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• Login Problem Windows Authentication

  - by user109280

  Duplicate of: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/881928/windows-authentication-trusted-connection-problem I logged in the Windows Server(Machine 1) as "abc\user1 ". Windows Server machine is in abc domain. MSSQL Server is in the "abc" domain on Machine 1 and have mixed mode.authentication. It has account "abc\user1 " and "abc\user2 ". Both has role of sysadmin and serveradmin. I logged in another machine(Machine 2) using "abc\user2 ". Same Domain. Run the ant which connect to MSSQL Server. URL is formed as follows. jdbc:sqlserver://%DB_IP%:%DB_PORT%;SelectMethod=cursor;integratedSecurity=true;DatabaseName=dbname; 1) From Machine 2, If I use "abc\user2" credential for connection, then it works fine. since integratedSecurity=true. 2) From Machine 2, If I use "abc\user1" credential for connection, then it doesn't fine, since integratedSecurity=true and take System Credentials i.e "abc\user2". Even if I make integratedSecurity=false , then also it doesn't connect using "abc\user1" What changes to URL I have make to work for "abc\user1" from Machine2 for connection. what properties to be added in url? OR Driver doesn't support to use another domain\User Credentials? What need to set on MSSQL Server ?? Deepak

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• Spring security - same page to deliver different content based on user role

  - by Ramesh

  Hello, i tried to search for any previous post related to my issue but couldnt find any. I have a scenario where in page handles 3 different scenarios and one of them not working. This page returns different content depending on if the user is authenticated or anonymous. localhost:8080/myApp/muUrl?test=authenticatedContent - used for Scenario 1 & 2 localhost:8080/myApp/muUrl?test=anonymousContent - used for Scenario 3 Scenario: 1) Authenticated user accesing the page url - the user gets displayed correct information. Works fine 2) Anonymous user accesing page URL with parameters that requires authentication - If anonymous, there is second level of check on the content they are accessing. for example, based on the GET parameters, there is custom logic to determine if the user has to be authenticated. In which case the page gets redirected to login page (WORKS fine). 3) Anonymous user accessing page URL with parameters that doesnt need authentication - in this case i get the SAvedRequest and redirect to the URL which is taking me to an infinite loop. Am i missing something very obvious or is there a way in AuthenticationProcessFilterEntryPoint to say "DON'T redirect to LOGIN page but process it" ? thanks.

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• Memory efficient collection class

  - by Joe

  I'm building an array of dictionaries (called keys) in my iphone application to hold the section names and row counts for a tableview. the code looks like this: [self.results removeAllObjects]; [self.keys removeAllObjects]; NSUInteger i,j = 0; NSString *key = [NSString string]; NSString *prevKey = [NSString string]; if ([self.allResults count] > 0) { prevKey = [NSString stringWithString:[[[self.allResults objectAtIndex:0] valueForKey:@"name"] substringToIndex:1]]; for (NSDictionary *theDict in self.allResults) { key = [NSString stringWithString:[[theDict valueForKey:@"name"] substringToIndex:1]]; if (![key isEqualToString:prevKey]) { NSDictionary *newDictionary = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: [NSNumber numberWithInt:i],@"count", prevKey,@"section", [NSNumber numberWithInt:j], @"total",nil]; [self.keys addObject:newDictionary]; prevKey = [NSString stringWithString:key]; i = 1; } else { i++; } j++; } NSDictionary *newDictionary = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: [NSNumber numberWithInt:i],@"count", prevKey,@"section", [NSNumber numberWithInt:j], @"total",nil]; [self.keys addObject:newDictionary]; } [self.tableview reloadData]; The code works fine first time through but I sometimes have to rebuild the entire table so I redo this code which orks fine on the simulator, but on my device the program bombs when I execute the reloadData line : malloc: *** mmap(size=3772944384) failed (error code=12) *** error: can't allocate region *** set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug malloc: *** mmap(size=3772944384) failed (error code=12) *** error: can't allocate region *** set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug Program received signal: “EXC_BAD_ACCESS”. If I remove the reloadData line the code works on the device. I'm wondering if this is something to do with the way I've built the keys array (ie using autoreleased strings and dictionaries).

