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• ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Group

  - by Jimmo

  I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, Customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.) In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on their account. When calling something like ValidateUser, I have access to their affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to which to compare it. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

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• Using Doctrine to abstract CRUD operations

  - by TomWilsonFL

  This has bothered me for quite a while, but now it is necessity that I find the answer. We are working on quite a large project using CodeIgniter plus Doctrine. Our application has a front end and also an admin area for the company to check/change/delete data. When we designed the front end, we simply consumed most of the Doctrine code right in the controller: //In semi-pseudocode function register() { $data = get_post_data(); if (count($data) && isValid($data)) { $U = new User(); $U->fromArray($data); $U->save(); $C = new Customer(); $C->fromArray($data); $C->user_id = $U->id; $C->save(); redirect_to_next_step(); } } Obviously when we went to do the admin views code duplication began and considering we were in a "get it DONE" mode so it now stinks with code bloat. I have moved a lot of functionality (business logic) into the model using model methods, but the basic CRUD does not fit there. I was going to attempt to place the CRUD into static methods, i.e. Customer::save($array) [would perform both insert and update depending on if prikey is present in array], Customer::delete($id), Customer::getObj($id = false) [if false, get all data]. This is going to become painful though for 32 model objects (and growing). Also, at times models need to interact (as the interaction above between user data and customer data), which can't be done in a static method without breaking encapsulation. I envision adding another layer to this (exposing web services), so knowing there are going to be 3 "controllers" at some point I need to encapsulate this CRUD somewhere (obviously), but are static methods the way to go, or is there another road? Your input is much appreciated.

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• Web-app currency input/manipulation/calculation with javascript .. there has got to be a better (fra

  - by dreftymac

  BACKGROUND: I am of the "user-input-lockdown" school of thought. Whenever possible, I try to mistrust and sanitize user input, both client side and server side; and I try to take multiple opportunities to restrict possible inputs to a known subset of possibilities, usually this means providing a lot of checkboxes and select lists. (This is from the usability side of things, I know security-wise that malicious users can easily bypass fixed user input GUI controls). PROBLEM: Anyway, the problem always arises with non-fixed input of currency. Whenever I have to accept a freely-specified dollar amount as user input, I always have to confront these problems/annoyances and it is always painful: 1) Make sure to give the user two input boxes for each currency_datapoint, one for the whole_dollar_part and another for the fractional_pennies_part 2) Whenever the user changes a currency_datapoint, provide keystroke-by-keystroke GUI feedback to let them know whether the currency_datapoint is well-formed, with context-appropriate validation rules (e.g., no negatives?, nonzero only?, numeric only!, no non-numeric punctuation! no symbols!) 3) For display purposes, every user-provided currency_datapoint should be translated to human-readable currency formatting (dollar sign, period, commas provided by the app, where appropriate) 4) For calculation purposes, every user-provided currency_datapoint has to be converted to integer (all pennies, to avoid floating point errors) and summed into a grand total with zero or more subtotals. 5) Every user-provided currency_datapoint should be displayed or displayable in a nice "tabular" format, which auto-updates as the user enters each currency_datapoint, including a baloon that warns when one or more currency_datapoints is not well-formed. I seem to be re-inventing this wheel every time I have to work with currency in Javascript on the client side (server side is a bit more flexible since most programming languages have higher-level currency formatting logic). QUESTION: Has anyone out there solved the problem of dealing with the above issues, client side, in a way that is server-side-technology-stack agnostic, (preferrably plain javascript or jquery)? This is getting old, there has to be a better way.

