Search Results

Search found 4913 results on 197 pages for 'ps cjef'.

Page 170/197 | < Previous Page | 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177  | Next Page >

  • Load Empty Database table

    - by john White
    I am using SQLexpress and VS2008. I have a DB with a table named "A", which has an IdentitySpecification column named ID. The ID is auto-incremented. Even if the row is deleted, the ID still increases. After several data manipulation, the current ID has reached 15, for example. When I run the application if there's at least 1 row: if I add a new row, the new ID is 16. Everything is fine. If the table is empty (no row): if I add a new row, the new ID is 0, which is an error (I think). And further data manipulation (eg. delete or update) will result in an unhandled exception. Has anyone encountered this? PS. In my table definition, the ID has been selected as follow: Identity Increment = 1; Identity Seed =1; The DB load code is: dataSet = gcnew DataSet(); dataAdapter->Fill(dataSet,"A"); dataTable=dataSet->Tables["A"]; dbConnection->Open(); The Update button method dataAdapter->Update(dataSet,"tblInFlow"); dataSet->AcceptChanges(); dataTable=dataSet->Tables["tblInFlow"]; dataGrid->DataSource=dataTable; If I press Update: if there's at least a row: the datagrid view updates and shows the table correctly. if there's nothing in the table (no data row), the Add method will add a new row, but from ID 0. If I close the program and restart it again: the ID would be 16, which is correct. This is the add method row=dataTable->NewRow(); row["column1"]="something"; dataTable->Rows->Add(row); dataAdapter->Update(dataSet,"A"); dataSet->AcceptChanges(); dataTable=dataSet->Tables["A"];

    Read the article

  • Ftp throws WebException only in .NET 4.0

    - by Trakhan
    I have following c# code. It runs just fine when compiled against .NET framework 3.5 or 2.0 (I did not test it against 3.0, but it will most likely work too). The problem is, that it fails when built against .NET framework 4.0. FtpWebRequest Ftp = (FtpWebRequest)FtpWebRequest.Create(Url_ + '/' + e.Name); Ftp.Method = WebRequestMethods.Ftp.UploadFile; Ftp.Credentials = new NetworkCredential(Login_, Password_); Ftp.UseBinary = true; Ftp.KeepAlive = false; Ftp.UsePassive = true; Stream S = Ftp.GetRequestStream(); byte[] Content = null; bool Continue = false; do { try { Continue = false; Content = File.ReadAllBytes(e.FullPath); } catch (Exception) { Continue = true; System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(500); } } while (Continue); S.Write(Content, 0, Content.Length); S.Close(); FtpWebResponse Resp = (FtpWebResponse)Ftp.GetResponse(); if (Resp.StatusCode != FtpStatusCode.CommandOK) Console.WriteLine(Resp.StatusDescription); The problem is in call Stream S = Ftp.GetRequestStream();, which throws an en instance of WebException with message “The remote server returned an error: (500) Syntax error, command unrecognized”. Does anybody know why it is so? PS. I communicate virtual ftp server in ECM Alfresco.

    Read the article

  • Pipelining String in Powershell

    - by ChvyVele
    I'm trying to make a simple PowerShell function to have a Linux-style ssh command. Such as: ssh username@url I'm using plink to do this, and this is the function I have written: function ssh { param($usernameAndServer) $myArray = $usernameAndServer.Split("@") $myArray[0] | C:\plink.exe -ssh $myArray[1] } If entered correctly by the user, $myArray[0] is the username and $myArray[1] is the URL. Thus, it connects to the URL and when you're prompted for a username, the username is streamed in using the pipeline. Everything works perfectly, except the pipeline keeps feeding the username ($myArray[0]) and it is entered as the password over and over. Example: PS C:\Users\Mike> ssh xxxxx@yyyyy login as: xxxxx@yyyyy's password: Access denied xxxxx@yyyyy's password: Access denied xxxxx@yyyyy's password: Access denied xxxxx@yyyyy's password: Access denied xxxxx@yyyy's password: Access denied xxxxx@yyyyy's password: FATAL ERROR: Server sent disconnect message type 2 (protocol error): "Too many authentication failures for xxxxx" Where the username has been substituted with xxxxx and the URL has been substituted with yyyyy. Basically, I need to find out how to stop the script from piping in the username ($myArray[0]) after it has been entered once. Any ideas? I've looked all over the internet for a solution and haven't found anything.