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• Why aren't these Canvases rendering?

  - by bpapa

  I'm creating a web app that allows users to enter a number of colors, by specifying RGB values. Upon submission, the user will see a canvas with a solid rectangle drawn in the color chosen. On this page, I have 7 canvases. The first one draws just fine, but none of the rest show up. The browser is Safari. Here's the relevant code: First, the script element in the header, which defines the function I use to draw to the canvas. <script language="JavaScript" TYPE="text/javascript"><!-- function drawCanvas(canvasId, red, green, blue) { var theCanvas = document.getElementById("canvas" + canvasId); var context = theCanvas.getContext("2d"); context.clearRect(0,0,100,100); context.setFillColor(red,green,blue,1.0); context.fillRect(0,0,100,100); } // --> </script> Next, the HTML source, where I have my canvas tags and some embedded Javascript to call my drawCanvas function <canvas id="canvas0" width="100" height="100"> </canvas> <script language="JavaScript" TYPE="text/javascript"><!-- drawCanvas(0,250,0,0); // --> </script> . . //more source . <canvas id="canvas1" width="100" height="100"> </canvas> <script language="JavaScript" TYPE="text/javascript"><!-- drawCanvas(1,4,250,6); // --> </script> Also provided is a screenshot. As you can see, the "red" canvas comes up just fine, but the second one, which should be green, doesn't show up at all. Any ideas?

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• How to reference an embedded JCA resource adapater

  - by cg

  For our current J2EE project based on JBoss, we need to interface with a remote system using message driven beans and a JCA resource adapter provided as a RAR file by a third party. I would like to package and deploy the entire project as an EAR file to our JBoss server. Most notably, the RAR file should be embedded within the EAR file and not be deployed globally. All of this is working fine so far, but I'm not particularly happy with the way the RAR file is referenced. The jboss.xml packaged with the MDB for example, currently looks like this: <jboss> <enterprise-beans> <message-driven> <ejb-name>testBean1</ejb-name> <resource-adapter-name>test1.ear#thirdparty-1.0.rar</resource-adapter-name> </message-driven> </enterprise-beans> </jboss> While this is generally working fine, it will break when the EAR file is renamed to "test2.ear". Is there a way to reference the embedded RAR file without hard-coding the containing archive's name?

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• In a Tab Bar based app a controller release data of the other ! !

  - by Flodev03

  Hi all ! I've made a ViewBased app, in the app delegate i've set a UITabBarCotntroller, in the app i have different view Controller two of them displays text in a UITextView and labels, the other one is my "ShakeController" a UIViewController in which i've set a UIAcelerometerDelegate, in it i create a instance of UIAccelerometer, in the method which manages the shake everything works fine, in this controller i have also set a UIImageView to make a simple animation, in the view Did Load method i set my imageView.animation to an array of UIImage. My problem is : when the app is launched i use the ViewControllers and everything work fine, but when i tap the ShakeController item in the tab bar and then when i come back to the other controllers the label looks like : label and textView like : Lorem ipsum..... the text of UItextView in IB. I have noticed thaht if i comment the initialisation of my imageView to the array of image i can navigate the items (from a view controller to another) without the label change and stay what i want them to be. Notice that the two controllers are in a UINavigationController. (i use @proprety (nonnatomic, retain) then @synthesize ... then releqse in the dealloc for the labels textview and my uiimageView) Do not know what to do thanks to all

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• Problem with circular definition in Scheme

