Search Results

Search found 36234 results on 1450 pages for 'sender id'.

Page 173/1450 | < Previous Page | 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180  | Next Page >

  • Ordering the results of a Hibernate Criteria query by using information of the child entities of the

    - by pkainulainen
    I have got two entities Person and Book. Only one instance of a specific book is stored to the system (When a book is added, application checks if that book is already found before adding a new row to the database). Relevant source code of the entities is can be found below: @Entity @Table(name="persons") @SequenceGenerator(name="id_sequence", sequenceName="hibernate_sequence") public class Person extends BaseModel { @Id @Column(name = "id") @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.SEQUENCE, generator = "id_sequence") private Long id = null; @ManyToMany(targetEntity=Book.class) @JoinTable(name="persons_books", joinColumns = @JoinColumn( name="person_id"), inverseJoinColumns = @JoinColumn( name="book_id")) private List<Book> ownedBooks = new ArrayList<Book>(); } @Entity @Table(name="books") @SequenceGenerator(name="id_sequence", sequenceName="hibernate_sequence") public class Book extends BaseModel { @Id @Column(name = "id") @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.SEQUENCE, generator = "id_sequence") private Long id = null; @Column(name="name") private String name = null; } My problem is that I want to find persons, which are owning some of the books owned by a specific persons. The returned list of persons should be ordered by using following logic: The person owning most of the same books should be at the first of the list, second person of the the list does not own as many books as the first person, but more than the third person. The code of the method performing this query is added below: @Override public List<Person> searchPersonsWithSimilarBooks(Long[] bookIds) { Criteria similarPersonCriteria = this.getSession().createCriteria(Person.class); similarPersonCriteria.add(Restrictions.in("ownedBooks.id", bookIds)); //How to set the ordering? similarPersonCriteria.addOrder(null); return similarPersonCriteria.list(); } My question is that can this be done by using Hibernate? And if so, how it can be done? I know I could implement a Comparator, but I would prefer using Hibernate to solve this problem.

    Read the article

  • Saving Email/Password to Keychain in iOS

    - by Jason
    I'm very new to iOS development so forgive me if this is a newbie question. I have a simple authentication mechanism for my app that takes a user's email address and password. I also have a switch that says 'Remember me'. If the user toggles that switch on, I'd like to preserve their email/password so those fields can be auto-populated in the future. I've gotten this to work with saving to a plist file but I know that's not the best idea since the password is unencrypted. I found some sample code for saving to the keychain, but to be honest, I'm a little lost. For the function below, I'm not sure how to call it and how to modify it to save the email address as well. I'm guessing to call it would be: saveString(@"passwordgoeshere"); Thank you for any help!!! + (void)saveString:(NSString *)inputString forKey:(NSString *)account { NSAssert(account != nil, @"Invalid account"); NSAssert(inputString != nil, @"Invalid string"); NSMutableDictionary *query = [NSMutableDictionary dictionary]; [query setObject:(id)kSecClassGenericPassword forKey:(id)kSecClass]; [query setObject:account forKey:(id)kSecAttrAccount]; [query setObject:(id)kSecAttrAccessibleWhenUnlocked forKey:(id)kSecAttrAccessible]; OSStatus error = SecItemCopyMatching((CFDictionaryRef)query, NULL); if (error == errSecSuccess) { // do update NSDictionary *attributesToUpdate = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObject:[inputString dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding] forKey:(id)kSecValueData]; error = SecItemUpdate((CFDictionaryRef)query, (CFDictionaryRef)attributesToUpdate); NSAssert1(error == errSecSuccess, @"SecItemUpdate failed: %d", error); } else if (error == errSecItemNotFound) { // do add [query setObject:[inputString dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding] forKey:(id)kSecValueData]; error = SecItemAdd((CFDictionaryRef)query, NULL); NSAssert1(error == errSecSuccess, @"SecItemAdd failed: %d", error); } else { NSAssert1(NO, @"SecItemCopyMatching failed: %d", error); } }

    Read the article

  • Beginner MVC question - Correct approach to render out a List and details?

    - by fizzer
    I'm trying to set up a page where I display a list of items and the details of the selected item. I have it working but wonder whether I have followed the correct approach. I'll use customers as an example I have set the aspx page to inherit from an IEnumerable of Customers. This seems to be the standard approach to display the list of items. For the Details I have added a Customer user control which inherits from customer. I think i'm on the right track so far but I was a bit confused as to where I should store the id of the customer whose details I intend to display. I wanted to make the id optional in the controller action so that the page could be hit using "/customers" or "customers/1" so I made the arg optional and stored the id in the ViewData like this: public ActionResult Customers(string id = "0") { Models.DBContext db = new Models.DBContext(); var cList = db.Customers.OrderByDescending(c => c.CustomerNumber); if (id == "0") { ViewData["CustomerNumber"] = cList.First().CustomerNumber.ToString(); } else { ViewData["CustomerNumber"] = id; } return View("Customers", cList); } I then rendered the User control using RenderPartial in the front end: <%var CustomerList = from x in Model where x.CustomerNumber == Convert.ToInt32(ViewData["CustomerNumber"]) select x; Customer c = (Customer)CustomerList.First(); %> <% Html.RenderPartial("Customer",c); %> Then I just have an actionLink on each listed item: <%: Html.ActionLink("Select", "Customers", new { id = item.CustomerNumber })% It all seems to work but as MVC is new to me I would just be interested in others thoughts on whether this is a good approach?

