Search Results

Search found 66331 results on 2654 pages for 'pass data'.

Page 163/2654 | < Previous Page | 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170  | Next Page >

  • how to pass data when using MenuItem.ItemContainerStyle

    - by black sensei
    Hello Experts! i've been trying to have a dynamic ContextMenu to show the name property of each of the object in its collection of objects. here is concrete example ,i'm connecting to a webservice to pull contacts and groups of a particular account.so i have those as global variables.i display the contacts in a listbox and i want to show on right click of a contact in the listbox the list of groups that it can be added to. to be able to add a contact to a group i need the id of the contact(which i have) and the id of the group which i'm looking for here is my code. xmlns:serviceAdmin="clr-namespace:MyWpfApp.serviceAdmin" ...... <ListBox.ContextMenu> <ContextMenu> <MenuItem Header="Refresh" Click="RefreshContact_Click"></MenuItem> <MenuItem Header="Add New Contact" Click="ContactNew_Click"></MenuItem> <MenuItem Header="Add to Group" Name="groupMenus"> //<!--<MenuItem.Resources> // <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type serviceAdmin:groupInfo}" x:Key="groupMenuKey" > // <MenuItem> // <TextBlock Text="{Binding name}" /> // </MenuItem> // </DataTemplate> // </MenuItem.Resources>--> <MenuItem.ItemContainerStyle> <Style> <Setter Property="MenuItem.Header" Value="{Binding name}"/> <Setter Property="MenuItem.Tag" Value="{Binding id}" /> </Style> </MenuItem.ItemContainerStyle> </MenuItem> <MenuItem Header="Delete Selected" Click="ContactDelete_Click"></MenuItem> </ContextMenu> </ListBox.ContextMenu> ...... and on xaml.cs //this code is in the method that loads the groups loadedgroup = service.getGroups(session.key, null); groupListBox.ItemsSource = loadedgroup; groupMenus.ItemsSource = loadedgroup.ToList(); this code is showing the name of the groups alright but i need the id of the group clicked on. If you've noticed i commented a portion of the xaml code. with that i could bind(with ease) the id to the tag.But it won't work and the MenuItem.ItemContainerStyle is the one working but then i'm lost: Question 1 : how do i create a handler method for a click event of a submenu that has the names of the groups? Question 2 : how do i get the clicked group id to work with? thanks for reading and kindly help me in this

    Read the article

  • RijndaelManaged Padding when data matches block size

    - by trampster
    If I use PKCS7 padding in RijndaelManaged with 16 bytes of data then I get 32 bytes of data output. It appears that for PKCS7 when the data size matches the block size it adds a whole extra block of data. If I use Zeros padding for 16 bytes of data I get out 16 bytes of data. So for Zeros padding if the data matches the block size then it doesn't pad. I have searched through the documentation and it says nothing about this difference in padding behavior. Can someone please point me to some kind of documentation which specifies what the padding behavior should be for the different padding modes when the data size matches the block size.

    Read the article

  • How to pass a function in a function?

    - by SoulBeaver
    That's an odd title. I would greatly appreciate it if somebody could clarify what exactly I'm asking because I'm not so sure myself. I'm watching the Stanford videos on Programming Paradigms(that teacher is awesome) and I'm up to video five when he started doing this: void *lSearch( void* key, void* base, int elemSize, int n, int (*cmpFn)(void*, void*)) Naturally, I thought to myself, "Oi, I didn't know you could declare a function and define it later!". So I created my own C++ test version. int foo(int (*bar)(void*, void*)); int bar(void* a, void* b); int main(int argc, char** argv) { int *func = 0; foo(bar); cin.get(); return 0; } int foo(int (*bar)(void*, void*)) { int c(10), d(15); int *a = &c; int *b = &d; bar(a, b); return 0; } int bar(void* a, void* b) { cout << "Why hello there." << endl; return 0; } The question about the code is this: it fails if I declare function int *bar as a parameter of foo, but not int (*bar). Why!? Also, the video confuses me in the fact that his lSearch definition void* lSearch( /*params*/ , int (*cmpFn)(void*, void*)) is calling cmpFn in the definition, but when calling the lSearch function lSearch( /*params*/, intCmp ); also calls the defined function int intCmp(void* elem1, void* elem2); and I don't get how that works. Why, in lSearch, is the function called cmpFn, but defined as intCmp, which is of type int, not int* and still works? And why does the function in lSearch not have to have defined parameters?