    Read the article

  • Noise with multi-threaded raytracer

    - by herber88
    This is my first multi-threaded implementation, so it's probably a beginners mistake. The threads handle the rendering of every second row of pixels (so all rendering is handled within each thread). The problem persists if the threads render the upper and lower parts of the screen respectively. Both threads read from the same variables, can this cause any problems? From what I've understood only writing can cause concurrency problems... Can calling the same functions cause any concurrency problems? And again, from what I've understood this shouldn't be a problem... The only time both threads write to the same variable is when saving the calculated pixel color. This is stored in an array, but they never write to the same indices in that array. Can this cause a problem? Multi-threaded rendered image (Spam prevention stops me from posting images directly..) Ps. I use the exactly same implementation in both cases, the ONLY difference is a single vs. two threads created for the rendering.

    Read the article

  • Generating different randoms valid for a day on different independent devices?

    - by Pentium10
    Let me describe the system. There are several mobile devices, each independent from each other, and they are generating content for the same record id. I want to avoid generating the same content for the same record on different devices, for this I though I would use a random and make it so too cluster the content pool based on these randoms. Suppose you have choices from 1 to 100. Day 1 Device#1 will choose for the record#33 between 1-10 Device#2 will choose for the record#33 between 40-50 Device#3 will choose for the record#33 between 50-60 Device#1 will choose for the record#55 between 40-50 Device#2 will choose for the record#55 between 1-10 Device#3 will choose for the record#55 between 10-20 Device#1 will choose for the record#11 between 1-10 Device#2 will choose for the record#22 between 1-10 Device#3 will choose for the record#99 between 1-10 Day 2 Device#1 will choose for the record#33 between 90-100 Device#2 will choose for the record#33 between 1-10 Device#3 will choose for the record#33 between 50-60 They don't have access to a central server. Data available for each of them: IMEI (unique per mobile) Date of today (same on all devices) Record id (same on all devices) What do you think, how is it possible? ps. tags can be edited

    Read the article

  • Actionscript: How Can I Know When The Source Property Of An Image Is Completely Updated

    - by Joshua
    var I:Image=new Image(); I.source='C:\\Abc.png'; var H:int=I.height; H is always Zero! I am presuming this is because the image hasn't finished reading the png file off the disk yet. What event can I monitor to know when it's width and height will have the right values? The 'Complete' event only seems to work for DOWNLOADED images. The 'Render' event happens EVERY FRAME. The (undocumented?) 'sourceChanged', happens as soon as source changes, and has the same problem! What event do I watch that will let me know when the image's width and height properties will have valid values? Or is there some Synchronous version of I.source='xxx.png', that I don't know about? P.S. Yes, I know I shouldn't use "C:\" in an Air Program. This was just for illustrative purposes, so that you won't suggest I use "Complete", which never even seems to fire when the file indicated by source is local.

