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• Trigger ad-hoc activity within a workflow

  - by Chris Taylor

  I am looking to use WF 4 to replace an existing workflow solution we have. One feature that is currently used in the existing workflow engine is the ability to cancel a current activity and loopback to a FlowSwitch type activity. So given the following crude workflow where we start at 'O' and base in the input data the workflow follows the path to 'A2' which is currently blocking on s bookmark waiting for input. ---------A1--\ | \ /\ \ O------- ---->--(A2)-------| ^ \/ / | | | / | | ---------A3--/ | | | |----------------------| However in the meantime some out of band data comes in that means we should cancel 'A2' and return to the FlowSwitch to re-evaluate based on the new data. The question is what is the best way to handle the out of band data that arrived? My initial guess is to have a Parallel activity with one branch waiting for out of band data and the other branch containing the workflow sequence described above. If data came in on the brach waiting for the out of band data, how would I cancel the current activity in the workflow and force it to return to the FlowSwitch. Or of course is there a better way to handle this. I have not actually done any work with the WF4 stuff for WF3 for that matter so I might be missing something obvious here.

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• C/C++: feedback in analyzing a code example

  - by KaiserJohaan

  Hello, I have a piece of code from an assignment I am uncertain about. I feel confident that I know the answer, but I just want to double-check with the community incase there's something I forgot. The title is basically secure coding and the question is just to explain the results. int main() { unsigned int i = 1; unsigned int c = 1; while (i > 0) { i = i*2; c++; } printf("%d\n", c); return 0; } My reasoning is this: At first glance you could imagine the code would run forever, considering it's initialized to a positive value and ever increasing. This of course is wrong because eventually the value will grow so large it will cause an integer overflow. This in turn is not entirely true either, because eventally it will force the variable 'i' to be signed by making the last bit to 1 and therefore regarded as a negative number, therefore terminating the loop. So it is not writing to unallocated memory and therefore cause integer overflow, but rather violating the data type and therefore causing the loop to terminate. I am quite sure this is the reason, but I just want to double check. Any opinions?

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• C# : Forcing a clean run in a long running SQL reader loop?

  - by Wardy

  I have a SQL data reader that reads 2 columns from a sql db table. once it has done its bit it then starts again selecting another 2 columns. I would pull the whole lot in one go but that presents a whole other set of challenges. My problem is that the table contains a large amount of data (some 3 million rows or so) which makes working with the entire set a bit of a problem. I'm trying to validate the field values so i'm pulling the ID column then one of the other cols and running each value in the column through a validation pipeline where the results are stored in another database. My problem is that when the reader hits the end of handlin one column I need to force it to immediately clean up every little block of ram used as this process uses about 700MB and it has about 200 columns to go through. Without a full Garbage Collect I will definately run out of ram. Anyone got any ideas how I can do this? I'm using lots of small reusable objects, my thought was that I could just call GC.Collect() on the end of each read cycle and that would flush everything out, unfortunately that isn't happening for some reason.

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• WinForms - DateTimePicker default month selection behavior for Server 2003 vs Server 2008?

  - by Mike Loux

  Good Afternoon! Has anybody else noticed a change in the default behavior of the "next" and "previous" month arrows in the standard WinForms DateTimePicker control? I have users running on both Windows Server 2003 and Windows Server 2008 R2, and they are reporting that on 2008 (and Vista/Win7), clicking the right or left arrows on the drop-down Calendar now selects the first day of the month rather than retaining the same day like 2003 (and XP) does. I have checked this out (I have a Win7 machine) and I have confirmed this behavior. I would prefer that the behavior remain consistent whenever possible. Does anybody know what causes this and if there is a way to get around this? Is there a way to trap the arrow-click event and force the resulting date to retain the original day rather than be reset to the first of the month? I thought about seeing if there was a way to hit-test the control on a MouseUp event and determine if the arrow buttons were clicked, and then override the month value being set, but I'm not sure if that is even possible. Can anybody provide some wisdom or insight? Thanks!

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• How to create TestContext for Spring Test?