  - by user8472

  I am currently working through SICP using Guile as my primary language for the exercises. I have found a strange behavior while implementing the exercises in chapter 3.5. I have reproduced this behavior using Guile 1.4, Guile 1.8.6 and Guile 1.8.7 on a variety of platforms and am certain it is not specific to my setup. This code works fine (and computes e): (define y (integral (delay dy) 1 0.001)) (define dy (stream-map (lambda (x) x) y)) (stream-ref y 1000) The following code should give an identical result: (define (solve f y0 dt) (define y (integral (delay dy) y0 dt)) (define dy (stream-map f y)) y) (solve (lambda (x) x) 1 0.001) But it yields the error message: standard input:7:14: While evaluating arguments to stream-map in expression (stream-map f y): standard input:7:14: Unbound variable: y ABORT: (unbound-variable) So when embedded in a procedure definition, the (define y ...) does not work, whereas outside the procedure in the global environment at the REPL it works fine. What am I doing wrong here? I can post the auxiliary code (i.e., the definitions of integral, stream-map etc.) if necessary, too. With the exception of the system-dependent code for cons-stream, they are all in the book. My own implementation of cons-stream for Guile is as follows: (define-macro (cons-stream a b) `(cons ,a (delay ,b)))

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• JQuery can't return xml value

  - by Mistergreen

  I have this simple xml <?xml version="1.0"?> <library> <item name="box_shelf"> <imageback src="images/box_shelf_color.png"/> <outline src="images/box_shelf_outline.png"/> <sku> <wh sku="4696424171" /> <ch sku="4696424179" /> <choc sku="4696425863" /> <ma sku="4696424175" /> </sku> </item> </library> Loading the xml is fine. I then have a function to parse certain nodes. function parseImageXml(mainNode,targetNode) { $(libraryXML).find('item').each(function() { if($(this).attr('name') == mainNode) { var $temp = $(this).find(targetNode).attr('src'); console.log("******"+$temp); return $temp; } }); } The console log is fine with ******images/box_shelf_outline.png ******images/box_shelf_color.png But when I try to return the value into variables, I get undefined. var image_outline = ''+parseImageXml("box_shelf","outline"); var image_back = parseImageXml("box_shelf","imageback"); console.log(image_outline+":"+image_back); undefined:undefined Any insight would be great, thanks

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• Do database engines other than SQL Server behave this way?

  - by Yishai

  I have a stored procedure that goes something like this (pseudo code) storedprocedure param1, param2, param3, param4 begin if (param4 = 'Y') begin select * from SOME_VIEW order by somecolumn end else if (param1 is null) begin select * from SOME_VIEW where (param2 is null or param2 = SOME_VIEW.Somecolumn2) and (param3 is null or param3 = SOME_VIEW.SomeColumn3) order by somecolumn end else select somethingcompletelydifferent end All ran well for a long time. Suddenly, the query started running forever if param4 was 'Y'. Changing the code to this: storedprocedure param1, param2, param3, param4 begin if (param4 = 'Y') begin set param2 = null set param3 = null end if (param1 is null) begin select * from SOME_VIEW where (param2 is null or param2 = SOME_VIEW.Somecolumn2) and (param3 is null or param3 = SOME_VIEW.SomeColumn3) order by somecolumn end else select somethingcompletelydifferent And it runs again within expected parameters (15 seconds or so for 40,000+ records). This is with SQL Server 2005. The gist of my question is this particular "feature" specific to SQL Server, or is this a common feature among RDBMS' in general that: Queries that ran fine for two years just stop working as the data grows. The "new" execution plan destroys the ability of the database server to execute the query even though a logically equivalent alternative runs just fine? This may seem like a rant against SQL Server, and I suppose to some degree it is, but I really do want to know if others experience this kind of reality with Oracle, DB2 or any other RDBMS. Although I have some experience with others, I have only seen this kind of volume and complexity on SQL Server, so I'm curious if others with large complex databases have similar experience in other products.

