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  • After rich:extendedDataTable sortby,otheractions are not getting executed

    - by user118802
    I have a RichFaces UI which are having sidebar menu and sidebar had 8 links. I am using Seam @DataModel and @Factory and hibernate criteria to populate all the 8 pages. In all the pages i have sortby functionality which is working fine. I am able to get all data in all the 8 pages and I can freely navigate around all the links/xhtmls. But if in one of the xhtmlpages if I do sorting or groupby after that I am unable to navigate to other pages.If I select any other link the same last query which is executed for sorting is getting executed. Is this an issue? or do I need add any configuration. Please help me in solving this issue. Below is the codesnippet one of the 8 xhtml <rich:column sortable="true" sortBy="#{p.regionid}" width="100px" label="Region Id"> <f:facet name="header"> <h:outputText value="Region Id" /> </f:facet> <h:outputText value="#{p.regionid}" /> </rich:column> <rich:column sortable="true" sortBy="#{p.region}" width="100px" label="Region Name"> <f:facet name="header"> <h:outputText value="Region Name" /> </f:facet> <h:outputText value="#{p.region}" /> </rich:column> Sidebar Action @DataModel("regions") private List<CoreRegion> listRegions; @Factory("regions") public void getRegions() { System.out.println("Inside get Regions"); Session userDatabase = HibernateUtil.getSession(); Criteria crit = userDatabase.createCriteria(CoreRegion.class); listRegions = crit.list();

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  • Why does Hibernate 2nd level cache only cache within a session?

    - by Synesso
    Using a named query in our application and with ehcache as the provider, it seems that the query results are tied to the session. Any attempt to access the value from the cache for a second time results in a LazyInitializationException We have set lazy=true for the following mapping because this object is also used by another part of the system which does not require the reference... and we want to keep it lean. <class name="domain.ReferenceAdPoint" table="ad_point" mutable="false" lazy="false"> <cache usage="read-only"/> <id name="code" type="long" column="ad_point_id"> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> <property name="name" column="ad_point_description" type="string"/> <set name="synonyms" table="ad_point_synonym" cascade="all-delete-orphan" lazy="true"> <cache usage="read-only"/> <key column="ad_point_id" /> <element type="string" column="synonym_description" /> </set> </class> <query name="find.adpoints.by.heading">from ReferenceAdPoint adpoint left outer join fetch adpoint.synonyms where adpoint.adPointField.headingCode = ?</query> Here's a snippet from our hibernate.cfg.xml <property name="hibernate.cache.provider_class">net.sf.ehcache.hibernate.SingletonEhCacheProvider</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.use_query_cache">true</property> It doesn't seem to make sense that the cache would be constrained to the session. Why are the cached queries not usable outside of the (relatively short-lived) sessions?

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  • Bulk insert of component collection in Hibernate?

    - by edbras
    I have the mapping as listed below. When I update a detached Categories item (that doesn't contain any Hibernate class as it comes from a dto converter) I notice that Hibernate will first delete ALL employer wages instances (the collection link) and then insert ALL employer wage entries ONE-BY-ONE :(... I understand that it has to delete and then insert all entries as it was completely detached. BUT, what I don't understand, why is Hibernate NOT inserting all the entries through bulk-insert?.. That is: inserting all the employer wage entries all in one SQL statement ? How can I tell Hibernate to use bulk-insert? (if possible). I tried playing with the following value but didn't see any difference: hibernate.jdbc.batch_size=30 My mapping snippet: <class name="com.sample.CategoriesDefault" table="dec_cats" > <id name="id" column="id" type="string" length="40" access="property"> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> <component name="incomeInfoMember" class="com.sample.IncomeInfoDefault"> <property name="hasWage" type="boolean" column="inMemWage"/> ... <component name="wage" class="com.sample.impl.WageDefault"> <property name="hasEmployerWage" type="boolean" column="inMemEmpWage"/> ... <set name="employerWages" cascade="all-delete-orphan" lazy="false"> <key column="idCats" not-null="true" /> <one-to-many entity-name="mIWaEmp"/> </set> </component> </component> </class>

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  • Adding Mysql Columns in Rails Rake