  - by HDave

  Newcomer to Spring here, so pardon me if this is a stupid question. I have a relatively small Java library that implements a few dozen beans (no database or GUI). I have created a Spring Bean configuration file that other Java projects use to inject my beans into their stuff. I am now for the first time trying to use Spring Test to inject some of these beans into my junit test classes (rather than simply instantiating them). I am doing this partly to learn Spring Test and partly to force the tests to use the same bean configuration file I provide for others. In the Spring documentation is says I need to create an application context using the "TestContext" class that comes with Spring. I believe this should be done in a spring XML file that I reference via the @ContextConfiguration annotation on my test class. @ContextConfiguration({"/test-applicationContext.xml"}) However, there is no hint as to what to put in the file! When I go to run my tests from within Eclipse it errors out saying "failed to load Application Context"....of course.

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• can javascript process binary data?

  - by Johnny

  admit me describe my questions in situation-oriented way: assume IE is still the dominate web browser(the firefox have document for binary processing): the XMLHttpRequest.responseText or XMLHttpRequest.responseXML in ie desire txt or xml/xhtml/html,but what about the server response the xmlHttprequest whith MIME TYPE application/octet ? would the response string all little than 256 ?(every char of that string < 256), thanks very much for a straight answer, i have no webserver env,so i don't know how to test it out. because use txt or xml have a issue of character set encode, and i don't know how to process #[[[CDDATA node of one encoded xml(ex : utf-8,ascii,gb18030) with javascript, when i getNodeText, does the docObj return me byte or decoded char ? if it was decoded char which according to the header indicated charSet in the httpresponse , it would be all wrong. to avoid mess up with charSet ,i would like the server to response octet data and force strings data to be encoded as utf-8 but another charSet in the binary format. if the response is octal, so i guess the browser would not try to decode the response"txt" does this weird? or miss understanding the fundamental things? EDIT: I believe the question is asking this: Can Javascript safely process strings that aren't encoded in Unicode? What are the problems with trying to do so? EDIT: no no no , i means if http-header: content-type is "application/octet" , would the ie try to decoded it as (16bits Unicode | ie local setting charset ) when i get XMLHttpRequestobj.responseText use javascript ? or it(ie) just wrap every single byte of the response body as a javascript string, then every char in that string little than or equal 256 (char<=256), am i talking Mars language? sadly, if i were Marsizen,i would come as tourist without fuzzy questions. however i am in a country which share at least one property with Mars : RED

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• Overlapping 2 Flash objects and controlling z-index

  - by Magnus Smith

  I have two Flash objects on a webpage (call them A and B), and they overlap so one partially obscures the other. I don't seem to have any control over the z-index, to force B in front of A. Whatever I try, A always 'wins' and stays on the top! I have read many people's posts about problem with getting HTML to show over the top of Flash...but nothing about when your two overlapping items are both Flash objects. I have tried various combinations of wmode=opaque/transparent/window I have tried CSS position:absolute/relative and z-index:0/999 I have tried placing the HTML sections in a different order The problem is the same in IE6 and Firefox 2.0 I do not want to use jQuery in this case In my particular situation B must have position:absolute and wmode=transparent, and sit above A. A needs relative positioning and transparency is not required. However, I have been testing without these restrictions, and I still have no control over the overlap. Are some SWFs (ours are adverts sent by clients) created in such a way as to override any code control of z-index? Thanks for any advice you can give.

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• How can a link within a WebView load another layout using javascript?