    Read the article

  • C As Principal Class For Mac App

    - by CodaFi
    So, I've got a c file raring to go and be the main class behind an all-C mac-app, however, a combination of limiting factors are preventing the application from being launched. As it currently stands, the project is just a main.m and a class called AppDelegate.c, so I entered "AppDelegate" as the name of the principal class in the info.plist, and to my complete surprise, the log printed: Unable to find class: AppDelegate, exiting This would work perfectly well in iOS, because the main function accepts the name of a delegate class, and handles it automatically, but NSApplicationMain() takes no such argument. Now, I know this stems from the fact that there are no @interface/@implementation directives in C, and that's really what the OS seems to be looking for, so I wrote a simple NSApplication subclass and provided it as the Principal Class to the plist, and it launched perfectly well. My question is, how could one go about setting a c file as the principal class in a mac application and have it launch correctly? PS, don't ask what or why I'm doing this for, the foundation must be dug. For @millimoose's amusement, here be the AppDelegate.c file: #include <objc/runtime.h> #include <objc/message.h> struct AppDel { Class isa; id window; }; // This is a strong reference to the class of the AppDelegate // (same as [AppDelegate class]) Class AppDelClass; BOOL AppDel_didFinishLaunching(struct AppDel *self, SEL _cmd, void *application, void *options) { self->window = objc_msgSend(objc_getClass("NSWindow"), sel_getUid("alloc")); self->window = objc_msgSend(self->window, sel_getUid("init")); objc_msgSend(self->window, sel_getUid("makeKeyAndOrderFront:"), self); return YES; }

    Read the article

  • A public struct inside a class

    - by Koning Baard
    I am new to C++, and let's say I have two classes: Creature and Human: /* creature.h */ class Creature { private: public: struct emotion { /* All emotions are percentages */ char joy; char trust; char fear; char surprise; char sadness; char disgust; char anger; char anticipation; char love; }; }; /* human.h */ class Human : Creature { }; And I have this in my main function in main.cpp: Human foo; My question is: how can I set foo's emotions? I tried this: foo->emotion.fear = 5; But GCC gives me this compile error: error: base operand of '-' has non-pointer type 'Human' This: foo.emotion.fear = 5; Gives: error: 'struct Creature::emotion' is inaccessible error: within this context error: invalid use of 'struct Creature::emotion' Can anyone help me? Thanks P.S. No I did not forget the #includes

    Read the article

  • using asp.net membership provider in a dll

    - by Keith Barrows
    I've used Membership Providers in web apps over the last several years. I now have a new "request" for an internal project at work. They would like a service (not a web service) to do a quick authenticate against. Basically, exposing the ValidateUser(UserName, Password) method... I am building this in a DLL that will sit with our internal web site. What is the best approach to make this work? The DLL will not reference the web app and the web app will reference the DLL. How do I make the DLL aware of the Membership Provider? TIA PS: If this has been answered elsewhere please direct me to that... EDIT: I found an article on using ASP.NET Membership with WinForms and/or WPF applications. Unfortunately, these depend on an app.config file. A DLL appears to not use the app.config once published. If I am wrong, please set me straight! The article is here: http://aspalliance.com/1595_Client_Application_Services__Part_1.all

    Read the article

  • How to implement a grapher in C#

    - by iansinke
    So I'm writing a graphing calculator. So far I have a semi-functional grapher, however, I'm having a hard time getting a good balance between accurate graphs and smooth looking curves. The current implementation (semi-pseudo-code) looks something like this: for (float i = GraphXMin; i <= GraphXMax; i++) { PointF P = new PointF(i, EvaluateFunction(Function, i) ListOfPoints.Add(P) } Graphics.DrawCurve(ListOfPoints) The problem with this is since it only adds a point at every integer value, graphs end up distorted when their turning points don't fall on integers (e.g. sin(x)^2). I tried incrementing i by something smaller (like 0.1), which works, but the graph looks very rough. I am using C# and GDI+. I have SmoothingMethod set to AntiAlias, so that's not the problem, as you can see from the first graph. Is there some sort of issue with drawing curves with a lot of points? Should the points perhaps be positioned exactly on pixels? I'm sure some of you have worked on something very similar before, so any suggestions? While you're at it, do you have any suggestions for graphing functions with asymptotes? e.g. 1/x^2 P.S. I'm not looking for a library that does all this - I want to write it myself.

    Read the article

  • is it possible to make one click fires two events or more by javascript?