    - by Gigg
    I have a rake file that does a series of calculations on a database. Basically it adds usage on equipment regularly. At the end of the day it needs to add that days total to a monthly total table and update that same table. i use the following simple concepts: To get data from the database is pretty simple: @usages = Usage.find(:all) time = Time.new for usage in @usages sql = ActiveRecord::Base.connection To insert it into the database: sql.execute "INSERT (or UPDATE) into usages ## add values and options as per MySQL But how do I: take a column from a database, add all of its values together that have a common value in another column, (i.e. if column x == value y) and then insert it into another column in another table, say dailyusages? I have tried these options: task (:monthly => :environment) do @dailyusages = Dailyusage.find(:all) for dailyusage in @dailyusages sql = ActiveRecord::Base.connection time = Time.new device = monthlyusages.device month = time.month if device == dailyusages.device ##&& month == dailyusages.month total = (dailyusage.total.sum.to_i) @monthlyusages = Monthlyusage.find(:all) for monthlyusage in @monthlyusages sql = ActiveRecord::Base.connection old_total = monthlyusage.total.to_i new_total = (old_total + total) sql.execute "UPDATE monthlyusages ( year, month, total, device ) values('#{time.year}', '#{time.month}', '#{total}', '#{dailyusage.device}' )" end I obviously have uncommented options and tried all sorts of things. Any help would really save me a load of trouble. Thanks in advance. (** BTW - I am new to rails, so go easy on me **)

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  • Associating Models with Polymorphic

    - by Josh Crowder
    I am trying to associate Contacts with Classes but as two different types. Current_classes and Interested_classes. I know I need to enable polymorphic but I am not sure as to where it needs to be enabled. This is what I have at the moment class CreateClasses < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :classes do |t| t.string :class_type t.string :class_name t.string :date t.timestamps end end def self.down drop_table :classes end end class CreateContactsInterestedClassesJoin < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table 'contacts_interested_classes', :id => false do |t| t.column 'class_id', :integer t.column 'contact_id', :integer end end def self.down drop_table 'contacts_interested_classes' end end class CreateContactsCurrentClassesJoin < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table 'contacts_current_classes', :id => false do |t| t.column 'class_id', :integer t.column 'contact_id', :integer end end def self.down drop_table 'contacts_current_classes' end end And then inside of my Contacts Model I want to have something like this. class Contact < ActiveRecord::Base has_and_belongs_to_many :classes, :join_table => "contacts_interested_classes", :foreign_key => "class_id" :as => 'interested_classes' has_and_belongs_to_many :classes, :join_table => "contacts_current_classes", :foreign_key => "class_id" :as => 'current_classes' end What am I doing wrong?

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  • Import CSV to mysql

    - by 404error
    I have created a database and table. I have also created all the fields i will be needing. I have created 46 fields including 1 that is my ID for the row. The CSV doesn't contain the id field, nor does it contain the headers for the columns. I am new to all of this but have been trying to figure this out. I'm not on here being lazy asking for the answer, but looking for direction. I'm trying to figure out how to import the CSV but have it start importing data starting at the 2nd field, since I'm hoping the auto_increment will fill in the ID field, which is the first field i created. I tried these instructions with now luck. Can anyone offer some insight? your cvs file's column name must match your table column name browse your required .csv file select CSV using LOAD DATA options Check box 'ON' for Replace table data with file in Fields terminated by box type , in Fields enclosed by box " in Fields escaped by box \ in Lines terminated by box auto in Column names box type column name seperated by , like column1,column2,column3 10 check box ON for Use LOCAL keyword.

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  • Why does Microsoft advise against readonly fields with mutable values?

    - by Weeble
    In the Design Guidelines for Developing Class Libraries, Microsoft say: Do not assign instances of mutable types to read-only fields. The objects created using a mutable type can be modified after they are created. For example, arrays and most collections are mutable types while Int32, Uri, and String are immutable types. For fields that hold a mutable reference type, the read-only modifier prevents the field value from being overwritten but does not protect the mutable type from modification. This simply restates the behaviour of readonly without explaining why it's bad to use readonly. The implication appears to be that many people do not understand what "readonly" does and will wrongly expect readonly fields to be deeply immutable. In effect it advises using "readonly" as code documentation indicating deep immutability - despite the fact that the compiler has no way to enforce this - and disallows its use for its normal function: to ensure that the value of the field doesn't change after the object has been constructed. I feel uneasy with this recommendation to use "readonly" to indicate something other than its normal meaning understood by the compiler. I feel that it encourages people to misunderstand the meaning of "readonly", and furthermore to expect it to mean something that the author of the code might not intend. I feel that it precludes using it in places it could be useful - e.g. to show that some relationship between two mutable objects remains unchanged for the lifetime of one of those objects. The notion of assuming that readers do not understand the meaning of "readonly" also appears to be in contradiction to other advice from Microsoft, such as FxCop's "Do not initialize unnecessarily" rule, which assumes readers of your code to be experts in the language and should know that (for example) bool fields are automatically initialised to false, and stops you from providing the redundancy that shows "yes, this has been consciously set to false; I didn't just forget to initialize it". So, first and foremost, why do Microsoft advise against use of readonly for references to mutable types? I'd also be interested to know: Do you follow this Design Guideline in all your code? What do you expect when you see "readonly" in a piece of code you didn't write?