    Read the article

  • Handle submission of forms created dynamically having same class

    - by user1504383
    i am creating a form for users to comment on each posts displayed through a loop and the form for commenting is also in the same loop. Now i want each comment to be submitted via jquery ajax but each time its taking into account only the first form . Here is my code:- while($row=mysql_fetch_array($result)) { ?> <?=$row['title']?> <h4>Add commment </h4> <form class="add_comment" method="post"> <div style="display:none;"><input type="text" name="id" class="id" value="<?=$row['id']?>"/></div> <input type="text" name="comment" class="comment"/> <input type="submit" name="submit" value="add" class="submit"/> </form> <?php } ?> And my jquery goes here $("form.add_comment").submit(function(event) { event.preventDefault(); var comment =$('.comment').attr('value'); var id =$('.id').attr('value'); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/add_comment", data: "comment="+comment+"&id="+id, success: function() { location.reload(); } }); return false; });`enter code here` i understood the error that it selects the first one by default but couldnt fix it up plz help me

    Read the article

  • how to make it easy for users to register at my site?

    - by rob
    I want to make it dirt simple for users coming to my site to register so they can post comments, vote on things, etc. I would like for them to be able to use their facebook id, twitter id, yahoo mail id, gmail id, AIM id, msn id, or whatever else people are likely to have (not necessarily all of those, but the more the better). I want my mom to be able to do it in 30 seconds or less. (that is, no "enter your open id url here" type thing that would confuse her). I prefer they not have to pick a unique name, as that gets annoying as the site gets more users and it gets hard to find one that is unique. What is the best option here? I'm not quite sure about OpenId vs. OAuth, and whether there are other options. And I'd like it to be as simple for me, the developer, as possible (of course!). I don't want to spend forever learning some protocol, nor have to structure my whole app around this. It would be great if there was a site with sample code that is pretty easy to drop in. BTW, StackOverflow is a good example of a site that was easy for me to register for.

    Read the article

  • Best way to do one-to-many "JOIN" in CouchDB

    - by mit
    There are CouchDB documents that are list elements: { "type" : "el", "id" : "1", "content" : "first" } { "type" : "el", "id" : "2", "content" : "second" } { "type" : "el", "id" : "3", "content" : "third" } There is one document that defines the list: { "type" : "list", "elements" : ["2","1"] , "id" : "abc123" } As you can see the third element was deleted, it is no longer part of the list. So it must not be part of the result. Now I want a view that returns the content elements including the right order. The result could be: { "content" : ["second", "first"] } In this case the order of the elements is already as it should be. Another possible result: { "content" : [{"content" : "first", "order" : 2},{"content" : "second", "order" : 1}] } I started writing the map function: map = function (doc) { if (doc.type === 'el') { emit(doc.id, {"content" : doc.content}); //emit the id and the content exit; } if (doc.type === 'list') { for ( var i=0, l=doc.elements.length; i<l; ++i ){ emit(doc.elements[i], { "order" : i }); //emit the id and the order } } } This is as far as I can get. Can you correct my mistakes and write a reduce function? Remember that the third document must not be part of the result. Of course you can write a different map function also. But the structure of the documents (one definig element document and an entry document for each entry) cannot be changed.

    Read the article

  • VS2010 and CSS: What is the best way to position a single form control

    - by George
    OK, I have a ton of controls on my page that I need to individually place. I need to set a margin here, a padding there, etc. None of these particular styles that I want to apply will be applied to more than control. What is the bets practice for determining at which level the style is placed, etc? OK, my choices are 1) External CSS file 1A) Using ClientIdMode = Auto (the default) I could assign a unique CssClass value to the ASP.NET control and, in the external CSS file, create a class selector that would only be applied to that one control. 1B) User Client ID = Predicatable In the external CSS file, I could determine what the ID will be for the controls of interest and create an ID selector (#ControlID{Style} ). However, I fear maintenance issues due to including/removing parent containers that would cause the ID to change. 1C) User Client ID = Static. I could choose static IDs for the controls such that I minimize the likelihood of a clash with auto generated IDs (perhaps by prefixing the ID with "StaticID_" and use an external stylesheet with ID selectors. 2) I could place the style right on the control. The only disadvantage here, as I see it, is that style info is brought down each time instead of being cached , which is what I'd get using an external CSS. If a style isn't resused, I personally don't see much benefit to placing it in an external file, though please explain why if you disagree. Is there moire of a reason that "It's nice to have all the CSS in one place?"

