 Thread account name: IIS APPPOOL\DefaultAppPool Is impersonating: False Stack trace: at System.Web.Compilation.BuildManager.ReportTopLevelCompilationException() at System.Web.Compilation.BuildManager.EnsureTopLevelFilesCompiled() at System.Web.Hosting.HostingEnvironment.Initialize(ApplicationManager appManager, IApplicationHost appHost, IConfigMapPathFactory configMapPathFactory, HostingEnvironmentParameters hostingParameters) Custom event details: After finding the deployment error, I tried adding an application locally, and that seems to result in the same application. On my local dev machine, I'm using Windows 7 RTM (x64), and on the shared server I'm running Windows Server 2008 Standard (x86). Poked around, and my FIPS encryption in Local Security Policy is disabled, so I'm at a bit of a loss.

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  • Writing an efficient cron job script utilizing Zend_Mail_Storage_Imap.

    - by fireeyedboy
    I'm new to the IMAP protocol and Zend_Mail_Storage and I'm writing a small php script for a cron job that should regularly poll an IMAP account and check for new messages, and send an e-mail if new messages have arrived. As you can imagine, I want to only poll the IMAP account for relevant messages, and I only want to send a new e-mail if new messages have arrived since the last polled new message. So I thought of keeping track of the last message I polled with some unique identifier for a message. But I'm a bit uncertain about whether the methods I want to utilize for this do what I expect them to do though. So my questions are: Does the iterator position of Zend_Mail_Storage_Imap actually resemble some IMAP unique identifier for messages, or is it simply only and internal position of Zend_Mail_Storage_Abstract? For instance, if I tell it to seek() to message 5 (which I stored from an earlier session) will it indeed seek to the appropriate message on the IMAP server, even if for instance messages have been deleted since last session? Would keeping track of this latest polled message id in a file suffice for a cron job that, say, polls the account every 5 or 10 minutes? Or is this too naive, and should I be using a database for instance. Or is there maybe a much easier way to keep track of such state with Zend_Mail_Storage_Abstract? Also, do I need to poll every IMAP folder? Or is everything accumulated when I poll INBOX? If you could shed some light on any of these matters, I'ld appreciate it. Thanks in advance.

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  • Problems requesting the LDAP: The server is unwilling to process the request.

    - by Flo
    We have written an authentication provider for a SharePoint web application which can requests multiple LDAP directories. One of the LDAP server have to be requested via SSL. So we imported the CA certificate which was used to sign the LDAP server's certificate into the certificate store of the SharePoint server. The following code snippet shows how we authenticate an user. The passed credentials (account, password) belong to the user we want to authenticate. var entry = new DirectoryEntry("LDAP://<ldap-server-address>", "cn=account,ou=sub,o=xyz,c=de", "password", AuthenticationTypes.SecureSocketsLayer); var searcher = new DirectorySearcher(entry); var found = searcher.FindOne(); When the code is processed, the call to searcher.FindOne() throws following exception. System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException (0x80072035): The server is unwilling to process the request What circumstance can lead to this error? UPDATE: I found some information about the error message. There the problem seems to be the certificate store, as the user has only stored the certificate in the in the user's store and not in the computer's store. Unfortunately we've already stored it there. So could this be still a certificate issue? UPDATE/SOLUTION: Actually the problem is solved. It seems as if the root CA certificate was imported correctly but the error messages the LDAP server responded was caused by an expired user account our customer gave us for testing.

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  • Membership.GetUser() within TransactionScope throws TransactionPromotionException

    - by Bob Kaufman
    The following code throws a TransactionAbortedException with message "The transaction has aborted" and an inner TransactionPromotionException with message "Failure while attempting to promote transaction": using ( TransactionScope transactionScope = new TransactionScope() ) { try { using ( MyDataContext context = new MyDataContext() ) { Guid accountID = new Guid( Request.QueryString[ "aid" ] ); Account account = ( from a in context.Accounts where a.UniqueID.Equals( accountID ) select a ).SingleOrDefault(); IQueryable < My_Data_Access_Layer.Login > loginList = from l in context.Logins where l.AccountID == account.AccountID select l; foreach ( My_Data_Access_Layer.Login login in loginList ) { MembershipUser membershipUser = Membership.GetUser( login.UniqueID ); } [... lots of DeleteAllOnSubmit() calls] context.SubmitChanges(); transactionScope.Complete(); } } catch ( Exception E ) { [... reports the exception ...] } } The error occurs at the call to Membership.GetUser(). My Connection String is: <add name="MyConnectionString" connectionString="Data Source=localhost\SQLEXPRESS;Initial Catalog=MyDatabase;Integrated Security=True" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> Everything I've read tells me that TransactionScope should just get magically applied to the Membership calls. The user exists (I'd expect a null return otherwise.)