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• Loading saved byte array to memory stream causes out of memory exception

  - by user2320861

  At some point in my program the user selects a bitmap to use as the background image of a Panel object. When the user does this, the program immediately draws the panel with the background image and everything works fine. When the user clicks "Save", the following code saves the bitmap to a DataTable object. MyDataSet.MyDataTableRow myDataRow = MyDataSet.MyDataTableRow.NewMyDataTableRow(); //has a byte[] column named BackgroundImageByteArray using (MemoryStream stream = new MemoryStream()) { this.Panel.BackgroundImage.Save(stream, ImageFormat.Bmp); myDataRow.BackgroundImageByteArray = stream.ToArray(); } Everything works fine, there is no out of memory exception with this stream, even though it contains all the image bytes. However, when the application launches and loads saved data, the following code throws an Out of Memory Exception: using (MemoryStream stream = new MemoryStream(myDataRow.BackGroundImageByteArray)) { this.Panel.BackgroundImage = Image.FromStream(stream); } The streams are the same length. I don't understand how one throws an out of memory exception and the other doesn't. How can I load this bitmap? P.S. I've also tried using (MemoryStream stream = new MemoryStream(myDataRow.BackgroundImageByteArray.Length)) { stream.Write(myDataRow.BackgroundImageByteArray, 0, myDataRow.BackgroundImageByteArray.Length); //throw OoM exception here. }

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• Multiple case or switch commands in php?

  - by kitenski

  Good Afternoon, I am trying to assign some variables to a listing which has a main category and a subcategory. This works fine for most of the variables, however in each sub category there are some fields which are other. ie Main Category 1 has sub category database, development and other Main Category 2 has sub category email, internet and other Main Category 3 has sub category graphics and other. So my first case statement is as follows which works fine. switch ($main_cat) { case "Main Category 1": $main="79"; break; case "Main Category 2": $main="83"; break; case "Main Category 3": $main="87"; break; } However I am struggling as to how to handle other. This stops the whole page loading with no error message switch ($second_cat) { case "Database": $second="145"; break; case "Development": $second="146"; break; case "Other": if ($main_cat) == 'Main Category 1' { $second="147";} break; } This doesn't work at all, second is not changed. switch ($second_cat) { case "Database": $second="145"; break; case "Development": $second="146"; break; case "Other": switch ($main_cat) { case "Main Category 1": $second="147"; break; } }

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• Populate an unmapped property of domain object from result of join with Nhibernate

  - by Adam Pope

  I have a situation where I have 3 tables: StockItem, Office and StockItemPrice. The price for each StockItem can be different for each Office. StockItem( ID Name ) Office( ID Name ) StockItemPrice( ID StockItemID OfficeID Price ) I've set up a schema with 2 many-to-one relations to link StockItem and Office. So in my StockItem domain object I have a property: IList<StockItemPrice> Prices; which gets loaded with the price of the item for each office. That's working fine. Now I'm trying to get the price of an item for a single office. I have the following Criteria query: NHibernateSession.CreateCriteria(persistentType) .Add(Restrictions.Eq("ID", id)) .CreateAlias("Prices", "StockItemPrice") .Add(Restrictions.Eq("StockItemPrice.Office", office)) .UniqueResult<StockItem>(); This appears to work fine as the SQL it generates is what I qould expect. However, I dont know if it populates StockItem.Prices with a single object correctly as as soon as I reference that property NHibernate performs a lazy load of all the office's prices. Also, even if it does work, it feels really crufty having to access the price by using: mystockitem.Prices[0].Price What I would really like is to have a Price field on the StockItem object and have the price of the item put into that field by NHibernate. I've tried adding .CreateCriteria("Price", "StockItemPrice.Price") and the same with CreateAlias, but I get the error NHibernate.QueryException : could not resolve property: Price of: StockItem which makes sense I guess as Price isn't a mapped property. How would I adjust the query to make this possible?

