Search Results

Search found 5178 results on 208 pages for 'lost my wallet in el segundo'.

Page 172/208 | < Previous Page | 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179  | Next Page >

  • How to replace custom IDs in the order of their appearance with a shell script?

    - by Péter Török
    I have a pair of rather large log files with very similar content, except that some identifiers are different between the two. A couple of examples: UnifiedClassLoader3@19518cc | UnifiedClassLoader3@d0357a JBossRMIClassLoader@13c2d7f | JBossRMIClassLoader@191777e That is, wherever the first file contains UnifiedClassLoader3@19518cc, the second contains UnifiedClassLoader3@d0357a, and so on. I want to replace these with identical IDs so that I can spot the really important differences between the two files. I.e. I want to replace all occurrences of both UnifiedClassLoader3@19518cc in file1 and UnifiedClassLoader3@d0357a in file2 with UnifiedClassLoader3@1; all occurrences of both JBossRMIClassLoader@13c2d7f in file1 and JBossRMIClassLoader@191777e in file2 with JBossRMIClassLoader@2 etc. Using the Cygwin shell, so far I managed to list all different identifiers occurring in one of the files with grep -o -e 'ClassLoader[0-9]*@[0-9a-f][0-9a-f]*' file1.log | sort | uniq However, now the original order is lost, so I don't know which is the pair of which ID in the other file. With grep -n I can get the line number, so the sort would preserve the order of appearance, but then I can't weed out the duplicate occurrences. Unfortunately grep can not print only the first match of a pattern. I figured I could save the list of identifiers produced by the above command into a file, then iterate over the patterns in the file with grep -n | head -n 1, concatenate the results and sort them again. The result would be something like 2 ClassLoader3@19518cc 137 ClassLoader@13c2d7f 563 ClassLoader3@1267649 ... Then I could (either manually or with sed itself) massage this into a sed command like sed -e 's/ClassLoader3@19518cc/ClassLoader3@2/g' -e 's/ClassLoader@13c2d7f/ClassLoader@137/g' -e 's/ClassLoader3@1267649/ClassLoader3@563/g' file1.log > file1_processed.log and similarly for file2. However, before I start, I would like to verify that my plan is the simplest possible working solution to this. Is there any flaw in this approach? Is there a simpler way?

    Read the article

  • oracle query with inconsistent results

    - by Spencer Stejskal
    Im having a very strange problem, i have a complicated view that returns incorrect data when i query on a particular column. heres an example: select empname, has_garnishment from timecard_v2 where empname = 'Testerson, Testy'; this returns the single result 'Testerson, Testy', 'N' however, if i use the query: select empname, has_garnishment from timecard_v2 where empname = 'Testerson, Testy' and has_garnishment = 'Y'; this returns the single result 'Testerson, Testy', 'Y' The second query should return a subset of the first query, but it returns a different answer. I have dissected the view and determined that this section of the view definition is where the problem arises(Note, I removed all of the select clause except the parts of interests for clarity, in the full query all joined tables are required): SELECT e.fullname empname , NVL2(ded.has_garn, 'Y', 'N') has_garnishment FROM timecard tc , orderdetail od , orderassign oa , employee e , employee3 e3 , customer10 c10 , order_misc om, (SELECT COUNT(*) has_garn, v_ssn FROM deductions WHERE yymmdd_stop = 0 OR (LENGTH(yymmdd_stop) = 7 AND to_date(SUBSTR(yymmdd_stop, 2), 'YYMMDD') sysdate) GROUP BY v_ssn ) ded WHERE oa.lrn(+) = tc.lrn_order AND om.lrn(+) = od.lrn AND od.orderno = oa.orderno AND e.ssn = tc.ssn AND c10.custno = tc.custno AND e.lrn = e3.lrn AND e.ssn = ded.v_ssn(+) One thing of note about the definition of the 'ded' subquery. The v_ssn field is a virtual field on the deductions table. I am not a DBA im a software developer but we recently lost our DBA and the new one is still getting up to speed so im trying to debug this issue. That being said, please explain things a little more thoroughly then you would for a fellow oracle expert. thanks

    Read the article

  • Need help writing jQuery to loop through table and inject markers into google map?