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  • How do I ensure only the headers are shown for the first item in an ItemsControl in WPF?

    - by Dan Ryan
    I am using MVVM binding an ObservableCollection of children to an ItemsControl. The ItemsControl contains a UserControl used to style the UI for the children. <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding Documents}"> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <View:DocumentView Margin="0, 10, 0, 0" /> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> I want to show a header row for the contents of the ItemsControl but only want to show this once at the top (not for every child). How can I implement this behaviour in the DocumentView user control? Fyi I am using a Grid layout to style the child rows: <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="34"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="100"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="*" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="60" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition /> <RowDefinition /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <TextBlock Grid.ColumnSpan="4" Grid.Row="0" Text="Should only show this at the top"></TextBlock> <Image Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="1" Height="24" Width="24" Source="/Beazley.Documents.Presentation;component/Icons/error.png"></Image> <ComboBox Grid.Column="1" Grid.Row="1" Name="ContentTypes" ItemsSource="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type View:MainView}}, Path=DataContext.ContentTypes}" SelectedValue="{Binding ContentType}"/> <TextBox Grid.Column="2" Grid.Row="1" Text="{Binding Path=FileName}"/> <Button Grid.Column="3" Grid.Row="1" Command="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type View:MainView}}, Path=DataContext.RemoveFile}" CommandParameter="{Binding}">Remove</Button> </Grid>

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  • Unity Configuration and Same Assembly

    - by tyndall
    I'm currently getting an error trying to resolve my IDataAccess class. The value of the property 'type' cannot be parsed. The error is: Could not load file or assembly 'TestProject' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. (C:\Source\TestIoC\src\TestIoC\TestProject\bin\Debug\TestProject.vshost.exe.config line 14) This is inside a WPF Application project. What is the correct syntax to refer to the Assembly you are currently in? is there a way to do this? I know in a larger solution I would be pulling Types from seperate assemblies so this might not be an issue. But what is the right way to do this for a small self-contained test project. Note: I'm only interested in doing the XML config at this time, not the C# (in code) config. UPDATE: see all comments My XML config: <configuration> <configSections> <section name="unity" type="Microsoft.Practices.Unity.Configuration.UnityConfigurationSection, Microsoft.Practices.Unity.Configuration" /> </configSections> <unity> <typeAliases> <!-- Lifetime manager types --> <typeAlias alias="singleton" type="Microsoft.Practices.Unity.ContainerControlledLifetimeManager, Microsoft.Practices.Unity" /> <typeAlias alias="external" type="Microsoft.Practices.Unity.ExternallyControlledLifetimeManager, Microsoft.Practices.Unity" /> <typeAlias alias="IDataAccess" type="TestProject.IDataAccess, TestProject" /> <typeAlias alias="DataAccess" type="TestProject.DataAccess, TestProject" /> </typeAliases> <containers> <container name="Services"> <types> <type type="IDataAccess" mapTo="DataAccess" /> </types> </container> </containers> </unity> </configuration>

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  • Loop a formula in excel VBA