    - by NewInAlbert
    I am currently making a temporary download page for website visitor. The page includes a form, after the visitor fills the form up, the site will take them to the pdf download page. In the download page, there are some pdf files download links (I am just using a tag.). However, i wanna make a onclick event to those links, once they have been clicked, the page will refresh automatically or redirect to other pages. <a href="/file.pdf" onClick="window.location.reload()">The File</a> I have tried the jquery way as well. <a href="/file.pdf" id="FileDownload">The File</a> <script> $("#FileDownload").click(function(){ location.reload(); }); </script> But all the them are not working. Do you masters have any good ideas about this, many thanks. P.S. What if I wanna add a countdown after a file is being started download, and then do page reload when countdown finishes. Looks like have asked several questions... Thanks a ton in advance.

    Read the article

  • App Crashing Inspite of Being ARC Enabled

    - by proctr
    I have been working on an iOS App for sometime now and its almost ready to submit. However, when I gave it to few people for testing purposes (running iOS 5)..they reported cases where the app crashes and the home screen is displayed on the phone OR a frozen app screen appears with no response whatsoever The app is ARC enabled and Xcode shows no warnings. So, I'm relli tensed about what's going wrong. I have declared properties in the following fashion: @property (nonatomic) IBOutlet UILabel *devCountLabel; @property (nonatomic) IBOutlet UIView *splashView; Likewise other properties are declared. Could anyone provide a solution ASAP. It is mainly a network based app and thus, CoreData usage is minimum.. Anyway, I'm running out of time..So Please provide a fix asap..oh and thanks a ton for it. PS: The App doesn't crash in the simulator, so I'm guessing it has something related to memory. And the crashes are random. So, repeating a set of steps to reproduce the crash doesn't help either. For Eg. When I click a button, modalViewControllerAnimation results in normal case. Now this occurs as expected most of the time and freezes the app other times.

    Read the article

  • Nice way to break a reply up into pieces in ruby

    - by ChaosR
    Hello, I'm writing an IRCd. For this topic it doesn't really matter if you know much about IRC. Its a simple code style problem. Quick overview of the problem: No message may be longer than 512 characters If the message is more, it must be broken into pieces The NAMES reply sends all the nicknames of users on a channel, and quickly grows beyond 512 characters. I currently concocted this marvelous piece of code, it works perfectly. However, its just not "ruby-like". This piece of code is more what you expect in some piece of C code. # 11 is the number of all fixed characters combined in the reply pre_length = 11 + servername.length + mynick.length + channel.name.length list = [""] i = 0 channel.nicks.each do |nick, client| list[i+=1] = "" if list[i].length + nick.length + pre_length > 500 list[i] << "#{channel.mode_char(client)}#{client.nick} " end list.each { |l| send_numeric(RPL_NAMREPLY, channel.name, l.strip) } send_numeric(RPL_ENDOFNAMES, channel.name) So my question is, any ideas to do this more nicely? PS. code has been slightly modified to make it easier to understand out-of-context

    Read the article

  • UpdatePanel reloads the whole page

    - by Emil D
    Hi.I'm building an asp.net cutom control inside which I have two dropdownlists: companyIdSelection and productFamilySelection.I populate the companyIdSelection at Page_Load and in order to populate the productFamilySelection depending on the selected item in companyIdSelection.I'm using UpdatePanels to achieve this, but for some reason every time I update companyIdSelection Page_Load is being called ( which as far as I know should happen only when the entire page is reloaded ), the list is being reloaded again and the item the user selected is lost( the selected item is always the top one ).Here's the code <asp:UpdatePanel ID="updateFamilies" runat="server" UpdateMode="Always"> <ContentTemplate> Company ID:<br> <br></br> <asp:DropDownList ID="companyIdSelection" runat="server" AutoPostBack="True" OnSelectedIndexChanged="companyIdSelection_SelectedIndexChanged"> </asp:DropDownList> <br></br> Product Family: <br></br> <asp:DropDownList ID="productFamilySelection" runat="server" AutoPostBack="True" onselectedindexchanged="productFamilySelection_SelectedIndexChanged"> </asp:DropDownList> <br> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { this.companyIdSelection.DataSource = companyIds(); //companyIds returns the object containing the initial data items this.companyIdSelection.DataBind(); } protected void companyIdSelection_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Page_Load is called again for some reason before this method is called, so it // resets the companyIdSelection EngDbService s = new EngDbService(); productFamilySelection.DataSource = s.getProductFamilies(companyIdSelection.Text); productFamilySelection.DataBind(); } Also, I tried setting the UpdateMode of the UpdatePanel to "Conditional" and adding an asyncpostback trigger but the result was the same. What am I doing wrong? PS: I fixed the updating problem, by using Page.IsPostBack in the Page_Load method, but I would still want to avoid a full postback if possible