    - by abemonkey
    I am new to jQuery. I've done some simple things with it but what I am attempting now is a over my head and I need some help. I am building a locator for all the firearms dealers in the US for a client. I am working within Drupal. I have a proximity search by zip code that works great. If you search by zip a list of paginated results shows up in an html table that can by paged through via ajax. I would like a map to be above this list with markers corresponding to the names and addresses being listed. I already have all the lat and long values in the table results. I want the script to update the markers and automatically zoom to fit the markers in the view when a user changes the sort order of the table or pages through the results. Also, I'd like to have a hover highlight effect over the rows of the table that simultaneously highlight the corresponding marker, and have a click on the table row equal a click on a marker that pops up a marker info window to be populated using jQuery to read the name and address fields of the table. Hope this all makes sense. I know I'm putting a lot out there, I'm not asking for someone to write the whole script, just wanted to give as many details as possible. Thanks for any help. I'm just lost when it comes to looping and moving data around. If you want to check out what I have so far on the project please visit: www.axtsweapons.com and login with the username: "test" and the password: "1234" and then visit this direct link: www.axtsweapons.com/ffllocator. For just a simple page that would be easy to manipulate and play with goto: http://www.axtsweapons.com/maptest.html Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Beginning Haskell: "not in scope" Unprecedented error

    - by user1071838
    So I just started learning Haskell, and this (http://learnyouahaskell.com) nifty book is giving a lot of help. So yesterday I wrote in a text file doubleMe x = x + x and saved it as double.hs. So after saving that I open up my command prompt, CD to the right folder, type in "ghci" to get haskell started, and then type in >doubleMe 5 10 and everything seems to work. Now today, I do the same thing and this happens (actual copy paste from command line) . . . C:\Users\myName\haskell>ghci GHCi, version 7.0.3: http://www.haskell.org/ghc/ :? for help Loading package ghc-prim ... linking ... done. Loading package integer-gmp ... linking ... done. Loading package base ... linking ... done. Loading package ffi-1.0 ... linking ... done. Prelude> :l double.hs [1 of 1] Compiling Main ( double.hs, interpreted ) Ok, modules loaded: Main. *Main> doubleMe 5 <interactive>:1:1: Not in scope: `doubleMe' So basically, everything was working fine, but now haskell can't find the function I wrote in double.hs. Can anyone tell what is going on? I'm pretty lost and confused. This is just a guess but does it have to do with *Main at all? Thanks for the help.

    Read the article

  • delete row from result set in web sql with javascript

    - by Kaijin
    I understand that the result set from web sql isn't quite an array, more of an object? I'm cycling through a result set and to speed things up I'd like to remove a row once it's been found. I've tried "delete" and "splice", the former does nothing and the latter throws an error. Here's a piece of what I'm trying to do, notice the delete on line 18: function selectFromReverse(reverseRay,suggRay){ var reverseString = reverseRay.toString(); db.transaction(function (tx) { tx.executeSql('SELECT votecount, comboid FROM counterCombos WHERE comboid IN ('+reverseString+') AND votecount>0', [], function(tx, results){ processSelectFromReverse(results,suggRay); }); }, function(){onError}); } function processSelectFromReverse(results,suggRay){ var i = suggRay.length; while(i--){ var j = results.rows.length; while(j--){ console.log('searching'); var found = 0; if(suggRay[i].reverse == results.rows.item(j).comboid){ delete results.rows.item(j); console.log('found'); found++; break; } } if(found == 0){ console.log('lost'); } } }

    Read the article

  • how to number t-rows ,when table generated using nested forloop in django templates