    - by CEMG
    I am trying to loop a formula in Column "D" until Column "B" doesn't have any more data. The formula I am adding to Column "D" is : IF(ISNUMBER(C5),C5,IF(C5A5/3+OFFSET(C5,-1,0)) ,IF(C5<C6,((OFFSET(C5,1,0)-OFFSET(C5,-2,0))(A5/3)+OFFSET(C5,-2,0)),""))) So the result I want in Column "D" once the macro is run is this: A B C D 3 May-10 78.0000 78.00000 1 Jun-10 52.06667 2 Jul-10 26.13333 3 Aug-10 0.2000 0.20000 1 Sep-10 0.21393 2 Oct-10 0.22786 3 Nov-10 0.2418 0.24179 1 Dec-10 0.26640 2 Jan-11 0.29102 3 Feb-11 0.3156 0.31563 1 Mar-11 0.34821 2 Apr-11 0.38080 3 May-11 0.4134 0.41338 1 Jun-11 0.44992 2 Jul-11 0.48646 3 Aug-11 0.5230 0.52300 1 Sep-11 0.56440 2 Oct-11 0.60580 3 Nov-11 0.6472 0.64720 1 Dec-11 0.43147 If someone can help me at what I am doing wrong with the VBA codes I would greatly appreciated. My CODES are the following: Sub IsNumeric() // first logic: IF(ISNUMBER(C6),C6 // If Application.IsNumber(Range("c5").Value) Then Range("d5").Value = Range("C5").Value // second logic: IF(C6 ElseIf Range("c6").Value < Range("c5").Value Then Range("d6").Value = Range("c6").Offset(2, 0).Value - Range("c6").Offset(-1, 0).Value * (Range("a6").Value / 3) + Range("c6").Offset(-1, 0).Value // third logic: IF(C6<C7,((OFFSET(C6,1,0)-OFFSET(C6,-2,0))*(A6/3)+OFFSET(C6,-2,0)),""))) // ElseIf Range("c6").Value < Range("c7").Value Then Range("d6").Value = (Range("c6").Offset(1, 0).Select) - Range("c6").Offset(-2, 0).Select * (Range("a6").Select / 3) + Range("c6").Offset(-2, 0).Select Else Range("d6").Value = "" End If End Sub

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  • Problem with LINQ in C#

    - by David Bonnici
    I am encountering a problem when using LINQ in C#, I am constantly getting "Specified cast is not valid". This is what I am trying to do. I create a class in which I declare all the columns of the table. [Table(Name="tbl_Aff")] public class Affiliate { [Column] public string name; [Column] public string firstname; [Column] public string surname; [Column] public string title; } I then declare a strongly typed DataContext in which I declare all Table collections as members of the context. public partial class Database : DataContext { public Table affiliate; public Database() : base(Settings.getConnectionString()) { } //This method gets the connection string by reading from an XML file. } public partial class Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Database database = new Database(); try { var q = from a in database.affiliate select a; foreach (var aff in q) // Here I get the error "Specified cast is not valid" { lblMessage.InnerHtml += aff.name + ""; } } catch (Exception ex) { System.Console.WriteLine(ex.Message); } } }

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  • Mysql select - improve performance

    - by realshadow
    Hey, I am working on an e-shop which sells products only via loans. I display 10 products per page in any category, each product has 3 different price tags - 3 different loan types. Everything went pretty well during testing time, query execution time was perfect, but today when transfered the changes to the production server, the site "collapsed" in about 2 minutes. The query that is used to select loan types sometimes hangs for ~10 seconds and it happens frequently and thus it cant keep up and its hella slow. The table that is used to store the data has approximately 2 milion records and each select looks like this: SELECT * FROM products_loans WHERE KOD IN("X17/Q30-10", "X17/12", "X17/5-24") AND 369.27 BETWEEN CENA_OD AND CENA_DO; 3 loan types and the price that needs to be in range between CENA_OD and CENA_DO, thus 3 rows are returned. But since I need to display 10 products per page, I need to run it trough a modified select using OR, since I didnt find any other solution to this. I have asked about it here, but got no answer. As mentioned in the referencing post, this has to be done separately since there is no column that could be used in a join (except of course price and code, but that ended very, very badly). Here is the show create table, kod and CENA_OD/CENA_DO very indexed via INDEX. CREATE TABLE `products_loans` ( `KOEF_ID` bigint(20) NOT NULL, `KOD` varchar(30) NOT NULL, `AKONTACIA` int(11) NOT NULL, `POCET_SPLATOK` int(11) NOT NULL, `koeficient` decimal(10,2) NOT NULL default '0.00', `CENA_OD` decimal(10,2) default NULL, `CENA_DO` decimal(10,2) default NULL, `PREDAJNA_CENA` decimal(10,2) default NULL, `AKONTACIA_SUMA` decimal(10,2) default NULL, `TYP_VYHODY` varchar(4) default NULL, `stage` smallint(6) NOT NULL default '1', PRIMARY KEY (`KOEF_ID`), KEY `CENA_OD` (`CENA_OD`), KEY `CENA_DO` (`CENA_DO`), KEY `KOD` (`KOD`), KEY `stage` (`stage`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 And also selecting all loan types and later filtering them trough php doesnt work good, since each type has over 50k records and the select takes too much time as well... Any ides about improving the speed are appreciated.