  - by huffmaster

  So I have 2 layout files (main.xml, featured.xml) and both each have a single WebView. When the application starts "main.xml" loads a html file into it's WebView. In this html file I have a link that calls javascript that runs code in the Activity that loaded the html. Once back in this Activity code though I try running setContentView(R.layout.featured) but it just bombs out on me. If I debug it just dies without any real error and if I run it the application just Force closes. Am I going about this correctly or should I be doing something differently? final private int MAIN = 1; final private int FEATURED = 2; /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); webview = (WebView) findViewById(R.id.wvMain); webview.getSettings().setJavaScriptEnabled(true); webview.getSettings().setSupportZoom(false); webview.addJavascriptInterface(new EHJavaScriptInterface(), "eh"); webview.loadUrl("file:///android_asset/default.html"); } final class EHJavaScriptInterface { EHJavaScriptInterface() { } public void loadLayout(final String lo) { int i = Integer.parseInt(lo.trim()); switch (i) { /****** THIS IS WHERE I'M BOMBING OUT *********/ case FEATURED: setContentView(R.layout.featured);break; case MAIN: setContentView(R.layout.main);break; } } }

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• Bash script to insert code from one file at a specific location in another file?

  - by Kurtosis

  I have a fileA with a snippet of code, and I need a script to insert that snippet into fileB on the line after a specific pattern. I'm trying to make the accepted answer in this thread work, but it's not, and is not giving an error so not sure why not: sed -e '/pattern/r text2insert' filewithpattern Any suggestions? pattern (insert snippet on line after): def boot { also tried escaped pattern but no luck: def\ boot\ { def\ boot\ \{ fileA snippet: LiftRules.htmlProperties.default.set((r: Req) => new Html5Properties(r.userAgent)) fileB (Boot.scala): package bootstrap.liftweb import net.liftweb._ import util._ import Helpers._ import common._ import http._ import sitemap._ import Loc._ /** * A class that's instantiated early and run. It allows the application * to modify lift's environment */ class Boot { def boot { // where to search snippet LiftRules.addToPackages("code") // Build SiteMap val entries = List( Menu.i("Home") / "index", // the simple way to declare a menu // more complex because this menu allows anything in the // /static path to be visible Menu(Loc("Static", Link(List("static"), true, "/static/index"), "Static Content"))) // set the sitemap. Note if you don't want access control for // each page, just comment this line out. LiftRules.setSiteMap(SiteMap(entries:_*)) // Use jQuery 1.4 LiftRules.jsArtifacts = net.liftweb.http.js.jquery.JQuery14Artifacts //Show the spinny image when an Ajax call starts LiftRules.ajaxStart = Full(() => LiftRules.jsArtifacts.show("ajax-loader").cmd) // Make the spinny image go away when it ends LiftRules.ajaxEnd = Full(() => LiftRules.jsArtifacts.hide("ajax-loader").cmd) // Force the request to be UTF-8 LiftRules.early.append(_.setCharacterEncoding("UTF-8")) } }

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• .htaccess Redirect Loop, adding multiple .php extensions

  - by Ryan Smith

  I have sort of a small parent/teacher social network set up for my school. I use my .htaccess file to make the links to teacher profiles cleaner and to add a trailing slash to all urls. I get this problem when going to /teachers/teacher-name/ the link (sometimes) redirects to /teachers/teacher-name.php.php.php.php.php.php.php.php... Below is my .htaccess file. Sometimes if I clear my browser cache in Chrome it temporarily fixes it. I can't exactly wright .htaccess syntax, but I'm pretty familiar with it. Any suggestions are appreciated! RewriteEngine on RewriteBase / #remove php ext RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME}\.php -f RewriteRule ^([^/]+)/$ $1.php RewriteRule ^([^/]+)/([^/]+)/$ $1/$2.php #force trailing slash/ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteRule ^(.*)([^/])$ /$1$2/ [L,R=301] #other rewrites RewriteRule ^teachers/([^/\.]+)/$ /teachers/profile.php?u=$1 RewriteRule ^teachers/([^/\.]+)/posts/$ /teachers/posts.php?u=$1 RewriteRule ^teachers/([^/\.]+)/posts/([^/\.]+)/$ /teachers/post.php?u=$1&p=$2 RewriteRule ^gallery/([^/\.]+)/$ /gallery/album.php?n=$1 RewriteRule ^gallery/([^/\.]+)/slideshow/$ /gallery/slideshow.php?n=$1 RewriteRule ^gallery/([^/\.]+)/([^/\.]+)/([^/\.]+)/$ /gallery/photo.php?a=$1&p=$2&e=$3 EDIT:I have attached a screenshot of exactly what I'm talking about.