    - by stackover
    Hi, This part is from views.py results=[(A,[stuObj1,stuObj2,stuObj3]),(B,[stuObj4,stuObj5,stuObj6]),(C,[stuObj7,stuObj8])] for tup in results: total = tot+len(tup[1]) render_to_response(url,{'results':res , 'total':str(tot),}) this is template code: <th class="name">Name</th> <th class="id">Student ID</th> <th class="grade">Grade</th> {% for tup in results %} {% for student in tup|last %} {% with forloop.parentloop.counter as parentid%} {% with forloop.counter as centerid%} <tbody class="results-body"> <tr> <td>{{student.fname|lower|capfirst}} {{student.lname|lower|capfirst}}</td> <td>{{student.id}}</td> <td>{{tup|first}}</td> </tr> {% endfor %} {% endfor %} Now the problems am having are 1. numbering the rows. Here my problem is am not sure if i can do things like total=total-1 in the templates to get the numbered rows like <td>{{total}}</td> 2.applying css to tr:ever or odd. Whats happening in this case is everytime the loop is running the odd/even ordering is lost. these seems related problems. Any ideas would be great :)

    Read the article

  • WPF: How can I KEEP the same ItemTemplate instance once its created ??

    - by Samir Sabri
    Hello, Here is a cinario: I have a ListView, with ItemsSource = ProjectModel.Instance.PagesModelsCollection; where PagesModelsCollection is an ObservableCollection In the ListView XAML part: <ListView.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate x:Name="PagesViewDataTemplate"> <DataTemplate.Resources> <Style x:Key="PageHostStyle" TargetType="{x:Type p:KPage}"> </Style> </DataTemplate.Resources> <StackPanel x:Name="MarginStack" Margin="50,50,50,50" > <p:KPage x:Name="PageHost" > </p:KPage> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ListView.ItemTemplate> The problem is the ITemTemplate is re-created each time we refresh the Items. So, if we have 100 Item in the list view, another 100 new ItemTemplate instance will be created if we refresh the items! As a result, if we add UIElements on one of the ItemTemplate intances, those added UIElements will be lost, because the old ITemTemplate is replaced with a new one! How can I KEEP the ItemTemplate instance once its created ??

    Read the article

  • Exception from HRESULT: 0x80020009 (DISP_E_EXCEPTION)) in SharePoint Part 2

    - by BeraCim
    Hi all: Following this post which I posted some time ago, I now get the same error every time I try to rewire 2 web's URLs. Basically, this is the code. It runs in a LongRunningOperationJob: SPWeb existingWeb = null; using (existingWeb = site.OpenWeb(wedId)) { SPWeb destinationWeb = createNewSite(existingWeb); existingWeb.AllowUnsafeUpdates = true; existingWeb.Name = existingWeb.Name + "_old"; existingWeb.Title = existingWeb.Title + "_old"; existingWeb.Description = existingWeb.Description + "_old"; existingWeb.Update() existingWeb.AllowUnsafeUpdates = false; destinationWeb.AllowUnsafeUpdates = true; destinationWeb.Name = existingWeb.Name; destinationWeb.Title = existingWeb.Title; destinationWeb.Description = existingWeb.Description; destinationWeb.Update(); destinationWeb.AllowUnsafeUpdates = false; // null this for what its worth existingWeb = null; destinationWeb = null; } // <---- Exception raised here Basically, the code is trying to rename the existing site's URL to something else, and have the destination web's url point to the old site's URL. When I run this for the first time, I received the Exception mentioned in the subject. However, every run after, I do not see the exception anymore. The webs DO get rewired... but at the cost of the app dying an unnecessary and terrible death. I'm at a complete lost as to what is going on and needs urgent help. Does sharepoint keep any hidden table from me or is the logic above has fatal problems? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Permissions on Mac OSX

    - by Linda
    I think that this is a permissions issue but I am not sure and I am not sure how to repair the problem. I have a new MacBook. I have 2 external drives that were previously used on another MacBook. I have a lot of folders and XCode projects on the external drives. When I try to work on the projects, there is a message similar to this: "This file is not writable. You may not be able to save your changes, but you will be able to Save a Copy somewhere else. Do you want to edit this file anyway?" If I make changes and try to close the project I get this error: "The project and user files project.pbxproj and macbook.pbxuser for project “thirdtry.xcodeproj” are not writeable and cannot be saved. Your changes will be lost if you close the project. You may need to SCM edit these files to gain writability." I have tried just to rename the folder but that permission is not allowed either unless I individually change permissions for every file in an XCode project. As you can imagine, this could be time consuming for tons of files and projects. I can copy the project into internal memory and can run it then after renaming the folder that contains all of the files. This defeats the purpose of having all of the projects on an external drive. Also, in XCode, there is no "Build and Run" there is only "Build and Debug" now. I don't know if this is related or not. Suggestions for how to repair all permissions to all files and folders on my external drives? What about the "Build and Debug" and no "Build and Run" choice? Thanks, Linda