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  • How to bind an ADF Table on button click

    - by Juan Manuel Formoso
    Coming from ASP.NET I'm having a hard time with basic ADF concepts. I need to bind a table on a button click, and for some reason I don't understand (I'm leaning towards page life cycle, which I guess is different from ASP.NET) it's not working. This is my ADF code: <af:commandButton text="#{viewcontrollerBundle.CMD_SEARCH}" id="cmdSearch" action="#{backingBeanScope.indexBean.cmdSearch_click}" partialSubmit="true"/> <af:table var="row" rowBandingInterval="0" id="t1" value="#{backingBeanScope.indexBean.transactionList}" partialTriggers="::cmdSearch" binding="#{backingBeanScope.indexBean.table}"> <af:column sortable="false" headerText="idTransaction" id="c2"> <af:outputText value="#{row.idTransaction}" id="ot4"/> </af:column> <af:column sortable="false" headerText="referenceCode" id="c5"> <af:outputText value="#{row.referenceCode}" id="ot7"/> </af:column> </af:table> This is cmdSearch_click: public String cmdSearch_click() { List l = new ArrayList(); Transaction t = new Transaction(); t.setIdTransaction(BigDecimal.valueOf(1)); t.setReferenceCode("AAA"); l.add(t); t = new Transaction(); t.setIdTransaction(BigDecimal.valueOf(2)); t.setReferenceCode("BBB"); l.add(t); setTransactionList(l); // AdfFacesContext.getCurrentInstance().addPartialTarget(table); return null; } The commented line also doesn't work. If I populate the list on my Bean's constructor, the table renders ok. Any ideas?

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  • Properly populating tables in an Object Relational database

    - by chaosTechnician
    I've got a homework assignment that requires that I use Oracle 10g Express to implement an Object Relational database to track phone billing data. I have a superclass of Communications with subclasses of Call, Text, and Data. I'm hitting a snag with properly populating these tables so that I can find the appropriate data in the various tables. My Types and Tables are declared as such: create type CommunicationType as object ( -- column names here ) not final; create type CallType under CommunicationType ( -- column names here ); create type TextType under CommunicationType ( -- column names here ); create type DataType under CommunicationType ( -- column names here ); create table Communications of CommunicationType ( -- Primary and Foreign key constraints here ); create table Calls of CallType; create table Texts of TextType; create table Datas of DataType; When I try to insert data into one of the subclasses, its entry doesn't appear in the superclass. Likewise if I insert into the superclass, it doesn't show up in the appropriate subclass. For example, insert into Calls values (CallType( -- Values -- )); doesn't show any data in Communications. Nor does insert into Communications values (CallType( -- Values -- )); show anything in Calls. What am I doing wrong?

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  • @PrePersist with entity inheritance

    - by gerry
    I'm having some problems with inheritance and the @PrePersist annotation. My source code looks like the following: _the 'base' class with the annotated updateDates() method: @javax.persistence.Entity @Inheritance(strategy = InheritanceType.TABLE_PER_CLASS) public class Base implements Serializable{ ... @Id @GeneratedValue protected Long id; ... @Column(nullable=false) @Temporal(TemporalType.TIMESTAMP) private Date creationDate; @Column(nullable=false) @Temporal(TemporalType.TIMESTAMP) private Date lastModificationDate; ... public Date getCreationDate() { return creationDate; } public void setCreationDate(Date creationDate) { this.creationDate = creationDate; } public Date getLastModificationDate() { return lastModificationDate; } public void setLastModificationDate(Date lastModificationDate) { this.lastModificationDate = lastModificationDate; } ... @PrePersist protected void updateDates() { if (creationDate == null) { creationDate = new Date(); } lastModificationDate = new Date(); } } _ now the 'Child' class that should inherit all methods "and annotations" from the base class: @javax.persistence.Entity @NamedQueries({ @NamedQuery(name=Sensor.QUERY_FIND_ALL, query="SELECT s FROM Sensor s") }) public class Sensor extends Entity { ... // additional attributes @Column(nullable=false) protected String value; ... // additional getters, setters ... } If I store/persist instances of the Base class to the database, everything works fine. The dates are getting updated. But now, if I want to persist a child instance, the database throws the following exception: MySQLIntegrityConstraintViolationException: Column 'CREATIONDATE' cannot be null So, in my opinion, this is caused because in Child the method "@PrePersist protected void updateDates()" is not called/invoked before persisting the instances to the database. What is wrong with my code?