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• Create a strongly typed view which inherites a class which is concrete

  - by Ashwani K

  Hello All: I am having one class called BaseClass which contains some logic applicable to whole web site. In order to create a strongly typed view we need to inherit the page from System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage generic class. But In our case I have to Inherit the BaseClass from System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage to apply some common settings, but the BaseClass should be inherited from System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage< generic version. But I cannot inherit the BaseClass from System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage< as it will change other class also. So I created one more class of type BaseClass< inheriting it from System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage< and copied the whole code of BaseClass in BaseClass<. But the code in BaseClass is controlled by other team so it will be changed frequently so my BaseClass< should be in sync with BaseClass. Please help me in eliminating the code duplication or any other approach to make strongly typed View. Thanks Ashwani

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• mysql and trigger usage question

  - by dhruvbird

  I have a situation in which I don't want inserts to take place (the transaction should rollback) if a certain condition is met. I could write this logic in the application code, but say for some reason, it has to be written in MySQL itself (say clients written in different languages will be inserting into this MySQL InnoDB table) [that's a separate discussion]. Table definition: CREATE TABLE table1(x int NOT NULL); The trigger looks something like this: CREATE TRIGGER t1 BEFORE INSERT ON table1 FOR EACH ROW IF (condition) THEN NEW.x = NULL; END IF; END; I am guessing it could also be written as(untested): CREATE TRIGGER t1 BEFORE INSERT ON table1 FOR EACH ROW IF (condition) THEN ROLLBACK; END IF; END; But, this doesn't work: CREATE TRIGGER t1 BEFORE INSERT ON table1 ROLLBACK; You are guaranteed that: Your DB will always be MySQL Table type will always be InnoDB That NOT NULL column will always stay the way it is Question: Do you see anything objectionable in the 1st method?

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• Dependency Property ListBox

  - by developer

  Hi All, I want to use a dependency property, so that my label displays values selected in the listbox. This is just to more clearly understand the working of a dependency property. <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:WPFToolkit="clr-namespace:Microsoft.Windows.Controls;assembly=WPFToolkit" xmlns:local="clr-namespace:WpfApplication1" x:Name="MyWindow" Height="200" Width="300" > <StackPanel> <ListBox x:Name="lbColor" Width="248" Height="56" ItemsSource="{Binding TestColor}"/> <StackPanel> <Label Content="{Binding Path=Test, ElementName=lbColor}" /> </StackPanel> </StackPanel> </Window> Code Behind, namespace WpfApplication1 { /// <summary> /// Interaction logic for Window1.xaml /// </summary> public partial class Window1 : Window { public ObservableCollection<string> TestColor { get; set; } public String Test { get { return (String)GetValue(TestProperty); } set { SetValue(TestProperty, value); } } // Using a DependencyProperty as the backing store for Title. This enables animation, styling, binding, etc... public static readonly DependencyProperty TestProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("Test", typeof(String), typeof(ListBox), new UIPropertyMetadata("Test1")); public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); TestColor = new ObservableCollection<string>(); DataContext = this; TestColor.Add("Red"); TestColor.Add("Orange"); TestColor.Add("Yellow"); TestColor.Add("Green"); TestColor.Add("Blue"); } } } Can anyone explain me how will I accompalish this using a dependency property. Somehow I am very confused with the Dependency Property concept, and I just wanted to see a working example for that.

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• flash creates more than one http request

  - by MilanAleksic

  We are facing one issue directly connected with our Flash API we've given to a 3rd party flash vendor. To make a long story short, our API basically wraps domain logic on client and creates a single POST request towards the server in JSON format. All will be ok except in combination MacOS + Safari we receive double requests on server (?). Even more interesting, we are receiving different agent names - one is expected name/decriptor of the browser and system, other is "CFNetwork". POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 Mozilla/5.0+(Macintosh;+U;+Intel+Mac+OS+X+10_4_11;+fr)+AppleWebKit/531.22.7+(KHTML,+like+Gecko)+Version/4.0.5+Safari/531.22.7 200 0 0 POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 CFNetwork/129.24 200 0 0 POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 Mozilla/5.0+(Macintosh;+U;+Intel+Mac+OS+X+10_4_11;+fr)+AppleWebKit/531.22.7+(KHTML,+like+Gecko)+Version/4.0.5+Safari/531.22.7 200 0 0 POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 Mozilla/5.0+(Macintosh;+U;+Intel+Mac+OS+X+10_4_11;+fr)+AppleWebKit/531.22.7+(KHTML,+like+Gecko)+Version/4.0.5+Safari/531.22.7 200 0 0 POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 CFNetwork/129.24 200 0 0 POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 Mozilla/5.0+(Macintosh;+U;+Intel+Mac+OS+X+10_4_11;+fr)+AppleWebKit/531.22.7+(KHTML,+like+Gecko)+Version/4.0.5+Safari/531.22.7 200 0 0 POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 CFNetwork/129.24 200 0 0 POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 CFNetwork/129.24 200 0 0 Has anyone encounter anything like this before?