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• Apache proxy to Lighttpd: changing $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] in php

  - by watain

  I have a WordPress blog running on lighttpd-1.4.19, listening on at www00:81. On the same host, apache-2.2.11 listens on port 80, which creates a proxy connection from http://blog.mydomain.org:80 to http://blog.mydomain.org:81. The Apache virtualhost looks as follows: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName blog.mydomain.org ProxyRequests Off <Proxy *> Order deny,allow Allow from all </Proxy> ProxyPass / http://blog.mydomain.org:81/ ProxyPassReverse / http://blog.mydomain.org:81/ </VirtualHost> Using debug.log-request-handling = "enable" I get the following log entry when I browse http://blog.mydomain.org:80 (notice the Host headers): 2010-05-10 08:47:14: (request.c.294) fd: 6 request-len: 853 GET / HTTP/1.1 Host: blog.mydomain.org:81 [...] 2010-05-10 08:47:15: (request.c.294) fd: 8 request-len: 754 GET /wp-content/uploads/2010/01/image.gif?w=280 HTTP/1.1 Host: www00:81 My problem: as far as I know, the PHP environment variable $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] is set to that Host header variable. Unfortunately, WordPress uses that variable in their system to create URLs to pictures on the blog. These URLs won't be accessible behind a firewall of course. How can I force the host header to be blog.mydomain.org instead of blog.mydomain.org:81, respectively www00:81? I already added set server.name = "blog.mydomain.org" to my lighttpd.conf, but this didn't work. Any suggestions are appreciated, thank you.

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• Multi threading in WCF RIA Services

  - by synergetic

  I use WCF RIA Services to update customer database. In domain service: public void UpdateCustomer(Customer customer) { this.ObjectContext.Customers.AttachAsModified(customer); syncCustomer(customer); } After update, a database trigger launches and depending on the columns updated it may insert a new record in CustomerChange table. syncCustomer(customer) method is executed to check for a new record in the CustomerChange table and if found it will create a text file which contains customer information and forwards that file to external system for import. Now this synchronization may take a time so I wanted to execute it in different thread. So: private void syncCustomer(Customer customer) { this.ObjectContext.SaveChanges(); new Thread(() => syncCustomerInfo(customer.CustomerID)) { IsBackground = true }.Start(); } private void syncCustomerInfo(int customerID) { //Thread.Sleep(2000); //does real job here ... ... } The problem is in most cases syncCustomerInfo method cannot find any new CustomerChange record even if it was definitely there. If I force thread sleep then it finds a new record. I also looked Entity Framework events but the only event provided by object context is SavingChanges which occur before changes are saved. Please suggest me what else to try.

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• Using the hardware keyboard to simulate button press on Android

  - by Bevor

  Hello, it is difficult to test a game with the mouse pointer on android buttons. I would like to control those buttons with the hardware keyboard. Actually I don't want to control the buttons itself but I want to control the behaviour the buttons would also do. For example I have 4 buttons in the android application with "arrow up, down, left, right". I'd like to use the arrow buttons of my hardware keyboard to control the same. How can I do that? Actually the question is, where can I set the Listener? I tried something in my activity. I set this listener to the application button: button.setOnKeyListener(new OnKeyListener() { @Override public boolean onKey(View v, int keyCode, KeyEvent event) { if (keyCode == KeyEvent.KEYCODE_DPAD_DOWN) //scroll down return true; } }); The behaviour is the following: I can't scroll down with my hardware keyboard but with the hardware keyboard I can select the android buttons (they will be highlighted when I move on any button). After I selected the button with the Listener I can't select any other button anymore but then the Listener comes into force. Now I can scroll down with the hardware keyboard arrow down button. I would like to achieve this behaviour without selecting any button. So I thought about setting the listener to the layout container or any other layout but this has no effect. Is there any other approach to achieve this?