    Read the article

  • Pass MSBuild condition to library project

    - by Billy Talented
    I have tried several solutions for this problem. Enough to know I do not know enough about MSBuild to do this elegantly but I feel like there should be a method. I have a set of libraries for working with .net projects. A few of the projects utilize System.Web.Mvc - which recently released Version 2 - and we are looking forward to the upgrade. Currently sites which reference this library reference it directly by the project(csproj) on the developer's computer - not a built version of the library so that changes and source code case easily be viewed when dealing code from this library. This works quite well and would prefer to not have to switch to binary references (but will if this is the only solution). The problem I have is that because of some of the functionality that was added onto the MVC1 based library (view engines, model binders etc) several of the sites reliant on these libraries need to stay on MVC1 until we have full evaluated and tested them on MVC2. I would prefer to not have to fork or have two copies on each dev machine. So what I would like to be able to do is set a property group value in the referencing web application and have this read by the above mentions library with the caviat that when working directly on the library via its containing solution I would like to be able to control this via Configuration Manager by selecting a build type and that property overriding the build behavior of the solution (i.e. 'Debug - MVC1' vs 'Debug -MVC2') - I have this working via: <Choose> <When Condition=" '$(Configuration)|$(Platform)' == 'Release - MVC2|AnyCPU' Or '$(Configuration)|$(Platform)' == 'Debug - MVC2|AnyCPU'"> <ItemGroup> <Reference Include="System.Web.Mvc, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35, processorArchitecture=MSIL"> </Reference> <Reference Include="Microsoft.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, processorArchitecture=MSIL"> <SpecificVersion>False</SpecificVersion> <HintPath>..\Dependancies\Web\MVC2\Microsoft.Web.Mvc.dll</HintPath> </Reference> </ItemGroup> </When> <Otherwise> <ItemGroup> <Reference Include="System.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35, processorArchitecture=MSIL"> <SpecificVersion>False</SpecificVersion> <HintPath>..\Dependancies\Web\MVC\System.Web.Mvc.dll</HintPath> </Reference> </ItemGroup> </Otherwise> The item that I am struggling with is the cross solution issue(solution TheWebsite references this project and needs to control which build property to use) that I have not found a way to work with that I think is a solid solution that enabled the build within visual studio to work as it has to date. Other bits: we are using VS2008, Resharper, TeamCity for CI, SVN for source control.

    Read the article

  • Caching Authentication Data

    - by PartlyCloudy
    Hi, I'm currently implementing a REST web service using CouchDB and RESTlet. The RESTlet layer is mainly for authentication and some minor filtering of the JSON data served by CouchDB: Clients <= HTTP = [ RESTlet <= HTTP = CouchDB ] I'm using CouchDB also to store user login data, because I don't want to add an additional database server for that purpose. Thus, each request to my service causes two CouchDB requests conducted by RESTlet (auth data + "real" request). In order to keep the service as efficent as possible, I want to reduce the number of requests, in this case redundant requests for login data. My idea now is to provide a cache (i.e.LRU-Cache via LinkedHashMap) within my RESTlet application that caches login data, because HTTP caching will probabily not be enough. But how do I invalidate the cache data, once a user changes the password, for instance. Thanks to REST, the application might run on several servers in parallel, and I don't want to create a central instance just to cache login data. Currently, I save requested auth data in the cache and try to auth new requests by using them. If a authentication fails or there is now entry available, I'll dispatch a GET request to my CouchDB storage in order to obtain the actual auth data. So in a worst case, users that have changed their data will perhaps still be able to login with their old credentials. How can I deal with that? Or what is a good strategy to keep the cache(s) up-to-date in general? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • how to pass querystring in friendly url in asp.net mvc