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• "hour" int taken from NSDate not behaving as expected at midnight??

  - by Eric

  I feel like I've lost my mind. Can someone tell me what's going on here? Also, I'm sure there is a better way to do what I'm trying to do, but I'm not interested in that now. I'd just like to solve the mystery of why my ints are not responding to logic as expected. // Set "At: " field close to current time NSDateFormatter *dateFormatter = [[NSDateFormatter alloc] init]; [dateFormatter setDateFormat:@"HH"]; int hour = [[dateFormatter stringFromDate:[NSDate date]] intValue]; [dateFormatter setDateFormat:@"mm"]; int minute = [[dateFormatter stringFromDate:[NSDate date]] intValue]; NSLog(@"currently %i:%i",hour, minute); if(hour >= 12){ // convert to AM/PM selectedMeridiem = 1; if(hour != 12){ hour = hour - 12; } } else{ selectedMeridiem = 0; } selectedHour = hour - 1; if(selectedHour <= 0){ selectedHour = 11; } When I debug the above code with my clock set to 12:XX AM, the integer "hour" returned is 0. But then any if statements with the condition if(hour == 0) are not evaluated. Likewise, this would not be evaluated either: if(hour < 1). The code above puts the hour int into another int, selectedHour (don't worry about why I'm doing this for now), but selectedHour suffers from the same weird behavior; the if(selectedHour <= 0) line is never evaluated. Am I going crazy, or am I just an idiot? Maybe there's some behavior of 0 integers that I'm not aware of. All of my code runs fine as long as it's not 12:XX AM.

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• Summation loop program in Pascal

  - by user2526598

  I am having a bit of an issue with this problem. I am taking a Pascal programming class and this problem was in my logic book. I am required to have the user enter a series of (+) numbers and once he/she enters a (-) number, the program should find the sum of all the (+) numbers. I accomplished this, but now I am attempting part two of this problem, which requires me to utilize a nested loop to run the program x amount of times based on the user's input. The following code is what I have so far and honestly I am stumped: program summation; //Define main program's variables var num, sum, numRun : integer; //Design procedure that will promt user for number of runs procedure numRunLoop ( var numRun : integer ); begin writeln('How many times shall I run this program?'); readln(numRun); end; //Design procedure that will sum a series of numbers //based on user input procedure numPromptLoop( numRun : integer; var num : integer ); var count : integer; begin //Utilize for to establish run limit for count := 1 to numRun do begin //Use repeat to prompt user for numbers repeat writeln('Enter a number: '); readln(num); //Tells program when to sum if num >= 0 then sum := sum + num; until num < 0; end; end; //Design procedure that will display procedure addItion( sum : integer ); begin writeln('The sum is; ', sum); end; begin numRunLoop(numRun); numPromptloop(numRun, num); addItion(sum); readln(); end.

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• foreach() error handling - how do make it do nothing?