    Read the article

  • plot 4 different plots inside 1 pdf

    - by ifreak
    I have 2 data frames which i want to generate 3 plots from them and place them inside 1 pdf file as a single column. i want all the plots to have the same x-axis limits(basically the same x-axis) even thought they differ in the name and how they were obtained. the dataframes looks something like that: d1 X Y Z 0.04939317 -0.4622222 13651 0.03202451 -0.4261000 13401 0.09950793 -0.3233025 13151 0.11548556 -0.4637981 12486 0.09817597 -0.4751886 12236 0.15770701 -0.5819355 11986 and d2 V0 V1 V2 V3 sign 1 1 0.379 0.612 pos 2 1 0.378 0.620 pos 3 1 0.578 0.571 neg 4 1 0.978 0.561 pos 5 1 0.758 0.261 neg 6 1 0.378 0.126 neg P.S : both data frames are bigger than this, this is only a part of them V0, V1 and Z range from 1 to 20000 the plots that i created are : From d2 d2plot=ggplot(d1, aes(V0,V1, fill=sign)) + geom_tile()+ scale_fill_manual(values = c("neg" = "yellow", "pos"="red")) +geom_vline(xintercept =10000 ) +geom_text(mapping=aes(x=10000,y=0, label="Stop"), size=4, angle=90, vjust=-0.4, hjust=0) From d1 d1plot = ggplot(d2) + geom_errorbarh(aes(x=z,xmin=z-50,xmax=z+50, y=Y, height = 0.02),color="red")+ opts(legend.position = "none") +geom_vline(xintercept = 10000) +geom_text(mapping=aes(x=10000,y=-0.3, label="Stop"), size=4, angle=90, vjust=-0.4, hjust=0) i've tried grid.arrange(d1plot,d2plot,ncol=1) but the x-axis is different for each plot, i tried changing the aspect ratio, but this will change the y-axis ..i've also tried to use facet_wrap but the problem that my x-axis values have different values, i just want the limits and breaks to be the same and the plots all be aligned in 1 column based on 1 x-axis to comapre the value of the statistical methods in an easy way.

    Read the article

  • Indexing table with duplicates MySQL/MSSQL with millions of records

    - by Tesnep
    I need help in indexing in MySQL. I have a table in MySQL with following rows: ID Store_ID Feature_ID Order_ID Viewed_Date Deal_ID IsTrial The ID is auto generated. Store_ID goes from 1 - 8. Feature_ID from 1 - let's say 100. Viewed Date is Date and time on which the data is inserted. IsTrial is either 0 or 1. You can ignore Order_ID and Deal_ID from this discussion. There are millions of data in the table and we have a reporting backend that needs to view the number of views in a certain period or overall where trial is 0 for a particular store id and for a particular feature. The query takes the form of: select count(viewed_date) from theTable where viewed_date between '2009-12-01' and '2010-12-31' and store_id = '2' and feature_id = '12' and Istrial = 0 In MSSQL you can have a filtered index to use for Istrial. Is there anything similar to this in MySQL? Also, Store_ID and Feature_ID have a lot of duplicate data. I created an index using Store_ID and Feature_ID. Although this seems to have decreased the search period, I need better improvement than this. Right now I have more than 4 million rows. To search for a particular query like the one above, it looks at 3.5 million rows in order to give me the count of 500k rows. PS. I forgot to add view_date filter in the query. Now I have done this.