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  • Are there any thead limitations that make it not print on each page in Firefox?

    - by SeanJA
    I have a table that has a <thead>, a <tfoot> and a <tbody>. It is supposed to print the thead and tfoot on each page in theory, but for some reason the thead does not if it contains certain elements together. This works: <thead> <tr> <td colspan="3">This works</td> <tr> <tr> <th colspan="2">column 1</th> <th> column 2 </th> </tr> </thead> This does not seem to work: <thead> <tr> <td colspan="3"> <h2>Header</h2> <address> <strong>address 1</strong> <br /> address 2 <br /> address 3 <br /> </address> <img src="/images/logo.png" alt="Logo" /> <h2>Another header</h2> <hr /> </td> </tr> <tr> <th colspan="2">column 1</th> <th> column 2 </th> </tr> </thead> Is there a reason for this not to work?

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  • display tag query

    - by sarah
    I have code: <display:table name="sessionScope.allUserslist" id="userList" export="false" pagesize="1"> <display:column title="Select" style="width: 90px;"> <input type="checkbox" name="optionSelected" value="<c:out value='${userList.loginName}'/>"/> </display:column> <display:column property="loginName" sortable="false" title="UserName" paramId="loginName" style="width: 150px; text-align:center" href="./editUser.do?method=editUser"/> <display:column property="role" sortable="false" title="UserRole" paramId="role" style="width: 150px; text-align:center"/> </display:table> On click of login name, I am moving to a new page where I need to get all the of user, I am just getting the name not the role, on click of link I am calling an action where in the method I am trying to read the data from the form using User u=(User)form; u.getRole(); but it's null. Where am I going wrong ?

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  • Using ASP.NET SQL Membership Provider, how do I store my own per-user data?

    - by Gary McGill
    I'm using the ASP.NET SQL Membership Provider. So, there's an aspnet_Users table that has details of each of my users. (Actually, the aspnet_Membership table seems to contain most of the actual data). I now want to store some per-user information in my database, so I thought I'd just create a new table with a UserId (GUID) column and an FK relationship to aspnet_Users. However, I then discovered that I can't easily get access to the UserId since it's not exposed via the membership API. (I know I can access it via the ProviderUserKey, but it seems like the API is abstracting away the internal UserID in favor of the UserName, and I don't want to go too far against the grain). So, I thought I should instead put a LoweredUserName column in my table, and create an FK relationship to aspnet_Users using that. Bzzzt. Wrong again, because while there is a unique index in aspnet_Users that includes the LoweredUserName, it also includes the ApplicationId - so in order to create my FK relationship, I'd need to have an ApplicationId column in my table too. At first I thought: fine, I'm only dealing with a single application, so I'll just add such a column and give it a default value. Then I realised that the ApplicationId is a GUID, so it'd be a pain to do this. Not hard exactly, but until I roll out my DB I can't predict what the GUID is going to be. I feel like I'm missing something, or going about things the wrong way. What am I supposed to do?

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  • Primary key/foreign Key naming convention

    - by Jeremy
    In our dev group we have a raging debate regarding the naming convention for Primary and Foreign Keys. There's basically two schools of thought in our group: 1) Primary Table (Employee) Primary Key is called ID Foreign table (Event) Foreign key is called EmployeeID 2) Primary Table (Employee) Primary Key is called EmployeeID Foreign table (Event) Foreign key is called EmployeeID I prefer not to duplicate the name of the table in any of the columns (So I prefer option 1 above). Conceptually, it is consisted with a lot of the recommended practices in other languages, where you don't use the name of the object in its property names. I think that naming the foreign key EmployeeID (or Employee_ID might be better) tells the reader that it is the ID column of the Employee Table. Some others prefer option 2 where you name the primary key prefixed with the table name so that the column name is the same throughout the database. I see that point, but you now can not visually distinguish a primary key from a foreign key. Also, I think it's redundant to have the table name in the column name, because if you think of the table as an entity and a column as a property or attribute of that entity, you think of it as the ID attribute of the Employee, not the EmployeeID attribute of an employee. I don't go an ask my coworker what his PersonAge or PersonGender is. I ask him what his Age is. So like I said, it's a raging debate and we go on and on and on about it. I'm interested to get some new perspective.