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  • Paypal subscriptions IPN - problem with users subscribing multiple times

    - by Brian Armstrong
    I'm using paypal subscriptions and the instant payment notification (IPN) to handle subscribers on my site. For the most part it works well but there is one occasional problem I've encountered. Usually if a user cancels their subscription, I wait for the "end of term" (subscr_eot) notification before disabling access to my site. So if they prepay for the whole month, and then cancel right away, they still have access for the rest of the month (as it should be). But some users are having this problem where they: Cancel their subscription Before the "end of term" is reached they decide to re-subscribe When the "end of term" is reached for their first subscription, my app receives the notification and fires off an email to the user with something like "your account has been disabled, if you ever want to sign up again, you can re-subscribe by clicking here". This confuses them because they are thinking...that's weird, I thought I subscribed like a week ago (and they did). So they go subscribe AGAIN. Now they have two concurrent running subscriptions to my site and I get a support email in a month or two ("wtf you billed me twice this month jerk!!") So I haven't found a good way to fix this. I guess the best solution would be to do an additional API call when the "end of term" notification is received which asks paypal "hey did this person already re-subscribe?". If so then no need to fire off that email. But I haven't seen any way to do this API call yet. Another solution is to disable their account immediately when they cancel (the "subscr_cancel" notification) but then I get different angry support emails "hey I prepaid for the whole month why was my account disabled already!!". Anyone else solved this?

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  • NSIS takes ownership of IIS system files

    - by Lucas
    I recently encountered an issue with NSIS that I believe is related to an interaction with UAC, but I am at a loss to explain it and I do not know how to prevent it in the future. I have an installer that creates and removes IIS virtual directories using the NsisIIS plugin. The installer appeared worked correctly on my Windows 7 workstation. When the installer was run on a Windows 2008 R2 server it installed properly, but the uninstaller removed all of the virtual directories and put IIS is an unusable state; to the point that I had to remove the Default Web Site and re-add it. What I eventually found was that all of the IIS configuration files under C:\Windows\System32\inetsrv\config had a lock icon on them. Some investigation seem to indicate that this means a user account has taken ownership of the file, however all the files listed SYSTEM as the file owner. I did check a different server that I have not run the installer on, and it does not have the lock icon applied to the IIS files. I have also seen the same lock icon appear on other files that the NSIS installer creates. For instance, I have a Web.Config.tpl file that is processed using the NSIS ReplaceInFile which also appears with the lock icon after the installer finished. After I explicitly grant another user account access to the file, the lock icon goes away. I run the installer under the local Administrator account on the 2008 R2 server, so I do not get the UAC prompt. Here is the relevant code from the install.nsi file RequestExecutionLevel admin Section "Application" APP_SECTION SectionIn RO Call InstallApp SectionEnd Section "un.Uninstaller Section" Delete "$PROGRAMFILES\${PROGRAMFILESDIR}\Uninstall.exe" Call un.InstallApp SectionEnd Function InstallApp File /oname=Web.Config Web.Config.tpl !insertmacro ReplaceInFile Web.Config %CONNECTION_STRING% $CONNECTION_STRING FunctionEnd Function un.InstallApp ReadRegStr $0 HKLM "Software\${REGKEY}" "VirtualDir" NsisIIS::DeleteVDir "$0" Pop $0 FunctionEnd I have three questions stemming from this incident: How did this happen? How can I fix my installer to prevent it from happening again? How can I repair the permissions on the IIS config files.

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  • edited an .SWF, locally the changes made are okay, but when on server changes are not fully visible

    - by Andy
    Hi, I just edited an .SWF file I have on my website home page for a while now. I update the SWF frequently with new pictures. It's actually a picture slideshow, consisting out of 6 images. I used Adobe Flash CS4 Pro to edit the file, with just swapping all the pictures (JPGS) in it for other ones. I also have some small AS where I just have the URL: on(release) { getURL("link"); } so that's nothing fancy at all. I saved and published everything (CTRL+ENTER) and the .SWF played well, and tested it in IE8 and FF. Then I uploaded the SWF to my test server, overwriting the existing SWF file. Now the problem: all pictures but one show up well. Of the 6 images, the second image is actually the old image that was in its place. I downloaded the .SWF from the testserver and inspected the SWF and guess what: the old picture wasn't in it, instead the correct image was in the SWF. Even after reloading the page hitting CTRL+F5 still the wrong image shows. FF though shows the SWF correctly. So I then opened the page on another computer using IE8 and there the SWF works well, showing the correct second image. What's wrong with my first computer's browser? It's also the computer I edited the SWF with. I DO remember like I first saved and uploaded the wrong SWF (with the old 2nd image still in it) to the testserver, and later on uploading the correct one (proper 2nd image) I think IE8 has cached the wrong SWF, and now memorized it someway not willing to see that the file has actually been changed, but what to do so IE8 starts showing the correct SWF??