    Read the article

  • Change with jQuery a cell of a table created with JSF

    - by perissf
    From within a xhtml page created with JSF, I need to use JavaScript / jQuery for changing the content of a cell of a table. I know how to assign a unique id to the div containing the table, and to the tbody. I can also assign unique class names to the div itself and to the target column. The target row is identified by the data-rk attribute. <div id="tabForm:centerTabView:personsTable" class="ui-datatable ui-widget personsTable"> <table role="grid"> <tbody id="tabForm:centerTabView:personsTable_data" > <tr data-rk="2" > <td ... /> <td class="lastNameCol" role="gridcell"> <div> To Be Edited </div> </td> <td ... /> </tr> <tr ... /> </tbody> </table> </div> I have tried with many combinations of different jQuery selectors, but I am really lost. I need to search my target row and my target column inside that particular div or inside that particular table, because the xhtml page may contain other tables with different unique ids (and accidentally with the same row and column ids).

    Read the article

  • How do I use IIS6 style metabase paths in IIS7 AppCmd tool?

    - by Mike Atlas
    I'm currently in the process of upgrading old II6 automation scripts that use the IISVdir tool to create/modify/update apps and virtual directories, and replacing them with AppCmd for IIS7. The IIS6, "IISVDir" commands reference paths in that are from the metabase, eg, "/W3SVC/1/ROOT/MyApp" - where 1 is ID of the "Default Web Site" site. The command doesn't actually require the display name of the site to make changes to it. This works well, since on a different language OS, the "Default Web Site" site name could be named, for example, "??? Web ???" or anything else for that matter. But this flexibility is lost if AppCmd can only reference "Default Web Site" via its name, and not a language-neutral identifier. So, how can I script AppCmd to refer to sites, vdirs and apps using language neutral identifiers to reference the "Default App Site"? Perhaps I need to start creating my own site instead, from the start, and name it something else specific, and stop using "Default Web Site" as the root? (Disclosure: I only have a IIS7-English machine that I am working on currently, but I have both IIS6-English and IIS6-Japanese machines for testing my old scripts - so perhaps it really is just "Default Web Site" still on Win2k8-Japanese?)

    Read the article

  • Open the Word Application from a button on a web page

    - by Andrea
    I'm developing a proof of concept web application: A web page with a button that opens the Word Application installed on the user's PC. I'm stuck with a C# project in Visual Studio 2008 Express (Windows XP client, LAMP server). I've followed the Writing an ActiveX Control in .NET tutorial and after some tuning it worked fine. Then I added my button for opening Word. The problem is that I can reference the Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word from the project, but I'm not able to access it from the web page. The error says "That assembly does not allow partially trusted callers". I've read a lot about security in .NET, but I'm totally lost now. Disclaimer: I'm into .NET since 4 days ago. I've tried to work around this issue but I cannot see the light!! I don't even know if it will ever be possible! using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Drawing; using System.Data; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; using Word = Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word; using System.IO; using System.Security.Permissions; using System.Security; [assembly: AllowPartiallyTrustedCallers] namespace OfficeAutomation { public partial class UserControl1 : UserControl { public UserControl1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void openWord_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { Word.Application Word_App = null; Word_App = new Word.Application(); Word_App.Visible = true; } catch (Exception exc) { MessageBox.Show("Can't open Word application (" + exc.ToString() + ")"); } } } }