  - by Jared

  Hey all, This should be very basic, but I am a little stumped! Here is my array: $menu = array( 'Home', 'Stuff'=>array( 'Losta Stuff', 'Less Stuff', 'Ur moms stuff', 'FAQ' ), 'Public Works' ); Here is my logic: echo "<ol>\n"; foreach( (array)$menu as $header ) { echo ' <li><b>'.$header."</b><br />\n"; echo ' <ol>'; foreach( (array)$header as $headers ) { echo ' <li>'.$headers.".</li>\n"; } echo ' </ol>'; } echo "</ol>\n"; As you can see, Home and Public Works don't have data in the them, so I get a Warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in test.php on line ## If I add (array) to $header like this: foreach( (array)$header as $headers ), It no longer gives me the error, but it just displays the $header as the $headers (i.e. Home - Home, Instead of Home - nothing). Basically, if the data is empty, I want it to do nothing!

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• Mutex example / tutorial ?

  - by Nav

  I've noticed that asking questions for the sake of creating a reference list etc. is encouraged in SO. This is one such question, so that anyone Googling for a mutex tutorial will find a good one here. I'm new to multithreading, and was trying to understand how mutexes work. Did a lot of Googling and this is the only decent tutorial I found, but it still left some doubts of how it works because I created my own program and the locking didn't work. One absolutely non-intuitive syntax of the mutex is pthread_mutex_lock( &mutex1 );, where it looks like the mutex is being locked, when what I really want to lock is some other variable. Does this syntax mean that locking a mutex locks a region of code until the mutex is unlocked? Then how do threads know that the region is locked? And isn't such a phenomenon supposed to be called critical section? In short, could you please help with the simplest possible mutex example program and the simplest possible explanation on the logic of how it works? I'm sure this will help plenty of other newbies.

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• How can I order by the result of a recursive SQL query

  - by Tony

  I have the following method I need to ORDER BY: def has_attachments? attachments.size > 0 || (!parent.nil? && parent.has_attachments?) end I have gotten this far: ORDER BY CASE WHEN attachments.size > 0 THEN 1 ELSE (CASE WHEN parent_id IS NULL THEN 0 ELSE (CASE message.parent ...what goes here ) END END END I may be looking at this wrong because I don't have experience with recursive SQL. Essentially I want to ORDER by whether a message or any of its parents has attachments. If it's attachment size is 0, I can stop and return a 1. If the message has an attachment size of 0, I now check to see if it has a parent. If it has no parent then there is no attachment, however if it does have a parent then I essentially have to do the same query case logic for the parent. UPDATE The table looks like this +---------------------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +---------------------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | id | int(11) | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | message_type_id | int(11) | NO | MUL | | | | message_priority_id | int(11) | NO | MUL | | | | message_status_id | int(11) | NO | MUL | | | | message_subject_id | int(11) | NO | MUL | | | | from_user_id | int(11) | YES | MUL | NULL | | | parent_id | int(11) | YES | MUL | NULL | | | expires_at | datetime | YES | MUL | NULL | | | subject_other | varchar(255) | YES | | NULL | | | body | text | YES | | NULL | | | created_at | datetime | NO | MUL | | | | updated_at | datetime | NO | | | | | lock_version | int(11) | NO | | 0 | | +---------------------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ Where the parent_id refers to the parent message, if it exists. Thanks!

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• Understanding sql queries formulation methodoloy. How do you think while formulating Sql Queries

  - by Shantanu Gupta

  I have been working on sql server and front end coding and have usually faced problem formulating queries. I do understand most of the concepts of sql that are needed in formulating queries but whenever some new functionality comes into the picture that can be dont using sql query, i do usually fails resolving them. I am very comfortable with select queries using joins and all such things but when it comes to DML operation i usually fails For every query that i never done before I usually finds uncomfortable with that while creating them. Whenever I goes for an interview I usually faces this problem. Is it their some concept behind approaching on formulating sql queries. Eg. I need to create an sql query such that A table contain single column having duplicate record. I need to remove duplicate records. I know i can find the solution to this query very easily on Googling, but I want to know how everyone comes to the desired result. Is it something like Practice Makes Man Perfect i.e. once you did it, next time you will be able to formulate or their is some logic or concept behind.