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  • htaccess mod_rewrite check file/directory existence, else rewrite?

    - by devians
    I have a very heavy htaccess mod_rewrite file that runs my application. As we sometimes take over legacy websites, I sometimes need to support old urls to old files, where my application processes everything post htaccess. My ultimate goal is to have a 'Demilitarized Zone' for old file structures, and use mod rewrite to check for existence there before pushing to the application. This is pretty easy to do with files, by using: RewriteCond %{IS_SUBREQ} true RewriteRule .* - [L] RewriteCond %{ENV:REDIRECT_STATUS} 200 RewriteRule .* - [L] RewriteCond Public/DMZ/$1 -F [OR] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ Public/DMZ/$1 [QSA,L] This allows pseudo support for relative urls by not hardcoding my base path (I cant assume I will ever be deployed in document root) anywhere and using subrequests to check for file existence. Works fine if you know the file name, ie http://domain.com/path/to/app/legacyfolder/index.html However, my legacy urls are typically http://domain.com/path/to/app/legacyfolder/ Mod_Rewrite will allow me to check for this by using -d, but it needs the complete path to the directory, ie RewriteCond Public/DMZ/$1 -F [OR] RewriteCond /var/www/path/to/app/Public/DMZ/$1 -d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ Public/DMZ/$1 [QSA,L] I want to avoid the hardcoded base path. I can see one possible solutions here, somehow determining my path and attaching it to a variable [E=name:var] and using it in the condition. Another option is using -U, but the tricky part is stopping it from hijacking every other request when they should flow through, since -U is really easy to satisfy. Any implementation that allows me to existence check a directory is more than welcome. I am not interested in using RewriteBase, as that requires my htaccess to have a hardcoded base path.

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  • Python interface to PayPal - urllib.urlencode non-ASCII characters failing

    - by krys
    I am trying to implement PayPal IPN functionality. The basic protocol is as such: The client is redirected from my site to PayPal's site to complete payment. He logs into his account, authorizes payment. PayPal calls a page on my server passing in details as POST. Details include a person's name, address, and payment info etc. I need to call a URL on PayPal's site internally from my processing page passing back all the params that were passed in abovem and an additional one called 'cmd' with a value of '_notify-validate'. When I try to urllib.urlencode the params which PayPal has sent to me, I get a: While calling send_response_to_paypal. Traceback (most recent call last): File "<snip>/account/paypal/views.py", line 108, in process_paypal_ipn verify_result = send_response_to_paypal(params) File "<snip>/account/paypal/views.py", line 41, in send_response_to_paypal params = urllib.urlencode(params) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/urllib.py", line 1261, in urlencode v = quote_plus(str(v)) UnicodeEncodeError: 'ascii' codec can't encode character u'\ufffd' in position 9: ordinal not in range(128) I understand that urlencode does ASCII encoding, and in certain cases, a user's contact info can contain non-ASCII characters. This is understandable. My question is, how do I encode non-ASCII characters for POSTing to a URL using urllib2.urlopen(req) (or other method) Details: I read the params in PayPal's original request as follows (the GET is for testing): def read_ipn_params(request): if request.POST: params= request.POST.copy() if "ipn_auth" in request.GET: params["ipn_auth"]=request.GET["ipn_auth"] return params else: return request.GET.copy() The code I use for sending back the request to PayPal from the processing page is: def send_response_to_paypal(params): params['cmd']='_notify-validate' params = urllib.urlencode(params) req = urllib2.Request(PAYPAL_API_WEBSITE, params) req.add_header("Content-type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded") response = urllib2.urlopen(req) status = response.read() if not status == "VERIFIED": logging.warn("PayPal cannot verify IPN responses: " + status) return False return True Obviously, the problem only arises if someone's name or address or other field used for the PayPal payment does not fall into the ASCII range.