    Read the article

  • unique items from an observableArray of object properties

    - by Joe
    I'm trying to extract unique properties from a knockout.js observableArray of objects, to populate a drop menu. Being new to knockout, I'm really struggling with this! I want to iterate over a contacts list, and populate a drop menu with a unique value from each person object within the observableArray. So in my code example below, I wish to populate my drop menu with a list of people 'type' - family, friend etc. Looking on Google, I found a similar function, but it does not return any values, even if I console.log the results? //dummy data more rows in actual code... var people = [ { name: "Contact 1", address: "1, a street, a town, a city, AB12 3CD", tel: "0123456789", email: "[email protected]", type: "family" }, { name: "Contact 2", address: "1, a street, a town, a city, AB12 3CD", tel: "0123456789", email: "[email protected]", type: "friend" } ]; function ContactsViewModel(people) { var self = this; self.contacts = ko.observableArray(people); self.uniqueSelect = ko.dependentObservable(function() { return( ko.utils.arrayGetDistinctValues(self.contacts().type).sort()); }, self); }; ko.applyBindings(new ContactsViewModel()); And HTML template <p>Show me: <select data-bind="options: ContactsViewModel.uniqueSelect"></select></p> Any help appreciated, as a noob I'm lost! Thanks

    Read the article

  • Execute Stored Procedure from Classic ASP

    - by Jaco Pretorius
    For some fantastic reason I find myself debugging a problem in a Classic ASP page (at least 10 years of my life lost in the last 2 days). I'm trying to execute a stored procedure which contains some OUT parameters. The problem is that one of the OUT parameters is not being populated when the stored procedure returns. I can execute the stored proc from SQL management studio (this is 2008) and all the values are being set and returned exactly as expected. declare @inVar1 varchar(255) declare @inVar2 varchar(255) declare @outVar1 varchar(255) declare @outVar2 varchar(255) SET @inVar2 = 'someValue' exec theStoredProc @inVar1 , @inVar2 , @outVar1 OUT, @outVar2 OUT print '@outVar1=' + @outVar1 print '@outVar2=' + @outVar2 Works great. Fantastic. Perfect. The exact values that I'm expecting are being returned and printed out. Right, since I'm trying to debug a Classic ASP page I copied the code into a VBScript file to try and narrow down the problem. Here is what I came up with: Set Conn = CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") Conn.Open "xxx" Set objCommandSec = CreateObject("ADODB.Command") objCommandSec.ActiveConnection = Conn objCommandSec.CommandType = 4 objCommandSec.CommandText = "theStoredProc " objCommandSec.Parameters.Refresh objCommandSec.Parameters(2) = "someValue" objCommandSec.Execute MsgBox(objCommandSec.Parameters(3)) Doesn't work. Not even a little bit. (Another ten years of my life down the drain) The third parameter is simply NULL - which is what I'm experiencing in the Classic ASP page as well. Could someone shed some light on this? Am I completely daft for thinking that the classic ASP code would be the same as the VBScript code? I think it's using the same scripting engine and syntax so I should be ok, but I'm not 100% sure. The result I'm seeing from my VBScript is the same as I'm seeing in ASP.

    Read the article

  • jQuery addClass() not running before jQuery.ajax()

    - by Josh
    I'm trying to have a button that onclick will apply a class loading (sets cursor to "wait") to the body, before making a series of ajax requests. Code is: $('#addSelected').click(function(){ $('body').addClass('loading'); var products = $(':checkbox[id^=add_]:checked'); products.each(function(){ var prodID = $(this).attr('id').replace('add_', ''); var qty = $('#qty_' + prodID).val(); if($('#prep_' + prodID).val()) { prodID += ':' + $('#prep_' + prodID).val(); } // Have to use .ajax rather than .get so we can use async:false, otherwise // product adds happen in parallel, causing data to be lost. $.ajax({ url: '<?=base_url()?>basket/update/' + prodID + '/' + qty, async: false, beforeSend: function(){ $('body').addClass('loading'); } }); }); }); I've tried doing $('body').addClass('loading'); both before the requests, and as a beforeSend callback, but there is no difference. In firebug I can see that body doesn't get the loading class until after the requests are complete. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Architecture for new ASP.NET web application