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• Servlet Mapping Help - Possible to Avoid Referencing Context Name?

  - by AJ

  Hi all, I am working on a Spring application and trying to get my URL mapping correct. What I would like to have work is the following: http://localhost:8080/idptest -> doesn't work But instead, I have to reference the context name in my URL in order to resolve the mapping: http://localhost:8080/<context_name>/idptest -> works How can I avoid the requirement of referencing the context name in my URL without using a rewrite/proxy engine e.g. Apache? Here is the servlet definition and mapping from my web.xml: <servlet> <servlet-name>idptest</servlet-name> <servlet-class>org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet</servlet-class> <init-param> <param-name>contextConfigLocation</param-name> <param-value>/WEB-INF/conf/idptest.xml</param-value> </init-param> <load-on-startup>1</load-on-startup> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>idptest</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> Here's the outline of my controller (showing annotations for request mappings): @Controller @RequestMapping("/idptest") public class MyController { @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.GET) public String setupForm(Model model){ MyObject someObject = new MyObject(); model.addAttribute("someObject", someObject); return "myform"; } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.POST) public String processSubmit(@ModelAttribute("someObject") MyObject someObject) throws Exception { // POST logic... } } Thanks!

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• Returning true or error message in Ruby

  - by seaneshbaugh

  I'm wondering if writing functions like this is considered good or bad form. def test(x) if x == 1 return true else return "Error: x is not equal to one." end end And then to use it we do something like this: result = test(1) if result != true puts result end result = test(2) if result != true puts result end Which just displays the error message for the second call to test. I'm considering doing this because in a rails project I'm working on inside my controller code I make calls to a model's instance methods and if something goes wrong I want the model to return the error message to the controller and the controller takes that error message and puts it in the flash and redirects. Kinda like this def create @item = Item.new(params[:item]) if [email protected]? result = @item.save_image(params[:attachment][:file]) if result != true flash[:notice] = result redirect_to(new_item_url) and return end #and so on... That way I'm not constructing the error messages in the controller, merely passing them along, because I really don't want the controller to be concerned with what the save_image method itself does just whether or not it worked. It makes sense to me, but I'm curious as to whether or not this is considered a good or bad way of writing methods. Keep in mind I'm asking this in the most general sense pertaining mostly to ruby, it just happens that I'm doing this in a rails project, the actual logic of the controller really isn't my concern.

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• ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Subdomain

  - by Jimmo

  I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.). In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on the customer represented in the URL. When calling something like the MembershipProvider.ValidateUser, I have access to the user's customer affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to compare whether it is a data request for the same customer as the user. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

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• Managing logs/warnings in Python extensions

  - by Dimitri Tcaciuc

  TL;DR version: What do you use for configurable (and preferably captured) logging inside your C++ bits in a Python project? Details follow. Say you have a a few compiled .so modules that may need to do some error checking and warn user of (partially) incorrect data. Currently I'm having a pretty simplistic setup where I'm using logging framework from Python code and log4cxx library from C/C++. log4cxx log level is defined in a file (log4cxx.properties) and is currently fixed and I'm thinking how to make it more flexible. Couple of choices that I see: One way to control it would be to have a module-wide configuration call. # foo/__init__.py import sys from _foo import import bar, baz, configure_log configure_log(sys.stdout, WARNING) # tests/test_foo.py def test_foo(): # Maybe a custom context to change the logfile for # the module and restore it at the end. with CaptureLog(foo) as log: assert foo.bar() == 5 assert log.read() == "124.24 - foo - INFO - Bar returning 5" Have every compiled function that does logging accept optional log parameters. # foo.c int bar(PyObject* x, PyObject* logfile, PyObject* loglevel) { LoggerPtr logger = default_logger("foo"); if (logfile != Py_None) logger = file_logger(logfile, loglevel); ... } # tests/test_foo.py def test_foo(): with TemporaryFile() as logfile: assert foo.bar(logfile=logfile, loglevel=DEBUG) == 5 assert logfile.read() == "124.24 - foo - INFO - Bar returning 5" Some other way? Second one seems to be somewhat cleaner, but it requires function signature alteration (or using kwargs and parsing them). First one is.. probably somewhat awkward but sets up entire module in one go and removes logic from each individual function. What are your thoughts on this? I'm all ears to alternative solutions as well. Thanks,