    Read the article

  • Using AJAX in Rails: How do I change a button as soon as it's clicked?

    - by sdc
    Hey! I'm teaching myself Ruby, and have been stuck on this for a couple days: I'm currently using MooTools-1.3-compat and Rails 3. I'd like to replace one button (called "Follow") with another (called "Unfollow") as soon as someone clicks on it. I'm using :remote = true and have a file ending in .js.erb that's being called...I just need help figuring out what goes in this .js file The "Follow" button is in a div with id="follow_form", but there are many buttons on the page, and they all have an id = "follow_form"...i.e. $("follow_form").set(...) replaces the first element and that's not correct. I need help replacing the button that made the call. I looked at this tutorial, but the line below doesn't work for me. Could it be because I'm using MooTools instead of Prototype? $("follow_form").update("<%= escape_javascript(render('users/unfollow')) %") ps. This is what I have so far, and this works: in app/views/shared: <%= form_for current_user.subscriptions.build(:event => @event), :remote => true do |f| %> <div><%= f.hidden_field :event %></div> <div class="actions"><%= f.submit "Follow" %></div> <% end %> in app/views/events/create.js.erb alert("follow!"); //Temporary...this is what I'm trying to replace *in app/controllers/subscriptions_controller.rb* def create @subscription = current_user.subscriptions.build(params[:subscription]) @subscription.save respond_to do |format| format.html { redirect_to(..) } format.js {render :layout} end Any help would be greatly, greatly appreciated!

    Read the article

  • paypal_adaptive gem in Rails: Dynamic Receiver "Population" (Chained Payments)

    - by Jmlevick
    Note: I didn't find a better title for this O.o Hello, Humm... Look, what I want to do is to have a Rails app where a visitor can click a button/link to make a "special" chained payment using Paypal; Currently I have a Users registration form that has one field for the user to enter his/her paypal account email, and as I saw here: http://marker.to/XGg9MR it is possible to specify the primary reciever and the secondary ones by adding such info in a controller action when using the paypal_adaptive gem in a rails app. The thing is, I don't want to hard code the secondary reciever as I need to specify a different secondary reciever from time to time, (being specific my primary reciever will always be the same, but depending on what button/link the visitor clicks, the secondary one is going to change) and I want that secondary reciever email to be the paypal e-mail account from one of the registered users when the visitor clicks on their specific button/link... My question is: Is it possible to create such enviroment functionality in my app using the current implementation of the paypal_adaptive gem? Could someone point me in the right direction on how to accomplish such thing? I'm still learning rails and also I'm really new in the paypal handling universe with this framework! XD P.S. Thanks! :)

    Read the article

  • WPF Binding Path=/ not working?

    - by Mark
    I've set up my DataContext like this: <Window.DataContext> <c:DownloadManager /> </Window.DataContext> Where DownloadManager is Enumerable<DownloadItem>. Then I set my DataGrid like this: <DataGrid Name="dataGrid1" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=/}" ... So that it should list all the DownloadItems, right? So I should be able to set my columns like: <DataGridTextColumn Binding="{Binding Path=Uri, Mode=OneWay}" Where Uri is a property of the DownloadItem. But it doesn't seem to like this. In the visual property editor, it doesn't recognize Uri is a valid property, so I'm guessing I'm doing something wrong. It was working before, when I had the data grid binding to Values, but then I took that enumerable out of the DownloadManager and made itself enumerable. How do I fix this? PS: By "doesn't work" I mean it doesn't list any items. I've added some to the constructor of the DM, so it shouldn't be empty.

    Read the article

  • When is it possible to override top-level bindings in (R7RS) scheme?