    - by Anders Abel
    I'm maintaining an application which currently is just a web service (built with WCF) and a database backend. The web service is built in layers with a linq-to-sql data access part with core functionality in an own assembly and on top of that the web service assembly which contains the WCF code. The core assembly also handles all business logic rules (very few actually). The customer now wants a Web interface for the application instead of just accessing it through other applications which are consuming the web service. I'm quite lost on modern web application design, so I would like some advice on what architecture and frameworks to use for the web application. The web application will be using the same core assembly with business rules and the linq-to-sql data access layer as the web service. Some concepts I've thought about are: ASP.NET MVC Webforms AJAX controls - possibly leting the AJAX controls access the existing web service through JSON. Are there any more concepts I should look into? Which one is the best for a fresh project? The development tools are Visual Studio 2008 Team Edition for Developers targeting .NET 3.5. An upgrade to Visual Studio 2010 Premium (or maybe even Ultimate) is possible if it gives any benefits.

    Read the article

  • Paypal Encrypted Website payments

    - by John Isaacks
    I am trying to integrate a PayPal Website Payments Standard Cart Upload payment type into my shopping cart. I integrated Google Checkout a while back and I did not find it overly confusing as I do paypal. I am getting info on how to encrypt it from here: https://cms.paypal.com/us/cgi-bin/?&cmd=_render-content&content_ID=developer/e_howto_html_encryptedwebpayments#id08A3I0P017Q Paypal says I need to generate a private key and a public certificate using OpenSSL. I went to OpenSSL and downloaded the latest release, which is just a folder containing various files but I see no application I can use, not sure what to do here. Even if I were to get OpenSSL to generate me a private key and public cert, the next step is to download either an MS or Java command line tool to create the encrypted cart ahead of time with the cart-total, tax, etc. which sounds crazy to me, like I am supposed to manually do this prior to every order?? Obviously I do not know the items in the cart the customer is going to buy before hand so I need this to be done on the fly on my website using PHP. But I am completely lost. There has to be a way to setup dynamic secure cart uploads to paypal. Can someone please point me in the right direction?

    Read the article

  • Shortest acyclic path on directed cyclic graph with negative weights/cycles

    - by Janathan
    I have a directed graph which has cycles. All edges are weighted, and the weights can be negative. There can be negative cycles. I want to find a path from s to t, which minimizes the total weight on the path. Sure, it can go to negative infinity when negative cycles exist. But what if I disallow cycles in the path (not in the original graph)? That is, once the path leaves a node, it can not enter the node again. This surely avoids the negative infinity problem, but surprisingly no known algorithm is found by a search on Google. The closest is Floyd–Warshall algorithm, but it does not allow negative cycles. Thanks a lot in advance. Edit: I may have generalized my original problem too much. Indeed, I am given a cyclic directed graph with nonnegative edge weights. But in addition, each node has a positive reward too. I want to find a simple path which minimizes (sum of edge weights on the path) - (sum of node rewards covered by the path). This can be surely converted to the question that I posted, but some structure is lost. And some hint from submodular analysis suggests this motivating problem is not NP-hard. Thanks a lot

    Read the article

  • CSS Design question, I've got myself completely turned around.

    - by Matt Dawdy
    Okay, I have a couple of other questions out there, but I think I'd better just ask from the beginning how you CSS experts would do this. Client's page is split into 2 rows -- header has some info, some aligned to left of page, some to right, some in the middle. This is currently done using a table. I'm fine with leaving this alone or changing it. My real question is that I need a page layout to handle the following: 2 columns - column on left is 200px, but can be "close" down to to 10px (not a slider, it's either 200 or 10 px). The column on the right needs to be as big as it needs to be -- which might be larger than the width of the page. When left column is "closed" then the right column slides over of course. Again, this right column might be 300px or it might be 4000 pixels (it's a reporting interface). Now, to add another wrinkle, SOME pages have 3 columns. The first 2 columns are each exactly 200px, and both can be "closed" down to 10 px each. But, the user may not close both columns, maybe just 1. Or none. Or both. The third column needs to act just like I described above, being able to be larger than the page width, and sliding over to take advantage of any of the "closed" left columns. Whew! I'm pretty confused as to how to go about this, as either I get it right but I can't scroll over to the right at all (overflow: hidden) and information is lost, or the right column jumps down below the left 2 columns and just looks plain stupid. My minimum browser requirements are IE8, FF3.5, Chrome and Safari (latest versions of all). Any and all pointers are gladly accepted.