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  • ASP.NET Chart Control errors in Event Viewer

    - by Richard Reddy
    Hi, I have been using the ASP.NET chart controls for a while on win2k3 (32bit) setups without any issue but have noticed that on our new win2k8 (64bit) box I am getting a warning message showing up in the event viewer from the chart control. In my web.config file I have the following tag telling the Chart Control where I can store the Temp Files: <add key="ChartImageHandler" value="storage=file;timeout=20;dir=c:\TempImageFiles\;" /> Below is the warning message produced by the control: Event code: 3005 Event message: An unhandled exception has occurred. Event time: 10/7/2009 2:40:03 PM Event time (UTC): 10/7/2009 2:40:03 PM Event ID: 237c3b208962429e8bbc5a48ffd177f0 Event sequence: 2860 Event occurrence: 26 Event detail code: 0 Application information: Application domain: /LM/W3SVC/2/ROOT-1-128993655360497729 Trust level: Full Application Virtual Path: / Application Path: C:\data\sites\mydomain.com\ Machine name: 231692-WEB Process information: Process ID: 4068 Process name: w3wp.exe Account name: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE Exception information: Exception type: ArgumentException Exception message: The image is not found. Request information: Request URL: http://www.mydomain.com/ChartImg.axd?i=chart%5F0%5F3.png&g=bccc8aa11abb470980c60e8cf1e71e15 Request path: /ChartImg.axd User host address: my domain ip User: Is authenticated: False Authentication Type: Thread account name: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE Thread information: Thread ID: 7 Thread account name: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE Is impersonating: False Stack trace: at System.Web.UI.DataVisualization.Charting.ChartHttpHandler.ProcessSavedChartImage(HttpContext context) at System.Web.UI.DataVisualization.Charting.ChartHttpHandler.System.Web.IHttpHandler.ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) at System.Web.HttpApplication.CallHandlerExecutionStep.System.Web.HttpApplication.IExecutionStep.Execute() at System.Web.HttpApplication.ExecuteStep(IExecutionStep step, Boolean& completedSynchronously) It's worth pointing out that ALL of the chart images are displayed correctly on the screen so I'm not sure when/where the image not found error is being caused. Is this a 64bit issue? Thanks, Rich

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  • Are Django template tags cached?

    - by thebossman
    I have gone through the (painful) process of writing a custom template tag for use in Django. It is registered as an inclusion_tag so that it renders a template. However, this tag breaks as soon as I try to change something. I've tried changing the number of parameters and correspondingly changing the parameters when it's called. It's clear the new tag code isn't being loaded, because an error is thrown stating that there is a mismatch in the number of parameters, and it's evident that it's attempting to call the old function. The same problem occurs if I try to change the name of the template being rendered and correspondingly change the name of the template on disk. It continues to try to call the old template. I've tried clearing old .pyc files with no luck. Overall, the system is acting as though it's caching the template tags, likely due to the register command. I have dug through endless threads trying to find out if this is so, but all could find it James Bennett stating here that register doesn't do anything. Please help!

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  • Changing a sprites bitmap

    - by numerical25
    As of right now, I am trying to create a tiling effect for a game I am creating. I am using a tilesheet and I am loading the tiles to the sprite like so... this.graphics.beginBitmapFill(tileImage); this.graphics.drawRect(30, 0,tWidth ,tHeight ); var tileImage is the bitMapData. 30 is the Number of pixels to move retangle. then tWidth and tHeight is how big the rectangle is. which is 30x30 This is what I do to change the bitmap when I role over the tile this.graphics.clear(); this.graphics.beginBitmapFill(tileImage); this.graphics.drawRect(60, 0,tWidth ,tHeight ); I clear the sprite canvas. I then rewrite to another position on tileImage. My problem is.... It removes the old tile completely but the new tile positions farther to the right then where the old bitmap appeared. My tile sheet is only 90px wide by 30px height. On top of that, it appears my new tile is drawn behind the old tile. Is there any better way to perfect this. again, all i want is for the bitmap to change colors

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  • Linq to XML: create an anonymous object with element attributes and values