    - by frosty
    I have the following action. I can hit this with /basket/address?addressId=123 However i wonder how i can hit it with /basket/address/123 public ActionResult Address(int addressId) { return RedirectToAction("Index"); } my routes routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}.aspx/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults );

    Read the article

  • Swig C++ Lua Pass class by reference

    - by Jeremy
    I don't know why I'm having a hard time with this. All I want to do is this: class foo { public: foo(){} ~foo(){} float a,b; }; class foo2 { public: foo2(){} foo2(const foo &f){*this = f;} ~foo2(){} void operator=(const foo& f){ x = f.a; y = f.b; } float x,y; }; /* Usage(cpp): foo f; foo2 f2(f); //or using the = operator f2 = f; */ The problem I'm having is that, after swigging this code, I can't figure out how to make the lua script play nice. /* Usage(lua) f = example.foo() f2 = example.foo2(f) --error */ The error I get is "Wrong arguments for overloaded function 'new_Foo2'": Possible c/c++ prototypes are: foo2() foo2(foo const &) The same thing happens if I try and use do f2 = f. As I understand it everything is stored as a pointer so I did try adding an additional constructor that took a pointer to foo but to no avail.

    Read the article

  • Pass deeply nested element to function in JQuery

    - by klez
    I have this form: <form action="contact.php" method="post" id="contactform"> <ol> <li> <label for="name">First Name * </label> <input id="name" name="name" class="text" /> </li> <li> <label for="email">Your email * </label> <input id="email" name="email" class="text" /> </li> <li> <label for="company">Company</label> <input id="company" name="company" class="text" /> </li> <li> <label for="subject">Subject</label> <input id="subject" name="subject" class="text" /> </li> <li> <label for="message">Message * </label> <textarea id="message" name="message" rows="6" cols="50"></textarea> </li> <li class="buttons"> <input type="image" name="imageField" id="imageField" src="images/send.gif" /> </li> </ol> </form> This javascript function that does some basic validation: function validateRequired(field,alerttxt) { with (field) { if (value==null||value=="") { alert(alerttxt); return false; } return true; } } And this script (written with jquery) to intercept the submit event jQuery(document).ready(function(){ $('#contactform').submit(function(){ ... }); }); The problem is that, inside the last script I want to call validateRequired passing each required input/textarea (namely: name, email and message) as first parameter. I tried like this: validateRequired($('#name')); but it doesn't work. How can I do this?

    Read the article

  • Javascript unable to pass parameters into a property acting as a function

    - by BOverflow
    Currently in a simplified form, my code looks like this function AddFileParam(file_id, name, value) { uploadcontrol.addFileParam(file_id, name, value) } uploadcontrol = new Upload() function upload() { //logic } upload.prototype.AddFileParam = function(file_id, name, value) { //logic }; The code is giving me an error as it states that addFileParam is not a valid function. This is caused by the instance of the function upload (aka. uploadcontrol). This is only occuring in Firefox/Chrome and not in IE. Any ideas on how to fix this?

    Read the article

  • Pass an Event as parameter

    - by dkson
    I have a class which bundles events and registers controls to easily register/unregister them, it's basically used this way: Private Sub MyFocusHandler(ByVal sender As Object, ...) ... End Sub ... Dim b1 = new MyTextBox() Dim b2 = new MyTextBox() .... 'Lot of Controls' Dim cr = new ControlRegistration() cr.RegisterControl(b1) cr.RegisterControl(b2) .... 'Register a lot of controls' cr.RegisterEvent("Focus",New EventHandler(AddressOf MyFocusHandler)) cr.RegisterEvent("Validate",New EventHandler(AddressOf MyValidateHandler)) So I don't have to add the handlers manually for each control. The ControlRegistration-Class will cycle through the list of registered controls and check if a control has a registered event and then attach the eventhandler, something like: ... For Each control in contols Dim ev_info As Reflection.EventInfo = _ control.GetType().GetEvent(.GetType().GetEvent(event_name)) If Not (ev_info Is Nothing) Then ev_info.AddEventHandler ... ... My problem is that i am identifying the event by a string Public Sub RegisterEvent(ByVal eventName As String, ByVal handler As [Delegate]) ... ... cr.RegisterEvent("Focus",New EventHandler(AddressOf MyFocusHandler)) I don't want to depend on the name of the event, since it is possibly that the name changes, and then things will break up. Is there a way I can do this like: Public Sub RegisterEvent(ByVal theEvent As ???, ByVal handler As [Delegate]) ... ... cr.RegisterEvent(IMyControl.MyEvent,New EventHandler(AddressOf MyEventHandler)) I hope it is clear what I want to archive. Anybody any ideas? Thanks