    Read the article

  • How to safely transfer reference to object across window?

    - by Morgan Cheng
    I'm debugging a web application. Javasript in one window create one object and use it as argument to invoke global method in another window. Pseudo code is like below. var obj = new Foo(); anotherWin.bar(obj); In anotherWin, the argument is stored in global variable. var g_obj; function bar(obj) { g_obj = obj; ... } When other function tries to reference g_obj.Id, it throws exception "Cannot evaluate expression". This happens in IE8.0.7600.16385 on Windows 7. In Visual Studio debugger, when this exception happens, the g_obj shows as {...} It looks all its properties are lost. Perhaps the root reason is the object is created in one window but only referenced in another window. The object might be garbage-collected at any time. Is there any way to work around this?

    Read the article

  • "hour" int taken from NSDate not behaving as expected at midnight??

    - by Eric
    I feel like I've lost my mind. Can someone tell me what's going on here? Also, I'm sure there is a better way to do what I'm trying to do, but I'm not interested in that now. I'd just like to solve the mystery of why my ints are not responding to logic as expected. // Set "At: " field close to current time NSDateFormatter *dateFormatter = [[NSDateFormatter alloc] init]; [dateFormatter setDateFormat:@"HH"]; int hour = [[dateFormatter stringFromDate:[NSDate date]] intValue]; [dateFormatter setDateFormat:@"mm"]; int minute = [[dateFormatter stringFromDate:[NSDate date]] intValue]; NSLog(@"currently %i:%i",hour, minute); if(hour >= 12){ // convert to AM/PM selectedMeridiem = 1; if(hour != 12){ hour = hour - 12; } } else{ selectedMeridiem = 0; } selectedHour = hour - 1; if(selectedHour <= 0){ selectedHour = 11; } When I debug the above code with my clock set to 12:XX AM, the integer "hour" returned is 0. But then any if statements with the condition if(hour == 0) are not evaluated. Likewise, this would not be evaluated either: if(hour < 1). The code above puts the hour int into another int, selectedHour (don't worry about why I'm doing this for now), but selectedHour suffers from the same weird behavior; the if(selectedHour <= 0) line is never evaluated. Am I going crazy, or am I just an idiot? Maybe there's some behavior of 0 integers that I'm not aware of. All of my code runs fine as long as it's not 12:XX AM.

    Read the article

  • How to update a property using Type.GetProperties() method?

    - by Richard77
    Hello, I've a collection of a class' properties and would like to update each one's value by iterating over the collection through the index. 1) I create the collection of properties this way private PropertyInfo[] GetPropertiesOfMyClass() { Type myType = (typeof(myClass)); PropertyInfo[] PropertyInfoArray = myType.GetProperties( BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.Instance); return PropertyInfoArray; } 2)Now, I'd like to set up the value of each one depending on the index this way public void UpdateProperty(MyClass instanceOfMyClass, string valueToUpdate, int index) { //TODO: //1. Get an individual property from the GetPropertyOfMyClass() using index //2. Update the value of an individual property of the instanceOfMyClass } I'd like to be able to call UpdateProperty from a Controller like this: UpdateProperty(instanceOfMyClass, valueToUpdate, indexOfTheProperty); Honestly, I do not know how to involve the instanceOfMyClass in the game as GetProperty only plays with myClass. Since I saw that I can use Name, PropertyType, ... to get information on the property. So, I've tried also GetPropertyOfMyClass()[index].SetValue(...), but I was lost in the arguments of its constructor, so I abandoned. What I want is to be able to update the value of a property in my collection just by using the index. Thanks for helping

    Read the article

  • Dealing with expired session for a partially filled form?