    - by Marc
    I have read the current draft of the forthcoming R7RS scheme standard (small language), but I don't understand under which conditions it is not an error to redefine top-level bindings. I guess that it is possible to define or set! a binding that has been introduced at the top-level of a program a second time. But what about imported bindings from an external library? Is it possible to override these bindings by the standard? On page 26/27 of the report, it says: The top level of a program may also include import declarations. In a library declaration, it is an error to import the same identifier more than once with different bindings, or to redefine or mutate an imported binding with define, define-syntax or set!. However, a REPL should permit these actions. Does it mean that redefining is only an error when it does happen in libraries for imported bindings? I understand that it prohibits optimisations by compilers if the compiler does not know whether, say + still means the built-in addition or is any other user-specified error. But from this perspective, it does not make sense to restrict forbidding to rebind on the library level, when it would also make sense (at least) for imported bindings in programs. P.S.: As this is all about the environment of a scheme program: am I right in saying that environments are not first class citizens because one cannot get hold of the current environment? (Which, in turn, allows a compiled program to forget about the chosen names of the bindings.)

    Read the article

  • FTP exception 501 "pathname" more than 8 characters

    - by BigMac66
    I am trying to access a file via a URI using the FTP protocol. For obvious security reasons I had to make some changes but this is where the problems seem to be coming from. My URI is as follows: ftp://user:[email protected]/u/Bigpathname/XYZ/ABC/BigPathname/bigpathname/xyz/abc/MY_LOG.LOG And I see this exception: sun.net.ftp.FtpProtocolException: CWD Bigpathname:501 A qualifier in "Bigpathname" is more than 8 characters This is really confusing as I can access the file from a Windows 7 command line with the CD command just fine. Both one directory at a time and as a full path. I found one article mentioning that MVS file names must be 8 or fewer characters but this does not explain how I can get to these same files from my command line! They do exist there is data there that I can download manual but I can not get there via a URI in Java. PS I use .toURL().openStream() to get files on my local machine just fine, it only fails when I try to get them from my server. EDIT October 1st I am able to access files on the MVS host using FileZilla and the basic FTP client from the Windows 7 command line - but I still cannot get them from a URI/URL. I downloaded a very basic Java built FTP client and tried accessing the same file in my program from there and the path works but because my file name has a dot in it "MY_LOG.LOG" I am getting File does not exist 501 Invalid data set name "MY_LOG.LOG". Use MVS Dsname conventions. I am utterly perplexed by this...

    Read the article

  • Web Crawler C# .Net

    - by sora0419
    I'm not sure if this is actually called the web crawler, but this is what I'm trying to do. I'm building a program in visual studio 2010 using C# .Net. I want to find all the urls that has the same first part. Say I have a homepage: www.mywebsite.com, and there are several subpage: /tab1, /tab2, /tab3, etc. Is there a way to get a list of all urls that begins with www.mywebsite.com? So by providing www.mywebsite.com, the program returns www.mywebsite.com/tab1, www.mywebsite.com/tab2, www.mywebsite.com/tab3, etc. ps. I do not know how many total sub pages there are. --edit at 12:04pm-- sorry for the lack of explanation. I want to know how to write a crawler in C# that do the above task. All I know is the main url www.mywebsite.com, and the goal is to find all its sub pages. -- edit at 12:16pm-- Also, there is no links on the main page, the html is basically blank. I just know that the subpages exist, but have no way to link to it except for providing the exact urls.