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• temporary tables within stored procedures on slave servers with readonly set

  - by lau

  Hi, We have set up a replication scheme master/slave and we've had problems lately because some users wrote directly on the slave instead of the master, making the whole setup inconsistent. To prevent these problems from happening again, we've decided to remove the insert, delete, update, etc... rights from the users accessing the slave. Problems is that some stored procedure (for reading) require temporary tables. I read that changing the global variable read_only to true would do what I want and allow the stored procedures to work correctly ( http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.0/en/server-system-variables.html#sysvar_read_only ) but I keep getting the error : The MySQL server is running with the --read-only option so it cannot execute this statement (1290) The stored procedure that I used (for testing purpose) is this one : DELIMITER $$ DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS test_readonly $$ CREATE DEFINER=dbuser@% PROCEDURE test_readonly() BEGIN CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE IF NOT EXISTS temp ( BT_INDEX int(11), BT_DESC VARCHAR(10) ); INSERT INTO temp (BT_INDEX, BT_DESC) VALUES (222,'walou'), (111,'bidouille'); DROP TABLE temp; END $$ DELIMITER ; The create temporary table and the drop table work fine with the readonly flag - if I comment the INSERT line, it runs fine- but whenever I want to insert or delete from that temporary table, I get the error message. I use Mysql 5.1.29-rc. My default storage engine is InnoDB. Thanks in advance, this problem is really driving me crazy.

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• Custom server control disappears from page when UpdatePanel updates

  - by Sasha

  Hi all. I created a custom asp.net server control. It works fine on a regular asp.net page and as a DOM object inside of the browser. But I've never used the UpdatePanel before and now I'm trying to make sure that this control works there as well. It doesn't. If I add my control to the page outside of an update panel and click some panel's inside button (trigger), everything works fine. But if I place my control inside of update panel and click that button again, the control "disappears" from the page completely. I still can see my control in javascript debugger and the update, meaning that the object itself is still in DOM. It looks like the panel just "hides" the outer div element of my control for some reason. I tried to call panel's Update() method on button click handler, set panel's UpdateMode to both Conditional and Always. All with the same result. How can I fix that? Thank you!

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• Mysterious Flickering Visual Artifact

  - by Axis

  A flashing bar of red appears at the top of the EAGLView that I have added as a subview in my iPhone app. It flickers on and off (i.e., one frame it's there, the next frame it's not, the next frame it's there again). I have removed a lot of code from my app until I'm essentially left with the stock OpenGL-ES project and a few changes: The glview is not fullscreen; it's a subview. I enabled the depth buffer. I'm not even trying to draw anything. If the glview is fullscreen, or if I disable the depth buffer, then there is no flicker and it works fine. But needless to say, this is a 3D view and I'd like to be able to display it within a larger UIKit view. I'm not sure what code would be useful to post, but here's how I add the glview to my main view: appDelegate.glView.frame = CGRectMake(245, 65, 215, 215); [self.view addSubview:appDelegate.glView]; [appDelegate.glView startAnimation]; Here's my render function: - (void) render { [EAGLContext setCurrentContext:context]; glBindFramebufferOES(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_OES, defaultFramebuffer); glViewport(0, 0, backingWidth, backingHeight); glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT | GL_DEPTH_BUFFER_BIT); glBindRenderbufferOES(GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES, colorRenderbuffer); [context presentRenderbuffer:GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES]; } It seems pretty obvious to me that the problem lies with the depth buffer somehow, but I'm not sure why. Also, it works fine in the simulator, but not on my iphone. I'm using iPhone OS 3.1. Any ideas on where to look for a problem?

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• What is the fastest way to filter a list of strings when making an Intellisense/Autocomplete list?

  - by user559548

  Hello everyone, I'm writing an Intellisense/Autocomplete like the one you find in Visual Studio. It's all fine up until when the list contains probably 2000+ items. I'm using a simple LINQ statement for doing the filtering: var filterCollection = from s in listCollection where s.FilterValue.IndexOf(currentWord, StringComparison.OrdinalIgnoreCase) >= 0 orderby s.FilterValue select s; I then assign this collection to a WPF Listbox's ItemSource, and that's the end of it, works fine. Noting that, the Listbox is also virtualised as well, so there will only be at most 7-8 visual elements in memory and in the visual tree. However the caveat right now is that, when the user types extremely fast in the richtextbox, and on every key up I execute the filtering + binding, there's this semi-race condition, or out of sync filtering, like the first key stroke's filtering could still be doing it's filtering or binding work, while the fourth key stroke is also doing the same. I know I could put in a delay before applying the filter, but I'm trying to achieve a seamless filtering much like the one in Visual Studio. I'm not sure where my problem exactly lies, so I'm also attributing it to IndexOf's string operation, or perhaps my list of string's could be optimised in some kind of index, that could speed up searching. Any suggestions of code samples are much welcomed. Thanks.