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• Strategy for animating a lot of "LED's" - thread?, UIView animations? NSOperation? (iPhone)

  - by RickiG

  Hi I have to do some different views containing 72 LED lights. I built an LED Class so I can loop through the LED's and set them to different colors (Green, Red, Orange, Blue None etc.). The LED then loads the appropriate .png. This works fine, I loop over the LED's and set them. Now I know that at some time they will need to not just turn on/off change color, but will have to turn on with a small delay. Like an equalizer. I have a 5-10 views containing the 72 LED's and I would like to achieve the above with the minimum amount of memory/CPU strain. for(LED *l in self.ledArray) { [l display:Green]; } I simply loop as shown above and inside the LED is a switch case that does the correct logic. If this were actual LED's and a microController I would use sleep(100) or similar in the loop, but I would really like to avoid stuff like that for obvious reasons. I was thinking that doing a performOnThread withDelay would really be consuming, so would UIView animation changing the alpha and NSOperation would also be a lot of lifting for a small feature. Is there a both efficient and clever way to go around this? Thanks for any inspiration given:)

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• On-Demand thumbnail creation with django and nginx

  - by sharjeel

  I want to generate thumbnails of images on the fly. My site is built with django and deployed using nginx which serves all the static content and communicates with django/apache using reverse proxy. Right now, for every image in my site, I generate all required sizes of thumbnails on-hand and deliver them when required. The problem is that whenever I change the size of a thumbnail, I have to regenerate all of them (and they are tons). However now I'd like to generate the thumbnail the first time it is accessed and later on nginx would deliver the same file over n over. If I delete that thumbnail file because of lesser accesses, it should get generated automatically the next time. Thumbnails in my case also have watermarks which require some computation logic of my application so a webserver thumbnail module might not work very well. The size of the thumbnail can be embedded in the URL. So http://www.example.com/thumbnail/abc_320x240.jpg gets the 320x240 size of the thumbnail. The approach I'm looking right now is to let nginx lookup the file and if it doesn't exist, forward the query to my django application which would create the thumbnail and send either the response or a redirect string. However I'm not sure about the concurrency issues and any other issues which might pop up later. What is the appropriate way to achieve this?

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• SharePoint Item Event Receivers and Site Creation

  - by Michael Edwards

  I have created an Item Event Receiver for a document library and I have test that the logic works correctly and it all does. The next thing I wanted to do is automatically create the list when a site is created so I added the list to the ONET.xml file for the site: <Lists> <List Title="Documents" Description="Documents " url="MyDocumentLibrary" Type="10002" FeatureId="CFD8504D-70EB-4ba2-9CCB-52E38DB39E60" QuickLaunchUrl="Docs/AllItems.aspx" /> </Lists> And I ensure that the feature for this list is also activated be adding the feature to the <WebFeatures> <Feature ID="CFD8504D-70EB-4ba2-9CCB-52E38DB39E60" /> </WebFeatures> The problem occurs after I create the site, when I add a document to the list the Item Event Receiver does not run. However if I manually for to the web site features and deactivate and then reactivate the feature the Item Event Receiver does run. It seems that when creating a list through the ONET.xml and activating the feature it does not bind the Item Event Receiver to the list. What is the work around for this? Is this a bug?