    Read the article

  • NDK app onDestroy cleanup - how to DetachCurrentThread

    - by Aristarhys
    So if we attach we must detach thread after after it finish, right? JNIEnv* get_jni_env() { JNIEnv* res; JAVA_VM->GetEnv((void**) &res, JNI_VERSION_1_6);//Using cached JavaVM JAVA_VM->AttachCurrentThread(&res, NULL); return res; } I call next native method from @Override protected void onDestroy() of my Activity class void free_jni_manager() { JNIEnv* env = get_jni_env(); ... //Here i delete global refs (jclass) //JAVA_VM->DetachCurrentThread(); } ERROR: detaching thread with interp frames (count=16) - main thread still running and we try to detach it. Even if we take any function that use JNIEnv (for example calling java methods), putting DetachCurrentThread will cause same error. DetachCurrentThread works flawlessly if used in pthread function static void* thread_func(void* arg) { get_jni_env(); // attach new thread //Do thread stuff JAVA_VM->DetachCurrentThread();//thread done detached it with ok return NULL; } Do we need detach main thread then we done with JNI, there do it? Or then activity will be destroyed, it will freed itself with JavaVM? Do we need do call DestroyJavaVM() (just doing crash if use onDestroy), how free cached JavaVM or garbage cleaner will handle this? P.S. What benefits of using AttachCurrentThreadAsDaemon()

    Read the article

  • Angular throws "Error: Invalid argument." in IE

    - by przno
    I have a directive which takes element's text and places wbr elements after every 10th character. I'm using it for example on table cells with long text (e.g. URLs), so it does not span over the table. Code of the directive: myApp.directive('myWbr', function ($interpolate) { return { restrict: 'A', link: function (scope, element, attrs) { // get the interpolated text of HTML element var expression = $interpolate(element.text()); // get new text, which has <wbr> element on every 10th position var addWbr = function (inputText) { var newText = ''; for (var i = 0; i < inputText.length; i++) { if ((i !== 0) && (i % 10 === 0)) newText += '<wbr>'; // no end tag newText += inputText[i]; } return newText; }; scope.$watch(function (scope) { // replace element's content with the new one, which contains <wbr>s element.html(addWbr(expression(scope))); }); } }; }); Works fine except in IE (I have tried IE8 and IE9), where it throws an error to the console: Error: Invalid argument. Here is jsFiddle, when clicking on the button you can see the error in console. So obvious question: why is the error there, what is the source of it, and why only in IE? (Bonus question: how can I make IE dev tools to tell me more about error, like the line from source code, because it took me some time to locate it, Error: Invalid argument. does not tell much about the origin.) P.S.: I know IE does not know the wbr at all, but that is not the issue. Edit: in my real application I have re-written the directive to not to look on element's text and modify that, but rather pass the input text via attribute, and works fine now in all browsers. But I'm still curious why the original solution was giving that error in IE, thus starting the bounty.

    Read the article

  • Information about PTE's (Page Table Entries) in Windows

    - by Patrick
    In order to find more easily buffer overflows I am changing our custom memory allocator so that it allocates a full 4KB page instead of only the wanted number of bytes. Then I change the page protection and size so that if the caller writes before or after its allocated piece of memory, the application immediately crashes. Problem is that although I have enough memory, the application never starts up completely because it runs out of memory. This has two causes: since every allocation needs 4 KB, we probably reach the 2 GB limit very soon. This problem could be solved if I would make a 64-bit executable (didn't try it yet). even when I only need a few hundreds of megabytes, the allocations fail at a certain moment. The second problem is the biggest one, and I think it's related to the maximum number of PTE's (page table entries, which store information on how Virtual Memory is mapped to physical memory, and whether pages should be read-only or not) you can have in a process. My questions (or a cry-for-tips): Where can I find information about the maximum number of PTE's in a process? Is this different (higher) for 64-bit systems/applications or not? Can the number of PTE's be configured in the application or in Windows? Thanks, Patrick PS. note for those who will try to argument that you shouldn't write your own memory manager: My application is rather specific so I really want full control over memory management (can't give any more details) Last week we had a memory overwrite which we couldn't find using the standard C++ allocator and the debugging functionality of the C/C++ run time (it only said "block corrupt" minutes after the actual corruption") We also tried standard Windows utilities (like GFLAGS, ...) but they slowed down the application by a factor of 100, and couldn't find the exact position of the overwrite either We also tried the "Full Page Heap" functionality of Application Verifier, but then the application doesn't start up either (probably also running out of PTE's)

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177  | Next Page >