    Read the article

  • changing user in ubuntu

    - by Rahul Mehta
    Hi , this is my ls -all, the zfapi folder have the root right , how can i change this to www-data. Also Please advise what is the first root and secont root is ? Thanks drwxr-xr-x 4 www-data www-data 4096 2011-01-06 18:21 cdnapi -rw-r--r-- 1 www-data www-data 678 2010-08-30 12:02 config.js drwxr-xr-x 4 www-data www-data 4096 2010-11-23 15:55 css drwxr-xr-x 7 www-data www-data 4096 2010-11-17 13:12 images -rw-r--r-- 1 www-data www-data 25064 2010-12-17 18:26 index.html -rw-r--r-- 1 www-data www-data 19830 2010-12-18 11:24 init.js drwxr-xr-x 2 www-data www-data 4096 2010-12-02 12:34 lib -rw-r--r-- 1 www-data www-data 18758 2010-12-06 18:00 styles.css -rw-r--r-- 1 www-data www-data 1081 2010-10-21 17:56 testbganim.html drwxr-xr-x 2 www-data www-data 4096 2010-12-17 11:15 yapi drwxr-xr-x 7 root root 4096 2011-01-07 18:20 zfapi

    Read the article

  • AIR: sync gui with data-base?

    - by John Isaacks
    I am going to be building an AIR application that shows a list (about 1-25 rows of data) from a data-base. The data-base is on the web. I want the list to be as accurate as possible, meaning as soon as the data-base data changes, the list displayed in the app should update asap. I do not know of anyway that the air application could be notified when there is a change, I am thinking I am going to have to poll the data-base at certain intervals to keep an up to date list. So my question is, first is there any way to NOT have to keep checking the data-base? or if I do keep have to keep checking the data-base what is a reasonable interval to do that at? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Boost Unit testing memory reuse causing tests that should fail to pass

    - by Knyphe
    We have started using the boost unit testing library for a large existing code base, and I have run into some trouble with unit tests incorrectly passing, seemingly due to the reuse of memory on the stack. Here is my situation: BOOST_AUTO_TEST_CASE(test_select_base_instantiation_default) { SelectBase selectBase(); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getSelectType(), false); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getTypeName(_T("")); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getEntityType(), -1); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getDataPos(), -1); } BOOST_AUTO_TEST_CASE(test_select_base_instantiation_default) { SelectBase selectBase(true, _T("abc")); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getSelectType(), false); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getTypeName(_T("abc")); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getEntityType(), -1); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getDataPos(), -1); } The first test passed correctly, initializing all the variables. The constructor in the second unit test did not correctly set EntityType or DataPosition, but the unit test passed. I was able to get it to fail by placing some variables on the stack in the second test, like so: BOOST_AUTO_TEST_CASE(test_select_base_instantiation_default) { int a, b; SelectBase selectBase(true, _T("abc")); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getSelectType(), false); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getTypeName(_T("abc")); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getEntityType(), -1); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getDataPos(), -1); } If there is only one int, only the dataPos CHECK_EQUAL fails, but if there are two, both EntityType and DataPos fail, so it seems pretty clear that this is an issue with the variables being created on the same stack memory or some such. Is there a good way to clear the memory between each unit test, or am I potentially using the library incorrectly or writing bad tests? Any help would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • JNI on Android, how to pass int from c to java