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  • geting information from Treeview with HierarchicalDataTemplate

    - by lina
    Good day! I have such a template: <common:HierarchicalDataTemplate x:Key="my2ndPlusHierarchicalTemplate" ItemsSource="{Binding Children}"> <StackPanel Margin="0,2,5,2" Orientation="Vertical" Grid.Column="2"> <CheckBox IsTabStop="False" IsChecked="False" Click="ItemCheckbox_Click" Grid.Column="1" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Name}" FontSize="16" Foreground="#FF100101" HorizontalAlignment="Left" FontFamily="Verdana" FontWeight="Bold" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Description}" FontFamily="Verdana" FontSize="10" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Foreground="#FFA09A9A" FontStyle="Italic" /> <TextBox Width="100" Grid.Column="4" Height="24" LostFocus="TextBox_LostFocus" Name="tbNumber"></TextBox> </StackPanel> </common:HierarchicalDataTemplate> for a Treeview <controls:TreeView x:Name="tvServices" ItemTemplate="{StaticResource myHierarchicalTemplate}" ItemContainerStyle="{StaticResource expandedTreeViewItemStyle}" Grid.Column="1" Grid.Row="2" Grid.ColumnSpan="3" BorderBrush="#FFC1BCBC" FontFamily="Verdana" FontSize="14"> </controls:TreeView> I want to know the Name property of each TextBox in Treeview to make validation of each textbox such as: private void TextBox_LostFocus(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { tbNumber.ClearValidationError(); if ((!tbNumber.Text.IsZakazNumberValid()) && (tbNumber.Text != "")) { tbNumber.SetValidation(MyStrings.NumberError); tbNumber.RaiseValidationError(); isValid = false; } else { isValid = true; } } and I wnat to see what check boxes were checked how can I do it?

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  • JoinColumn name not used in sql

    - by Vladimir
    Hi! I have a problem with mapping many-to-one relationship without exact foreign key constraint set in database. I use OpenJPA implementation with MySql database, but the problem is with generated sql scripts for insert and select statements. I have LegalEntity table which contains RootId column (among others). I also have Address table which has LegalEntityId column which is not nullable, and which should contain values referencing LegalEntity's "RootId" column, but without any database constraint (foreign key) set. Address entity is mapped: @Entity @Table(name="address") public class Address implements Serializable { ... @ManyToOne(fetch=FetchType.LAZY, optional=false) @JoinColumn(referencedColumnName="RootId", name="LegalEntityId", nullable=false, insertable=true, updatable=true, table="LegalEntity") public LegalEntity getLegalEntity() { return this.legalEntity; } } SELECT statement (when fetching LegalEntity's addresses) and INSERT statment are generated: SELECT t0.Id, .., t0.LEGALENTITY_ID FROM address t0 WHERE t0.LEGALENTITY_ID = ? ORDER BY t0.Id DESC [params=(int) 2] INSERT INTO address (..., LEGALENTITY_ID) VALUES (..., ?) [params=..., (int) 2] If I omit table attribute from mentioned statements are generated: SELECT t0.Id, ... FROM address t0 INNER JOIN legalentity t1 ON t0.LegalEntityId = t1.RootId WHERE t1.Id = ? ORDER BY t0.Id DESC [params=(int) 2] INSERT INTO address (...) VALUES (...) [params=...] So, LegalEntityId is not included in any of the statements. Is it possible to have relationship based on such referencing (to column other than primary key, without foreign key in database)? Is there something else missing? Thanks in advance.

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  • reshaping a data frame into long format in R

    - by user1773115
    I'm struggling with a reshape in R. I have 2 types of error (err and rel_err) that have been calculated for 3 different models. This gives me a total of 6 error variables (i.e. err_1, err_2, err_3, rel_err_1, rel_err_2, and rel_err_3). For each of these types of error I have 3 different types of predivtive validity tests (ie random holdouts, backcast, forecast). I would like to make my data set long so I keep the 4 types of test long while also making the two error measurements long. So in the end I will have one variable called err and one called rel_err as well as an id variable for what model the error corresponds to (1,2,or 3) Here is my data right now: iter err_1 rel_err_1 err_2 rel_err_2 err_3 rel_err_3 test_type 1 -0.09385732 -0.2235443 -0.1216982 -0.2898543 -0.1058366 -0.2520759 random 1 0.16141630 0.8575728 0.1418732 0.7537442 0.1584816 0.8419816 back 1 0.16376930 0.8700738 0.1431505 0.7605302 0.1596502 0.8481901 front 1 0.14345986 0.6765194 0.1213689 0.5723444 0.1374676 0.6482615 random 1 0.15890059 0.7435382 0.1589823 0.7439204 0.1608709 0.7527580 back 1 0.14412360 0.6743928 0.1442039 0.6747684 0.1463520 0.6848202 front and here is what I would like it to look like: iter model err rel_err test_type 1 1 -0.09385732 (#'s) random 1 2 -0.1216982 (#'s) random 1 3 -0.1216982 (#'s) random and on... I've tried playing around with the syntax but can't quite figure out what to put for the time.varying argument Thanks very much for any help you can offer.