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• Confused about UIView frame property

  - by slowfungus

  I'm building a prototype iPad app that draws diagrams. I have the following view hierarchy: UIView UIScrollView DiagramView : UIView TabBar NavigationBar And a UIViewController subclass holding all that together. Before drawing the diagram the first time I calculate the dimensions of the diagram, and set the DiagramView frame to that size, and the content size of the scrollview as well. -(void)recalculateBounds { [renderer diagram:diagram shouldDraw:NO]; SQXRect diagramRect = SQXMakeRect(0.0,0.0,[diagram bounds].size.width,[diagram bounds].size.height); self.frame = diagramRect; [(UIScrollView*)[self superview] setContentSize:diagramRect.size]; } I should disclose that the frame is being set to about 1500 x 3500 which i know is ridiculous. I just want to focus on some other parts of the app before I get into optimizing the render code. This works beautifully, except that the rect being passed to drawRect is not the size that I set, and my drawing is getting clipped at the bottom. Its close the size i set, but bigger in width, and shorter in height. Also of note, is the fact that if I force the frame to be much bigger than what I know the diagram needs, then the drawRect:rect is big enough, and no clipping occurs. Of course this has me wondering if the frame size needs to take into account some other screen real estate like the toolbars but my reading of the docs tells me the frame is in superview coordinates, which would be the scrollview so I reckon I need to worry about such things. Any idea what is causing this discrepancy?

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• DDD and Entity Base, Model using multiple identity types

  - by Thomas

  I have a model that looks like this: public interface IEntity { int Id { get; set; } } Then the idea is to have my entities inherit from this interface: public class User : IEntity { public int Id { get; set; } } However, one of my entities actually has a Guid as an identifier. public class UserSession { public Guid Id { get; set; } } I really would like all my entities inheriting from the same interface but that would force me to add an integer based identity column to the UserSession which is unnecessary since Guid is the identity, but it would keep the domain model nice since all entities would inherit from the same base. What options do I have in this scenario? Can I have two base interfaces, one for int and one for Guid? Should I add an identity column into the UserSession entity although it is unnecessary? I need the Guid so I can't just get rid of it and replace it with and integer. Any thoughts on best practices?

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• Refreshing Read-Only (Chained) Property in MVVM

  - by Wonko the Sane

  I'm thinking this should be easy, but I can't seem to figure this out. Take these properties from an example ViewModel (ObservableViewModel implements INotifyPropertyChanged): class NameViewModel : ObservableViewModel { Boolean mShowFullName = false; string mFirstName = "Wonko"; string mLastName = "DeSane"; private readonly DelegateCommand mToggleName; public NameViewModel() { mToggleName = new DelegateCommand(() => ShowFullName = !mShowFullName); } public ICommand ToggleNameCommand { get { return mToggleName; } } public Boolean ShowFullName { get { return mShowFullName; } set { SetPropertyValue("ShowFullName", ref mShowFullName, value); } } public string Name { get { return (mShowFullName ? this.FullName : this.Initials); } } public string FullName { get { return mFirstName + " " + mLastName; } } public string Initials { get { return mFirstName.Substring(0, 1) + "." + mLastName.Substring(0, 1) + "."; } } } The guts of such a [insert your adjective here] View using this ViewModel might look like: <TextBlock x:Name="txtName" Grid.Row="0" Text="{Binding Name}" /> <Button x:Name="btnToggleName" Command="{Binding ToggleNameCommand}" Content="Toggle Name" Grid.Row="1" /> The problem I am seeing is when the ToggleNameCommand is fired. The ShowFullName property is properly updated by the command, but the Name binding is never updated in the View. What am I missing? How can I force the binding to update? Do I need to implement the Name properties as DependencyProperties (and therefore derive from DependencyObject)? Seems a little heavyweight to me, and I'm hoping for a simpler solution. Thanks, wTs

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• Unity in C# for Platform Specific Implementations