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• Where does java.util.logging.Logger store their log

  - by Harry Pham

  This might be a stupid question but I am a bit lost with java Logger private static Logger logger = Logger.getLogger("order.web.OrderManager"); logger.info("Removed order " + id + "."); Where do I see the log? Also this quote from java.util.logging.Logger library: On each logging call the Logger initially performs a cheap check of the request level (e.g. SEVERE or FINE) against the effective log level of the logger. If the request level is lower than the log level, the logging call returns immediately. After passing this initial (cheap) test, the Logger will allocate a LogRecord to describe the logging message. It will then call a Filter (if present) to do a more detailed check on whether the record should be published. If that passes it will then publish the LogRecord to its output Handlers. Does this mean that if I have 3 request level log: logger.log(Level.FINE, "Something"); logger.log(Level.WARNING, "Something"); logger.log(Level.SEVERE, "Something"); And my log level is SEVERE, I can see all three logs, if my log level is WARNING, then I cant see SEVERE log, is that correct? And how do I set the log level?

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• Error occurs while validating form input using jQuery in Firebug

  - by Param-Ganak

  I have written a custom validation code in jQuery, which is working fine. I have a login form which has two fields, i.e. userid and password. I have written a custom code for client side validation for these fields. This code is working fine and gives me proper error messages as per the situation. But the problem with this code is that when I enter the invalid data in any or both field and press submit button of form then it displays the proper error message but at the same time when I checked it in Firebug it displays following error message when submit button of the form is clicked validate is not defined function onclick(event) { javascript: return validate(); } (click clientX=473, clientY=273) Here is the JQUERY validation code $(document).ready(function (){ $("#id_login_form").validate({ rules: { userid: { required: true, minlength: 6, maxlength: 20, // basic: true }, password: { required: true, minlength: 6, maxlength: 15, // basic: true } }, messages: { userid: { required: " Please enter the username.", minlength: "User Name should be minimum 6 characters long.", maxlength: "User Name should be maximum 15 characters long.", // basic: "working here" }, password: { required: " Please enter the password.", minlength: "Password should be minimum 6 characters long.", maxlength: "Password should be maximum 15 characters long.", // basic: "working here too.", } }, errorClass: "errortext", errorLabelContainer: "#messagebox" } }); }); /* $.validator.addMethod('username_alphanum', function (value) { return /^(?![0-9]+$)[a-zA-Z 0-9_.]+$/.test(value); }, 'User name should be alphabetic or Alphanumeric and may contain . and _.'); $.validator.addMethod('alphanum', function (value) { return /^(?![a-zA-Z]+$)(?![0-9]+$)[a-zA-Z 0-9]+$/.test(value); }, 'Password should be Alphanumeric.'); $.validator.addMethod('basic', function (value) { return /^[a-zA-Z 0-9_.]+$/.test(value); }, 'working working working'); */ So please tell me where is I am wrong in my jQuery code. Thank You!

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• Have Microsoft changed how ASP.NET MVC deals with duplicate action method names?