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  • Are Dynamic Prepared Statements Bad? (with php + mysqli)

    - by John
    I like the flexibility of Dynamic SQL and I like the security + improved performance of Prepared Statements. So what I really want is Dynamic Prepared Statements, which is troublesome to make because bind_param and bind_result accept "fixed" number of arguments. So I made use of an eval() statement to get around this problem. But I get the feeling this is a bad idea. Here's example code of what I mean // array of WHERE conditions $param = array('customer_id'=>1, 'qty'=>'2'); $stmt = $mysqli->stmt_init(); $types = ''; $bindParam = array(); $where = ''; $count = 0; // build the dynamic sql and param bind conditions foreach($param as $key=>$val) { $types .= 'i'; $bindParam[] = '$p'.$count.'=$param["'.$key.'"]'; $where .= "$key = ? AND "; $count++; } // prepare the query -- SELECT * FROM t1 WHERE customer_id = ? AND qty = ? $sql = "SELECT * FROM t1 WHERE ".substr($where, 0, strlen($where)-4); $stmt->prepare($sql); // assemble the bind_param command $command = '$stmt->bind_param($types, '.implode(', ', $bindParam).');'; // evaluate the command -- $stmt->bind_param($types,$p0=$param["customer_id"],$p1=$param["qty"]); eval($command); Is that last eval() statement a bad idea? I tried to avoid code injection by encapsulating values behind the variable name $param. Does anyone have an opinion or other suggestions? Are there issues I need to be aware of?

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  • one table is shared between several websites

    - by sami
    I have a static table that's shared by several websites. By static, I mean that the data is read but never updated by the websites. Currently, all websites are served from the same server but that may change. I want to minimize the need for creating/maintaining this table for each of the websites, so I thought about turning it to an xml file that's stored in a shared library that all websites have access to. The problem is I use an ORM and use forign key constraints to ensure integrity of the ids used from that table, so by removing that table out of the MySQL database into an XML file, will this affect the integrity of the ids coming from that table? My table looks like this <table name="entry"> <column name="id" type="INTEGER" primaryKey="true" autoIncrement="true" /> <column name="title" type="VARCHAR" size="500" required="true" /> </table> and I use it as a foreign key in other tables <table name="refer"> <column name="id" type="INTEGER" primaryKey="true" autoIncrement="true" /> <column name="linkto" type="INTEGER"/> <foreign-key foreignTable="entry"> <reference local="linkto" foreign="id" /> </foreign-key> </table> So I'm wondering if I remove that table out of the database, is there a way to retain that referential integrity? And of course are these any other efficient ways to do the same thing? I just don't want to have to repeat that table for several websites.

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  • How can I bind Wpf DataGridColumn to an object?

    - by John
    I want to bind the columns of my WPF DataGrid to some objects in a Dictionary like this: Binding Path=Objects[i] where Objects is my Dictionary of objects, so that each cell will represent an Object element. How can I do that? I suppose that I need to create a template for my cell, which I did, but how to get the result of column binding in my template? I know that by default the content of a DataGridCell is a TextBlock and it's Text property is set through column binding result, but if that result is an object I guess that I have to create a ContentTemplate. How do I do that, as the stuff I tried is not displaying anything. Here it is what I tried: <Style x:Key="CellStyle" TargetType="{x:Type dg:DataGridCell}"> <Setter Property="Template"> ---it should realy be ContentTemplate? <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate> <controls:DataGridCellControl CurrentObject="{Binding }"/> -- I would expect to get the object like this for this column path : Path=Objects[i] but is not working </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> So, to make myself completly clear, i want to get in CurrentObject property of my DataGridCellControl the current object that should result if I set the column binding in my data grid like this Path=Objects[i]. Thank you for any suggestion, John.

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