  - by DxCK

  My program has heavy interaction with the operating system through Win32API functions. now i want to migrate my program to run under Mono under Linux (No wine), and this requires different implementations to the interaction with the operating system. I started designing a code that can have different implementation for difference platform and is extensible for new future platforms. public interface ISomeInterface { void SomePlatformSpecificOperation(); } [PlatformSpecific(PlatformID.Unix)] public class SomeImplementation : ISomeInterface { #region ISomeInterface Members public void SomePlatformSpecificOperation() { Console.WriteLine("From SomeImplementation"); } #endregion } public class PlatformSpecificAttribute : Attribute { private PlatformID _platform; public PlatformSpecificAttribute(PlatformID platform) { _platform = platform; } public PlatformID Platform { get { return _platform; } } } public static class PlatformSpecificUtils { public static IEnumerable<Type> GetImplementationTypes<T>() { foreach (Assembly assembly in AppDomain.CurrentDomain.GetAssemblies()) { foreach (Type type in assembly.GetTypes()) { if (typeof(T).IsAssignableFrom(type) && type != typeof(T) && IsPlatformMatch(type)) { yield return type; } } } } private static bool IsPlatformMatch(Type type) { return GetPlatforms(type).Any(platform => platform == Environment.OSVersion.Platform); } private static IEnumerable<PlatformID> GetPlatforms(Type type) { return type.GetCustomAttributes(typeof(PlatformSpecificAttribute), false) .Select(obj => ((PlatformSpecificAttribute)obj).Platform); } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Type first = PlatformSpecificUtils.GetImplementationTypes<ISomeInterface>().FirstOrDefault(); } } I see two problems with this design: I can't force the implementations of ISomeInterface to have a PlatformSpecificAttribute. Multiple implementations can be marked with the same PlatformID, and i dont know witch to use in the Main. Using the first one is ummm ugly. How to solve those problems? Can you suggest another design?

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• Disposing ActiveX resources owned by another thread

  - by Stefan Teitge

  I've got a problem problem with threading and disposing resources. I've got a C# Windows Forms application which runs expensive operation in a thread. This thread instantiates an ActiveX control (AxControl). This control must be disposed as it uses a high amount of memory. So I implemented a Dispose() method and even a destructor. After the thread ends the destructor is called. This is sadly called by the UI thread. So invoking activexControl.Dispose(); fails with the message "COM object that has been separated from its underlying RCW", as the object belongs to another thread. How to do this correctly or is it just a bad design I use? (I stripped the code down to the minimum including removing any safety concerns.) class Program { [STAThread] static void Main() { // do stuff here, e.g. open a form new Thread(new ThreadStart(RunStuff); // do more stuff } private void RunStuff() { DoStuff stuff = new DoStuff(); stuff.PerformStuff(); } } class DoStuff : IDisposable { private AxControl activexControl; DoStuff() { activexControl = new AxControl(); activexControl.CreateControl(); // force instance } ~DoStuff() { Dispose(); } public void Dispose() { activexControl.Dispose(); } public void PerformStuff() { // invent perpetuum mobile here, takes time } }

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• JavaApplicationStub with SWT causing problems

  - by mystro

  I created an application in Eclipse that uses SWT for the GUI. I've attempted to deploy the application using the Eclipse deploy, but it seems that when I do that, LSUIElement is not respected, and I can't force the application to disappear from the dock. Nonwhistanding that issue, the application actually deploys ok and is runnable. I attempted to deploy the application using Jar Bundler, but when I try to run the application, I get the following errors: 2010-06-09 21:44:02.564 JavaApplicationStub[89045:2003] * __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x10021f260 of class NSCFString autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking 2010-06-09 21:44:02.568 JavaApplicationStub[89045:2003] * __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x10010a0a0 of class NSCFNumber autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking 2010-06-09 21:44:02.569 JavaApplicationStub[89045:2003] * __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x1001127a0 of class NSCFString autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking 2010-06-09 21:44:02.582 JavaApplicationStub[89045:2003] * __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x7fff70b7af70 of class NSCFString autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking 2010-06-09 21:44:02.583 JavaApplicationStub[89045:2003] * __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x100123ea0 of class NSCFData autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking 2010-06-09 21:44:02.587 JavaApplicationStub[89045:2003] * __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x100225b90 of class NSCFDictionary autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking 2010-06-09 21:44:02.588 JavaApplicationStub[89045:2003] * __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x100225ee0 of class __NSFastEnumerationEnumerator autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking in a very, very, very, long list. The application launches and appears to hang with the icon constantly bouncing in the dock, and the first GUI menu only partially loaded (it looks like one of the text boxes is semi visible, and the overall rectangle is the right size, but the GUI is not showing properly. It is essentially hung.) I'm hoping someone has had experience with this problem, and may be able to help! Thanks!