    - by Joaquin
    I have a C function, I simply returns an integer, as follows: JNIEXPORT jint JNICALL Java_org_project_ScreenPosition(JNIEnv* env, jobject thiz){ int i=1; return i; } I call this function in the way of an Activity onCreateContextMenu Android, as follows: public void onCreateContextMenu(ContextMenu menu, View v, ContextMenuInfo menuInfo){ menu.setHeaderTitle("TryMenu"); int a=ScreenPosition(); return; } But all crash

    Read the article

  • Use queried json data in a function

    - by SztupY
    I have a code similar to this: $.ajax({ success: function(data) { text = ''; for (var i = 0; i< data.length; i++) { text = text + '<a href="#" id="Data_'+ i +'">' + data[i].Name + "</a><br />"; } $("#SomeId").html(text); for (var i = 0; i< data.length; i++) { $("#Data_"+i).click(function() { alert(data[i]); RunFunction(data[i]); return false; }); } } }); This gets an array of some data in json format, then iterates through this array generating a link for each entry. Now I want to add a function for each link that will run a function that does something with this data. The problem is that the data seems to be unavailable after the ajax success function is called (although I thought that they behave like closures). What is the best way to use the queried json data later on? (I think setting it as a global variable would do the job, but I want to avoid that, mainly because this ajax request might be called multiple times) Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Django: cannot pass variable to included template?

    - by duy
    Hi, I got a problem where I want to use template including in Django. Here is the real example: I got 3 file: home.html (will get the context variable passed from Views), base.html (the skeleton template file) and the header.html (included by base.html). If if put the code below directly in base.html without including the header.html, the {{title}} variable passing from home is correctly called. But if I include the header.html in base.html, the {{title}} variable's value cannot be called. <title>{% block title %}{% endblock %} | {{ SITE_INFO_TITLE }}</title> Is there any solution to this problem? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How do I select distinct rows where a column may have a number of the same values but all their 2nd

    - by Martin Rose
    I have a table in the form: test_name| test_result | test1 | pass | test2 | fail | test1 | pass | test1 | pass | test2 | pass | test1 | pass | test3 | pass | test3 | fail | test3 | pass | As you can see all test1's pass while test2's and test3's have both passes and fails. Is there a SQL statement that I can use to return the distinct names of the tests that only pass? E.g. test1

    Read the article

  • Pass 2d array to function in C?

    - by Evelyn
    I know it's simple, but I can't seem to make this work. My function is like so: int GefMain(int array[][5]) { //do stuff return 1; } In my main: int GefMain(int array[][5]); int main(void) { int array[1800][5]; GefMain(array); return 0; } I referred to this helpful resource, but I am still getting the error "warning: passing argument 1 of GefMain from incompatible pointer type." What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • How to pass dynamic values using MVC AJax.BeginForm

    - by Arthur
    I'm using MVC and AJax.BeginForm to do some ajax updating of my page. The BeginForm code looks something like: using (Ajax.BeginForm("HandleCrop", "Card", new { accept = true, id = Model.ImageUpload.ID, file = Model.ImageUpload.File, imageCropX = Model.CropInfo.X, imageCropY = Model.CropInfo.Y, imageCropWidth = Model.CropInfo.Width, imageCropHeight = Model.CropInfo.Height }, new AjaxOptions { HttpMethod = "POST", OnComplete = "ConfirmCompleted", OnSuccess = "ReloadUpload", OnFailure = "Failure" }, null)) The Model.CropInfo is being put in as hidden fields like so: <%=Html.HiddenFor(m => m.CropInfo.X) %> <%=Html.HiddenFor(m => m.CropInfo.Y) %> <%=Html.HiddenFor(m => m.CropInfo.Width) %> <%=Html.HiddenFor(m => m.CropInfo.Height) %> However, these values are being dynamically modified by some client side javascript, and these values need to be posted through the Ajax call back to the server. The above code will obviously not work as the imageCrop.. parameters in the Ajax form are being filled when the page is rendered (therefore being all 0). My question is: what is the correct way to approach this situation?