  - by Jason Evans

  I might be missing something here, but in ASP.NET MVC 4, I can't get the following to work. Given the following controller: public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(string order1, string order2) { return null; } } and it's view: @{ ViewBag.Title = "Home"; } @using (Html.BeginForm()) { @Html.TextBox("order1")<br /> @Html.TextBox("order2") <input type="submit" value="Save"/> } When start the app, all I get is this: The current request for action 'Index' on controller type 'HomeController' is ambiguous between the following action methods: System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index() on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index(System.String, System.String) on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController Now, in ASP.NET MVC 3 the above works fine, I just tried it, so what's changed in ASP.NET MVC 4 to break this? OK there could be a chance that I'm doing something silly here, and not noticing it. EDIT: I notice that in the MVC 4 app, the Global.asax.cs file did not contain this: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); } which the MVC 3 app does, by default. So I added the above to the MVC 4 app but it fails with the same error. Note that the MVC 3 app does work fine with the above route. I'm passing the "order" data via the Request.Form. EDIT: In the file RouteConfig.cs I can see RegisterRoutes is executed, with the following default route: routes.MapRoute( name: "Default", url: "{controller}/{action}/{id}", defaults: new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); I still get the original error, regards ambiguity between which Index() method to call.

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• edmx - The operation could not be completed - When adding Inheritance

  - by vdh_ant

  Hey guys I have an edmx model which I have draged 2 tables onto - One called 'File' and the other 'ApplicaitonFile'. These two tables have a 1 to 1 relationship in the database. If I stop here everything works fine. But in my model, I want 'ApplicaitonFile' to inherit from 'File'. So I delete the 1 to 1 relationship then configure 'ApplicaitonFile' from 'File' and then remove the FileId from 'ApplicaitonFile' which was the primary key. (Note I am following the instructions from here). If I leave the model open at this point everything is fine, but as soon as I close it, if I try and reopen it again I get the following error "The operation could not be completed". I have been searching for a solution and found this - http://stackoverflow.com/questions/944050/entity-model-does-not-load but as far as I can tell I don't have a duplicate InheritanceConnectors (although I don't know exactly what I'm looking for but I can't see anything out of the ordinary - like 2 connectors with the same name) and the relationship I originally have is a 1 to 1 not a 1 to 0..1 Any ideas??? this is driving me crazy...

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• Database.ExecuteNonQuery does not return

  - by dan-waterbly

  I have a very odd issue. When I execute a specific database stored procedure from C# using SqlCommand.ExecuteNonQuery, my stored procedure is never executed. Furthermore, SQL Profiler does not register the command at all. I do not receive a command timeout, and no exeception is thrown. The weirdest thing is that this code has worked fine over 1,200,000 times, but for this one particular file I am inserting into the database, it just hangs forever. When I kill the application, I receive this error in the event log of the database server: "A fatal error occurued while reading the input stream from the network. The session will be terminated (input error: 64, output error: 0). Which makes me think that the database server is receiving the command, though SQL Profiler says otherwise. I know that the appropiate permissions are set, and that the connection string is right as this piece of code and stored procedure works fine with other files. Below is the code that calls the stored procedure, it may be important to note that the file I am trying to insert is 33.5MB, but I have added more than 10,000 files larger than 500MB, so I do not think the size is the issue: using (SqlConnection sqlconn = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["TheDatabase"].ConnectionString)) using (SqlCommand command = sqlconn.CreateCommand()) { command.CommandText = "Add_File"; command.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; command.CommandTimeout = 30 //should timeout in 30 seconds, but doesn't... command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@ID", ID).SqlDbType = SqlDbType.BigInt; command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@BinaryData", byteArr).SqlDbType = SqlDbType.VarBinary; command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@FileName", fileName).SqlDbType = SqlDbType.VarChar; sqlconn.Open(); command.ExecuteNonQuery(); } There is no firewall between the server making the call and the database server, and the windows firewalls have been disabled to troubleshoot this issue.

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• Problems with string parameter insertion into prepared statement

  - by c0d3x

  Hi, I have a database running on an MS SQL Server. My application communicates via JDBC and ODBC with it. Now I try to use prepared statements. When I insert a numeric (Long) parameter everything works fine. When I insert a string parameter it does not work. There is no error message, but an empty result set. WHERE column LIKE ('%' + ? + '%') --inserted "test" -> empty result set WHERE column LIKE ? --inserted "%test%" -> empty result set WHERE column = ? --inserted "test" -> works But I need the LIKE functionality. When I insert the same string directly into the query string (not as a prepared statement parameter) it runs fine. WHERE column LIKE '%test%' It looks a little bit like double quoting for me, but I never used quotes inside a string. I use preparedStatement.setString(int index, String x) for insertion. What is causing this problem? How can I fix it? Thanks in advance.