    - by Phil Scholtes
    I'm new to Linq and I'm trying to query a XML document to find a list of account managers for a particular user. (I realize it might make more sense to put this in a database or something else, but this scenario calls for a XML document). <user emailAddress='[email protected]'> <accountManager department='Customer Service' title='Manager'>[email protected]</accountManager> <accountManager department='Sales' title='Account Manager'>[email protected]</accountManager> <accountManager department='Sales' title='Account Manager'>[email protected]</accountManager> </user> I trying to create a list of objects (anonymous type?) with properties consisting of both XElement attributes (department, title) and values (email). I know that I can get either of the two, but my problem is selecting both. Here is what I'm trying: var managers = _xDoc.Root.Descendants("user") .Where(d => d.Attribute("emailAddress").Value == "[email protected]") .SelectMany(u => u.Descendants("accountManager").Select(a => a.Value)); foreach (var manager in managers) { //do stuff } I can get at a.Value and a.Attribute but I can't figure out how to get both and store them in an object. I have a feeling it would wind up looking something like: select new { department = u.Attribute("department").Value, title = u.Attribute("title").Value, email = u.Value };

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  • How do I pass arguments to pages in a WPF application?

    - by Rod
    I'm working on upgrading a really old VB6 app to a WPF application. This will be a page-based app, but not a XBAP. The old VB6 app had a start form where a user would enter search criteria. Then they would get results in a grid, select a row in the grid and then click on one of 3 buttons. I am thinking that what I'll do is use hyperlink controls on the WPF app. No matter what button the user clicked on the old VB6 app, it would go to a second form. What it did on the second form was dependent upon which button the user clicked on the first form. So, I want the first page in my WPF app to do the same thing, but depending upon which hyperlink they click on will dictate what happens on the second page. They will either (a) go to the second page to edit the details as well as a lot more information, related to what they selected on the first page, or (b) enter a new record and all associated data (a new client, in this case), or (c) create a new case for the same client, selected on the first page. For me the hard thing is I don't know how to pass that information along to the second page. Is there something in WPF like in HTML where there's a query string? Or how do you get information from the first page to the second page, in WPF? I'm working in VS 2008.

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  • Best way to "un-promote" files in Accurev?

    - by Luke Rinard
    My company uses Accurev for source control, and for all its benefits, there's one simple action that I just can't figure out how to accomplish. Often we have someone accidentally push a file up too far in our stream structure -- from the "Development" stream to the "Release" stream, for example. What is the best way to "un-promote" this file? That is to say, to get the old version of the file back into the "Release" stream, and keep the new version of the file in the "Development" stream, where it belongs? Just doing a "Revert to Backed" or other Revert action on the file in the Release stream will either cause an old version of the file to propagate down into Development, or will make the file disappear entirely. In the above case, the developer will have to jump through hoops with setting basis times on streams, or use the command line tool to do a checkout of an old transaction, to get the file back. Sometimes the people in question are non-technical, so this is not a good solution. I have also considered moving the files to a "higher ground" stream, reverting, and then cross-promoting them to the lower stream again. This seems really kludgy. It seems like Accurev is obscure enough that Google is no help, so I turn to the good folks of StackOverflow for help -- has anybody figured out the "Accurevy" way to accomplish this?

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  • Flush separate Castle ActiveRecord Transaction, and refresh object in another Transaction

    - by eanticev
    I've got all of my ASP.NET requests wrapped in a Session and a Transaction that gets commited only at the very end of the request. At some point during execution of the request, I would like to insert an object and make it visible to other potential threads - i.e. split the insertion into a new transaction, commit that transaction, and move on. The reason is that the request in question hits an API that then chain hits another one of my pages (near-synchronously) to let me know that it processed, and thus double submits a transaction record, because the original request had not yet finished, and thus not committed the transaction record. So I've tried wrapping the insertion code with a new SessionScope, TransactionScope(TransactionMode.New), combination of both, flushing everything manually, etc. However, when I call Refresh on the object I'm still getting the old object state. Here's some code sample for what I'm seeing: Post outsidePost = Post.Find(id); // status of this post is Status.Old using (TransactionScope transaction = new TransactionScope(TransactionMode.New)) { Post p = Post.Find(id); p.Status = Status.New; // new status set here p.Update(); SessionScope.Current.Flush(); transaction.Flush(); transaction.VoteCommit(); } outsidePost.Refresh(); // refresh doesn't get the new status, status is still Status.Old Any suggestions, ideas, and comments are appreciated!

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  • Credit card system implementation?