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• Drupal administration theme doesn't apply to Blocks pages (admin/build/block)

  - by hfidgen

  A site I'm creating for a customer in D6 has various images overlaying parts of the main content area. It looks very pretty and they have to be there for the general effect. The problem is, if you use this theme in the administration pages, the images get in the way of everything. My solution was to create a custom admin theme, based on the default one, which has these image areas disabled in the output template files - page.tpl.php The problem is that when you try and edit the blocks page, it uses the default theme and half the blocks admin settings are unclickable behind the images. I KNOW this is by design in Drupal, but it's annoying the hell out of me and is edging towards "bug" rather than "feature" in my mind. It also appears that there is no way of getting around it. You can edit /modules/blocks/block.admin.inc to force Drupal to show the blocks page in the chosen admin theme. BUT whichever changes you then make will not be transferred to the default theme, as Drupal treats each theme separately and each theme can have different block layouts. :x function block_admin_display($theme = NULL) { global $custom_theme; // If non-default theme configuration has been selected, set the custom theme. // $custom_theme = isset($theme) ? $theme : variable_get('theme_default', 'garland'); // Display admin theme $custom_theme = variable_get('admin_theme', '0'); // Fetch and sort blocks $blocks = _block_rehash(); usort($blocks, '_block_compare'); return drupal_get_form('block_admin_display_form', $blocks, $theme); } Can anyone help? the only thing I can think of is to push the $content area well below the areas where the image appear and use blocks only for content display. Thanks!

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• PHP regex for password validation

  - by Fabio Anselmo

  I not getting the desired effect from a script. I want the password to contain A-Z, a-z, 0-9, and special chars. A-Z a-z 0-9 2 special chars 2 string length = 8 So I want to force the user to use at least 2 digits and at least 2 special chars. Ok my script works but forces me to use the digits or chars back to back. I don't want that. e.g. password testABC55$$ is valid - but i don't want that. Instead I want test$ABC5#8 to be valid. So basically the digits/special char can be the same or diff - but must be split up in the string. PHP CODE: $uppercase = preg_match('#[A-Z]#', $password); $lowercase = preg_match('#[a-z]#', $password); $number = preg_match('#[0-9]#', $password); $special = preg_match('#[\W]{2,}#', $password); $length = strlen($password) >= 8; if(!$uppercase || !$lowercase || !$number || !$special || !$length) { $errorpw = 'Bad Password';

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• XCode 4.4 bundle version updates not picked up until subsequent build

  - by Mark Struzinski

  I'm probably missing something simple here. I am trying to auto increment my build number in XCode 4.4 only when archiving my application (in preparation for a TestFlight deployment). I have a working shell script that runs on the target and successfully updates the info.plist file for each build. My build configuration for archiving is name 'Ad-Hoc'. Here is the script: if [ $CONFIGURATION == Ad-Hoc ]; then echo "Ad-Hoc build. Bumping build#..." plist=${PROJECT_DIR}/${INFOPLIST_FILE} buildnum=$(/usr/libexec/PlistBuddy -c "Print CFBundleVersion" "${plist}") if [[ "${buildnum}" == "" ]]; then echo "No build number in $plist" exit 2 fi buildnum=$(expr $buildnum + 1) /usr/libexec/Plistbuddy -c "Set CFBundleVersion $buildnum" "${plist}" echo "Bumped build number to $buildnum" else echo $CONFIGURATION " build - Not bumping build number." fi This script updates the plist file appropriately and is reflected in XCode each time I archive. The problem is that the .ipa file that comes out of the archive process is still showing the previous build number. I have tried the following solutions with no success: Clean before build Clean build folder before build Move Run Script phase to directly after the Target Dependencies step in Build Phases Adding the script as a Run Script action in my scheme as a pre-action No matter what I do, when I look at the build log, I see that the info.plist file is being processed as one of the very first steps. It is always prior to my script running and updating the build number, which is, I assume, why the build number is never current in the .ipa file. Is there a way to force the Run Script phase to run before the info.plist file is processed?