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• Is there a language with native pass-by-reference/pass-by-name semantics, which could be used in mod

  - by Bubba88

  Hi! This is a reopened question. I look for a language and supporting platform for it, where the language could have pass-by-reference or pass-by-name semantics by default. I know the history a little, that there were Algol, Fortran and there still is C++ which could make it possible; but, basically, what I look for is something more modern and where the mentioned value pass methodology is preferred and by default (implicitly assumed). I ask this question, because, to my mind, some of the advantages of pass-by-ref/name seem kind of obvious. For example when it is used in a standalone agent, where copyiong of values is not necessary (to some extent) and performance wouldn't be downgraded much in that case. So, I could employ it in e.g. rich client app or some game-style or standalone service-kind application. The main advantage to me is the clear separation between identity of a symbol, and its current value. I mean when there is no reduntant copying, you know that you're working with the exact symbol/path you have queried/received. And intristing boxing of values will not interfere with the actual logic of program. I know that there is C# ref keyword, but it's something not so intristic, though acceptable. Equally, I realize that pass-by-reference semantics could be simulated in virtually any language (Java as an instant example) and so on.. not sure about pass by name :) What would you recommend - create a something like DSL for such needs wherever it be appropriate; or use some languages that I already know? Maybe, there is something that I'm missing? Thank you!

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• substitution cypher with different alphabet length

  - by seanizer

  I would like to implement a simple substitution cypher to mask private ids in URLs I know how my IDs will look like (combination of upperchase ascii, digits and underscore), and they will be rather long, as they are composed keys. I would like to use a longer alphabet to shorten the resulting codes (I'd like to use upper and lower case ascii letters, digits and nothing else). So my incoming alphabet would be [A-Z0-9_] (37 chars) and my outgoing alphabet would be [A-Za-z0-9] (62 chars) so a compression of almost 50% would be available. let's say my URLs look like this: /my/page/GFZHFFFZFZTFZTF_24_F34 and I want them to look like this instead: /my/page/Ft32zfegZFV5 Obviously both arrays would be shuffled to bring some random order in. This does not have to be secure. if someone figures it out: fine, but I don't want the scheme to be obvious. My desired solution would be to convert the string to an integer representation of radix 37, convert the radix to 62 and use the second alphabet to write out that number. is there any sample code available that does something similar? Integer.parseInt ( http://java.sun.com/javase/6/docs/api/java/lang/Integer.html#parseInt%28java.lang.String,%20int%29 ) has some similar logic, but it is hard-coded to use standard digit behavior Any hints? I am using java to implement this but code or pseudo-code in any other language is of course also helpful

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• Row selection based on subtable data in MySQL

  - by Felthragar

  I've been struggling with this selection for a while now, I've been searching around StackOverflow and tried a bunch of stuff but nothing that helps me with my particular issue. Maybe I'm just missing something obvious. I have two tables: Measurements, MeasurementFlags "Measurements" contain measurements from a device, and each measurement can have properties/attributes attached to them (commonly known as "flags") to signify that the measurement in question is special in some way or another (for instance, one flag may signify a test or calibration measurement). Note: One record per flag! Right, so a record from the "Measurements" table can theoreticly have an unlimited amount of MeasurementFlags attached to it, or it can have none. Now, I need to select records from "Measurements", that have an attached "MeasurementFlag" valued "X", but it must also NOT have a flag valued "Y" attached to it. We're talking about a fairly large database with hundreds of millions of rows, which is why I'm trying to keep all of this logic within one query. Splitting it up would create too many queries, however if it's not possible to do in one query I guess I don't have a choise. Thanks in advance.