    - by Mark
    My site is going to have a credit system that basically works a lot like a credit card. Each user has an unlimited credit limit, but at the end of each week, they have to pay it off. For example, a user might make several purchases between March 1st and 7th, and then at the end of March 7th, they would be emailed an invoice that lists all their purchases during the week and a total that is due by the 14th. If they don't pay it off, their account is simply deactivated until they do. I'm just trying to wrap my head around how to implement this. I have a list of all their purchases, that's not a problem, but I'm just trying to figure out what to do with it. On the end of the 7th day, I could set up a cronjob to generate an invoice, which would basically have an id, and due date, and then I would need another many-to-many table to link all the purchases to the invoice. Then when a user adds money to their account, I guess it's applied against their current outstanding invoice? And what if they don't pay off their invoice by the time a new invoice rolls around, so now they have 2 outstanding ones, how do I know which to apply it against? Or do I make the cronjob check for any previous outstanding invoices, cancel them, and add a new item to the new invoice as "balance forward (+interest)"? How would you apply the money against an invoice? Would each payment have to be linked to an invoice, or could I just deposit it to their account credit, and then somehow figure out whats been paid and what hasn't? What if they pay in advance, before their invoice has been generated? Do I deduct it from their credit from the invoice upon generation, or at the end of the week when its due? There are so many ways to do this... Can anyone describe what approach they would take?

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  • Moses v1.0 multi language ini file

    - by Milan Kocic
    I was working with mosesserver 0.91 and everything works fine but now there is version 1.0 and nothing is same as before. Here is my situation: I want to have multi language translation from arabic to english and from english to arabic. All data and configuration file I have works with 0.91 version of mosesserver. Here is my config file: ------------------------------------------------- ######################### ### MOSES CONFIG FILE ### ######################### # D - decoding path, R - reordering model, L - language model [translation-systems] ar-en D 0 R 0 L 0 en-ar D 1 R 1 L 1 # input factors [input-factors] 0 # mapping steps [mapping] 0 T 0 1 T 1 # translation tables: table type (hierarchical(0), textual (0), binary (1)), source-factors, target-factors, number of scores, file # OLD FORMAT is still handled for back-compatibility # OLD FORMAT translation tables: source-factors, target-factors, number of scores, file # OLD FORMAT a binary table type (1) is assumed [ttable-file] 1 0 0 5 /mnt/models/ar-en/phrase-table/phrase-table 1 0 0 5 /mnt/models/en-ar/phrase-table/phrase-table # no generation models, no generation-file section # language models: type(srilm/irstlm), factors, order, file [lmodel-file] 1 0 5 /mnt/models/ar-en/language-model/en.qblm.mm 1 0 5 /mnt/models/en-ar/language-model/ar.lm.d1.blm.mm # limit on how many phrase translations e for each phrase f are loaded # 0 = all elements loaded [ttable-limit] 20 # distortion (reordering) files [distortion-file] 0-0 wbe-msd-bidirectional-fe-allff 6 /mnt/models/ar-en/reordering-table/reordering-table.wbe-msd-bidirectional-fe.gz 0-0 wbe-msd-bidirectional-fe-allff 6 /mnt/models/en-ar/reordering-model/reordering-table.wbe-msd-bidirectional-fe.gz # distortion (reordering) weight [weight-d] 0.3 0.3 # lexicalised distortion weights [weight-lr] 0.3 0.3 0.3 0.3 0.3 0.3 0.3 0.3 0.3 0.3 0.3 0.3 # language model weights [weight-l] 0.5000 0.5000 # translation model weights [weight-t] 0.2 0.2 0.2 0.2 0.2 0.2 0.2 0.2 0.2 0.2 # no generation models, no weight-generation section # word penalty [weight-w] -1 -1 [distortion-limit] 12 --------------------------------------------------------- So please can someone help me and rewrite this config file so it can work in version 1.0. And i need some python sample code of translation. I am using xmlrpc in python and earler I sent http request with: import xmlrpclib client = xmlrpclib.ServerProxy('http://localhost:8080') client.translate({'text': 'some text', 'system': 'en-ar'}) but now seems there is no more 'system' parameter and moses use always default settings.

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  • How to open a document using an application launched via NSTask?

    - by zneak
    Hello world, I've grown tired of the built-in open Mac OS X command, mostly because it runs programs with your actual user ID instead of the effective user ID; this results in the fact sudo open Foo opens Foo with its associated application with your account instead of the root account, and it annoys me. So I decided to make some kind of replacement. So far I've been successful: I can open any program under the open -a or open -b fashion, and support optionally waiting. I'm using NSTask for that purpose. However, I'd like to be able to open documents too. As far as I can see, you need to use NSWorkspace for that, but using NSWorkspace to launch programs results in them being launched with your account's credentials instead of your command line program's credentials. Which is precisely what the default open tool does, and precisely what I don't want. So, how can I have a program request that another program opens a document without using NSWorkspace? From the NSTask object, I can have the process ID, but that's about it.

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