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• RhinoMocks: how to test if method was called when using PartialMock

  - by epitka

  I have a clas that is something like this public class MyClass { public virtual string MethodA(Command cmd) { //some code here} public void MethodB(SomeType obj) { // do some work MethodA(command); } } I mocked MyClass as PartialMock (mocks.PartialMock<MyClass>) and I setup expectation for MethodA var cmd = new Command(); //set the cmd to expected state Expect.Call(MyClass.MethodA(cmd)).Repeat.Once(); Problem is that MethodB calls actual implementation of MethodA instead of mocking it up. I must be doing something wrong (not very experienced with RhinoMocks). How do I force it to mock MetdhodA? Here is the actual code: var cmd = new SetBaseProductCoInsuranceCommand(); cmd.BaseProduct = planBaseProduct; var insuredType = mocks.DynamicMock<InsuredType>(); Expect.Call(insuredType.Code).Return(InsuredTypeCode.AllInsureds); cmd.Values.Add(new SetBaseProductCoInsuranceCommand.CoInsuranceValues() { CoInsurancePercent = 0, InsuredType = insuredType, PolicySupplierType = ppProvider }); Expect.Call(() => service.SetCoInsurancePercentages(cmd)).Repeat.Once(); mocks.ReplayAll(); //act service.DefaultCoInsurancesFor(planBaseProduct); //assert service.AssertWasCalled(x => x.SetCoInsurancePercentages(cmd),x=>x.Repeat.Once());

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• [Database] How to model this one-to-one relation?

  - by pbean

  I have several entities which respresent different types of users who need to be able to log in to a particular system. Additionally, they have different types of information associated with them. For example: a "general user", which has an e-mail address and "admin user", which has a workstation number (note that this a hypothetical case). Both entities also share common properties like first name, surname, address and telephone number. Finally, they naturally need to have a (unique) user name and a password to log in. In the application, the user just has to fill in his user name and password, and the functionality of the application changes slightly according to the type of the user. You can imagine that the username needs to be unique for this work. How should I model this effectively? I can't just create two tables, because then I can't force a unique constaint on the user name. I also can't put them all in just one table, because they have different types of specific information associated to them. I think I might need 3 seperate tables, one for "users" (with user name and password), one for the "general users" and another one for the "admin users", but how would the relations between these work? Or is there another solution? (By the way, the target DBMS is MySQL, so I don't think generalization is supported in the database system itself).

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• How do I remove implementing types from GWT’s Serialization Policy?

  - by Bluu

  The opposite of this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/138099/how-do-i-add-a-type-to-gwts-serialization-policy-whitelist GWT is adding undesired types to the serialization policy and bloating my JS. How do I trim my GWT whitelist by hand? Or should I at all? For example, if I put the interface List on a GWT RPC service class, GWT has to generate Javascript that handles ArrayList, LinkedList, Stack, Vector, ... even though my team knows we're only ever going to return an ArrayList. I could just make the method's return type ArrayList, but I like relying on an interface rather than a specific implementation. After all, maybe one day we will switch it up and return e.g. a LinkedList. In that case, I'd like to force the GWT serialization policy to compile for only ArrayList and LinkedList. No Stacks or Vectors. These implicit restrictions have one huge downside I can think of: a new member of the team starts returning Vectors, which will be a runtime error. So besides the question in the title, what is your experience designing around this?

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