    Read the article

  • How do you pass a generic delegate argument to a method in .NET 2.0 - UPDATED

    - by Seth Spearman
    Hello, I have a class with a delegate declaration as follows... Public Class MyClass Public Delegate Function Getter(Of TResult)() As TResult ''#the following code works. Public Shared Sub MyMethod(ByVal g As Getter(Of Boolean)) ''#do stuff End Sub End Class However, I do not want to explicitly type the Getter delegate in the Method call. Why can I not declare the parameter as follows... ... (ByVal g As Getter(Of TResult)) Is there a way to do it? My end goal was to be able to set a delegate for property setters and getters in the called class. But my reading indicates you can't do that. So I put setter and getter methods in that class and then I want the calling class to set the delegate argument and then invoke. Is there a best practice for doing this. I realize in the above example that I can set set the delegate variable from the calling class...but I am trying to create a singleton with tight encapsulation. For the record, I can't use any of the new delegate types declared in .net35. Answers in C# are welcome. Any thoughts? Seth

    Read the article

  • How do I display data in a table and allow users to copy selected data?

    - by cfouche
    Hi I have a long list of data that I want to display in table format to users. The data changes when the user performs certain actions in my app, but it is not directly editable. So the user can create a reasonably big table of data, but he can't change individual cells' values. However, I do want the data to be copy-able. So I want it to be possible for the user to select some or all of the cells, and do a ctrl-C to copy the data to his clipboard, and then a ctrl-V to paste the data to an external text editor. At the moment, I'm displaying the data in a ListView with a GridView and this works perfectly, except that GridView doesn't allow one to copy data. What other options can I try? Ours is a WPF app, coding in c#.

    Read the article

  • Pass parameter one time, but use more times

    - by Gabriel L. Oliveira
    I'm trying to do this: commands = { 'py': 'python %s', 'md': 'markdown "%s" "%s.html"; gnome-open "%s.html"', } commands['md'] % 'file.md' But like you see, the commmands['md'] uses the parameter 3 times, but the commands['py'] just use once. How can I repeat the parameter without changing the last line (so, just passing the parameter one time?)

    Read the article

  • Arduino variable going blank after the first pass

    - by user541597
    I have an Arduino sketch that takes a timet and when that timet is equal to the current time it sets the new timet to timet + 2. For example: char* convert(char* x, String y) { int hour; int minute; sscanf(x, "%d:%d", &hour, &minute); char buf[6]; if (y == "6") { if (hour > 17) { hour = (hour+6)%24; snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute ); } else if (hour < 18) { //hour = hour + 6; minute = (minute + 2); snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute); } } if (y == "12") { if (hour > 11) { hour = (hour+12)%24; snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute ); } else if (hour < 12) { hour = hour + 12; snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute); } } if (y == "24") { hour = (hour+24)%24; snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute ); } return buf; } The sketch starts for example at 1:00am. timet is set to 1:02, at system time 1:02 timet is equal to the system time. My loops looks like this: if (timet == currenttime) { timet = convert(timet) } Whenever I check the value of timet it should equal 1:04, however I get the correct value at the first run after the execution of convert, however every time after that my timet value is blank. I tried changing the code instead of using the if loop. I only run the convert function when I send for example t through the serial monitor. This works fine and outputs the correct timet after the execution of the convert function, So I figured the problem is in the if loop... Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Pass Value between MDI Child in WinForm using C#

    - by abhilashca
    I have an MDI Parent, containing a MenuStrip. When I click on one of the Menu, two Child Forms are displayed simultaneoulsy. I have a TextBox and a Send Button on one of my ChildForm. When I type-in something in that TextBox and Click the Send Button, I need to show that value in the TextBox of my Second Child Form. What I had done is, I wrote a Public Function in the Second Child Form and tried to invoke it by creating an object of Second Form, on the Send Button click event. When I put break points, in that Public Function, I find that the control is flowing through that Public function on cliking the Send button. But the passed value is not displayed. And, I know that is not the standard way to do that. Any sample script for help? Thanks.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170  | Next Page >