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• Hibernate design to speed up querying of large dataset

  - by paddydub

  I currently have the below tables representing a bus network mapped in hibernate, accessed from a Spring MVC based bus route planner I'm trying to make my route planner application perform faster, I load all the above tables into Lists to perform the route planner logic. I would appreciate if anyone has any ideas of how to speed my performace Or any suggestions of another method to approach this problem of handling a large set of data Coordinate Connections Table (INT,INT,INT, DOUBLE)( Containing 50,000 Coordinate Connections) ID, FROMCOORDID, TOCOORDID, DISTANCE 1 1 2 0.383657 2 1 17 0.173201 3 1 63 0.258781 4 1 64 0.013726 5 1 65 0.459829 6 1 95 0.458769 Coordinate Table (INT,DECIMAL, DECIMAL) (Containing 4700 Coordinates) ID , LAT, LNG 0 59.352669 -7.264341 1 59.352669 -7.264341 2 59.350012 -7.260653 3 59.337585 -7.189798 4 59.339221 -7.193582 5 59.341408 -7.205888 Bus Stop Table (INT, INT, INT)(Containing 15000 Stops) StopID RouteID COORDINATEID 1000100001 100 17 1000100002 100 18 1000100003 100 19 1000100004 100 20 1000100005 100 21 1000100006 100 22 1000100007 100 23 This is how long it takes to load all the data from each table: stop.findAll = 148ms, stops.size: 15670 Hibernate: select coordinate0_.COORDINATEID as COORDINA1_2_, coordinate0_.LAT as LAT2_, coordinate0_.LNG as LNG2_ from COORDINATES coordinate0_ coord.findAll = 51ms , coordinates.size: 4704 Hibernate: select coordconne0_.COORDCONNECTIONID as COORDCON1_3_, coordconne0_.DISTANCE as DISTANCE3_, coordconne0_.FROMCOORDID as FROMCOOR3_3_, coordconne0_.TOCOORDID as TOCOORDID3_ from COORDCONNECTIONS coordconne0_ coordinateConnectionDao.findAll = 238ms ; coordConnectioninates.size:48132 Hibernate Annotations @Entity @Table(name = "STOPS") public class Stop implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) @Column(name = "STOPID") private int stopID; @Column(name = "ROUTEID", nullable = false) private int routeID; @ManyToOne(fetch = FetchType.LAZY) @JoinColumn(name = "COORDINATEID", nullable = false) private Coordinate coordinate; } @Table(name = "COORDINATES") public class Coordinate { @Id @GeneratedValue @Column(name = "COORDINATEID") private int CoordinateID; @Column(name = "LAT") private double latitude; @Column(name = "LNG") private double longitude; } @Entity @Table(name = "COORDCONNECTIONS") public class CoordConnection { @Id @GeneratedValue @Column(name = "COORDCONNECTIONID") private int CoordinateID; @ManyToOne(fetch = FetchType.LAZY) @JoinColumn(name = "FROMCOORDID", nullable = false) private Coordinate fromCoordID; @ManyToOne(fetch = FetchType.LAZY) @JoinColumn(name = "TOCOORDID", nullable = false) private Coordinate toCoordID; @Column(name = "DISTANCE", nullable = false) private double distance; }

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• Problem in filtering records using Dataview (C#3.0)

  - by Newbie

  I have a data table . The data table is basically getting populated from excel sheet. And there are many excel sheets. Henceforth, I have written a utility method for accomplishing the same. Now in some of the excel sheets, there are date columns and in some it is not(only text/string). My function is populating the values properly into the datatable from the excell sheet. But there are many blank rows in the excel sheets some are filled with NULL , some with " ". So I need to filter those records (which are NULL or " " ) first before further processing. What I am after is to use a dataview and apply the filter over there. DataView dv = dataTable.DefaultView; dv.RowFilter = ColumnName + " <> ''"; Well by using metedata (GetOleDbSchemaTable(OleDbSchemaGuid.Columns, restrection)) I was able to get the column names from the excel sheet , so getting the column names is not an issue. But the problem is as I said in some Excel sheet there are date fileds some are not. So the Filter condition of the Dataview needs to be proper. If I apply the above logic, and if it encounters a Datafield, it is throwing error Cannot perform '<' operation on System.DateTime and System.String. Could you people please help me out? I need to filter columns(not known at compile time + their data types) which can have NULL and " " I am using C#3.0 Thanks

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