    - by aaronls
    I have a large webform, and would like to prompt the user to login if their session expires, or have them login when they submit the form. It seems that having them login when they submit the form creates alot of challenges because they get redirected to the login page and then the postback data for the original form submission is lost. So I'm thinking about how to prompt them to login asynchrounsly when the session expires. So that they stay on the original form page, have a panel appear telling them the session has expired and they need to login, it submits the login asynchronously, the login panel disapears, and the user is still on the original partially filled form and can submit it. Is this easily doable using the existing ASP.NET Membership controls? When they submit the form will I need to worry about the session key? I mean, I am wondering if the session key the form submits will be the original one from before the session expired which won't match the new one generated after logging in again asynchrounously(I still do not understand the details of how ASP.NET tracks authentication/session IDs). Edit: Yes I am actually concerned about authentication expiration. The user must be authenticated for the submitted data to be considered valid.

    Read the article

  • Write Null/Nothing value with Databinding

    - by clawson
    I have extended a MaskedTextBox component to add some functionality. The text property of the extended MaskedTextBox is bound to a DateTime? property and the format of binding is set to a time format of "HH:mm:ss" (i.e. 24hr time). So that this masked text box will capture the display a time. The extra functionality I have added is to make the component readonly unless the component is double clicked or the enter button is pressed (the back color of the control helps to inform the users if the component is locked/readonly or not). When the enter button is pressed I also suspend the bindings so that bound data is updated the users input won't be lost. The information is then written back to the value and databindings resumed when the user presses the enter key again. This all works fine up to here, with values written and displayed as would be expected. However, I also want to write the null or nothing value to the DateTime? property if the user hasn't entered any text (or invalid text but let's just stick with no text) when enter key is pressed to submit the new value. Unlike with other valid entries in the MaskedTextBox, with no text entered when i execute: Me.DataBindings("Text").WriteValue() (when 'locking' the MaskedTextBox) it then branches to the bound properties Get method as I step into each line of code in the debugger (as opposed to the Set method with other valid entries) How can I write this null/nothing/"" value to the DateTime? property when no text "" is entered into the MaskedTextBox? Thanks for the help!

    Read the article

  • Diagnosing IIS Shutdowns

    - by Tom Ritter
    Symptoms: I attach a debugger, I wait a little while, it automatically detaches I watch the event log during normal operation - after a single request comes in, it waits a little bit, the shuts down Disagnosing. I've followed the following steps for logging shutdowns in IIS: http://weblogs.asp.net/scottgu/archive/2005/12/14/433194.aspx http://blogs.msdn.com/tess/archive/2006/08/02/asp-net-case-study-lost-session-variables-and-appdomain-recycles.aspx I know these are working because... What I see in the Event Logs when I change the web.config: The description for Event ID 0 from source ASP.NET 2.0.50727.0 cannot be found. Either the component that raises this event is not installed on your local computer or the installation is corrupted. You can install or repair the component on the local computer. If the event originated on another computer, the display information had to be saved with the event. The following information was included with the event: _shutdownMessage=IIS configuration change HostingEnvironment initiated shutdown CONFIG change CONFIG change HostingEnvironment caused shutdown _shutdownStack= at System.Environment.GetStackTrace(Exception e, Boolean needFileInfo) at System.Environment.get_StackTrace() at System.Web.Hosting.HostingEnvironment.InitiateShutdownInternal() at System.Web.Hosting.HostingEnvironment.InitiateShutdown() at System.Web.Hosting.PipelineRuntime.StopProcessing() the message resource is present but the message is not found in the string/message table But it doesn't help because the mysetery error doesn't tell me anything. I see the same thing as from before I added this extra logging: The description for Event ID 0 from source ASP.NET 2.0.50727.0 cannot be found. Either the component that raises this event is not installed on your local computer or the installation is corrupted. You can install or repair the component on the local computer. If the event originated on another computer, the display information had to be saved with the event. The following information was included with the event: _shutdownMessage=HostingEnvironment initiated shutdown HostingEnvironment caused shutdown _shutdownStack= at System.Environment.GetStackTrace(Exception e, Boolean needFileInfo) at System.Environment.get_StackTrace() at System.Web.Hosting.HostingEnvironment.InitiateShutdownInternal() at System.Web.Hosting.HostingEnvironment.InitiateShutdown() at System.Web.Hosting.PipelineRuntime.StopProcessing() the message resource is present but the message is not found in the string/message table Anyone have any ideas for more debugging?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179  | Next Page >