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• [IceFaces] Why are validators of unchanged components called?

  - by bitschnau

  I have a IceFaces-form and several input fields. Let's say I have this: <ice:selectOneMenu id="accountMenu" value="#{accountController.account.aId}" validator="#{accountController.validateAccount}"> <f:selectItems id="accountItems" value="#{accountController.accountItems}" /> </ice:selectOneMenu> and this: <ice:selectOneMenu id="costumerMenu" value="#{customerController.customer.cId}" validator="#{customerController.validateCustomer"> <f:selectItems id="customerItems" value="#{customerController.customerItems}" /> </ice:selectOneMenu> If I change one value, the respective validator is called, what is fine. But also the other validator is called, which is not fine, because the user get's an irritating message to insert a value to a field he maybe was just going to pay attention to. It's like poking the user with a stick to "Hurry up now!". BAD! I thought the attribute "partialSubmit" is controlling this behaviour, so only the one DOM-part is submitted, which is affected by the user interaction, but if I declare the both components to be partially submitted, nothing changes. Still both validators are called if one component value is changed. How can I prevent the whole form from being validated until it is submitted completely?

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• Problem with impersonating a specific user in WCF service

  - by aJ

  I am having a WCF service hosted in IIS on WindowsServer 2008. This service needs to write to a shared folder present on another machine(Windows XP). The shared folder has write permissions for a particular user say "X" which is present on both the machines .i.e on the server where the service is running as well as the machine where the shared folder is present. The service runs under the NETWORK SERVICE account. For the service to access the shared folder I have added code to impersonate the user "X"in the service so that it gets the permission to write to the shared folder. Since I want to impersonate user "X" only when I run a particular section of code I have used the sample code. Even after the impersonation the service fails to write to the shared folder sometimes. It works sporadically. Whereas if I add tag in the Web.config file it works perfectly fine. <identity impersonate="true" userName="accountname" password="password" /> But the above is not desirable since it impersonates a specific user for all the requests. What I need is to impersonate a specific user only when I run a particular section of code. Also, the impersonation code works absolutely fine when the shared folder is present on another WindowsServer 2008. Could anyone give me ideas on what's going wrong here.

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• vs2008, opencv2.1,compile error in cxcore.hpp

  - by Long Gu

  Hi, gurus: I installed opencv2.1, made a new project (proj_A) using vs2008, used it for my computer vision tasks, it works fine. I copied an old project (proj_B, also made using vs2008) from other PC, compile it with ".h" and ".lib" files copied from opencv1.0 (which I did not install onto my PC), it compiles fine. I re-directed ".h" and ".lib" files in proj_B to opencv2.1 folders instead, compiled the proj_B, and then I got these errors from cxcore.hpp: class CV_EXPORTS RNG { public: enum { A=4164903690U, UNIFORM=0, NORMAL=1 }; // errors here, line 936 errors are: 5c:\opencv2.1\include\opencv\cxcore.hpp(936) : error C2143: syntax error : missing '}' before 'constant' 5c:\opencv2.1\include\opencv\cxcore.hpp(936) : error C2059: syntax error : 'constant' 5c:\opencv2.1\include\opencv\cxcore.hpp(936) : error C2143: syntax error : missing ';' before '}' 5c:\opencv2.1\include\opencv\cxcore.hpp(936) : error C2238: unexpected token(s) preceding ';' (400+ similar errors, but I believe the answer should be the same, so only list 1 set here) I compared setting for proj_A and proj_B, made them identical, and find no improvement. proj_A works well, proj_B refuse to compile. May I know what's wrong? Urgent, need to get it solved ASAP! Thanks a lot!

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