    Read the article

  • Need help getting buttons to work...

    - by Mike Droid
    I am trying to get my first button to update a display number in my view when clicked. This view will have several buttons and "outputs" displayed. After reading examples and Q's here, I finally put something together that runs, but my first button is still not working; public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.ship_layout); mSwitcher = (TextSwitcher) findViewById(R.id.eng_val); } private TextSwitcher mSwitcher; // Will be connected with the buttons via XML void onClick(View v){ switch (v.getId()) { case R.id.engplus: engcounter++; updateCounter(); break; case R.id.engneg: engcounter--; updateCounter(); break; } } private void updateCounter() { mSwitcher.setText(String.valueOf(engcounter)); } The .xml for this button is; <TextSwitcher android:id="@+id/eng_val" android:visibility="visible" android:paddingTop="9px" android:paddingLeft="50px" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_below="@+id/build" android:layout_toRightOf="@+id/engeq" android:textColor="#DD00ff00" android:textSize="24sp"/> This is within a Relative Layout that appears otherwise OK. When I had set the view to have a TextView with the number set as a string , the number displayed, but I could not figure out how to update the text with a numerical field. That may be my real problem. I have gone through many examples generally referenced from the dev. site (UI, Common Tasks, various samples), and I am still not seeing the connection here... Again, this is simply a try at getting variables to respond to buttons and update on the view. So, a few Q's for anyone that can help; 1) Is there any easier way of doing this (ie. send numerical value to View) ? 2) Why isn't my TextSwitcher displaying the number? 3) Should I be using a TextSwitcher here? 4) Any examples of this you can point me to?

    Read the article

  • Why does the BackgroundWorker in WPF need Thread.Sleep to update UI controls?

    - by user364060
    namespace WpfApplication1 { /// <summary> /// Interaction logic for Window1.xaml /// </summary> public partial class Window1 : Window { BackgroundWorker bgWorker; Action<int> myProgressReporter; public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); bgWorker = new BackgroundWorker(); bgWorker.DoWork += bgWorker_Task; bgWorker.RunWorkerCompleted += myWorker_RunWorkerCompleted; // hook event to method bgWorker.ProgressChanged += bgWorker_ReportProgress; // hook the delegate to the method myProgressReporter = updateProgress; bgWorker.WorkerReportsProgress = true; } private void myWorker_RunWorkerCompleted(object sender, System.ComponentModel.RunWorkerCompletedEventArgs e) { object result; result = e.Result; MessageBox.Show(result.ToString()); progressBar1.Value = 0; button1.IsEnabled = true; } private void bgWorker_ReportProgress(object sender, ProgressChangedEventArgs e) { System.Windows.Threading.Dispatcher disp = button1.Dispatcher; disp.BeginInvoke(myProgressReporter,e.ProgressPercentage); //Dispatcher.BeginInvoke(myProgressReporter, DispatcherPriority.Normal, e.ProgressPercentage); } private void updateProgress(int progressPercentage) { progressBar1.Value = progressPercentage; } private void bgWorker_Task(Object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { int total = 1000; for (int i = 1; i <= total; i++) { if (bgWorker.WorkerReportsProgress) { int p = (int)(((float)i / (float)total) * 100); bgWorker.ReportProgress(p); } Thread.Sleep(1); // Without Thread.Sleep(x) the main thread freezes or gives stackoverflow exception, } e.Result = "Completed"; } private void button1_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { if(!bgWorker.IsBusy) bgWorker.RunWorkerAsync("This is a background process"); button1.IsEnabled = false; } } }

    Read the article

  • Iteration through the HtmlDocument.All collection stops at the referenced stylesheet?

    - by Jonas
    Since "bug in .NET" is often not the real cause of a problem, I wonder if I'm missing something here. What I'm doing feels pretty simple. I'm iterating through the elements in a HtmlDocument called doc like this: System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("*** " + doc.Url + " ***"); foreach (HtmlElement field in doc.All) System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine(string.Format("Tag = {0}, ID = {1} ", field.TagName, field.Id)); I then discovered the debug window output was this: Tag = !, ID = Tag = HTML, ID = Tag = HEAD, ID = Tag = TITLE, ID = Tag = LINK, ID = ... when the actual HTML document looks like this: <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.0 Transitional//EN"> <html> <head> <title>Protocol</title> <link rel="Stylesheet" type="text/css" media="all" href="ProtocolStyle.css"> </head> <body onselectstart="return false"> <table> <!-- Misc. table elements and cell values --> </table> </body> </html> Commenting out the LINK tag solves the issue for me, and the document is completely parsed. The ProtocolStyle.css file exist on disk and is loaded properly, if that would matter. Is this a bug in .NET 3.5 SP1, or what? For being such a web-oriented framework, I find it hard to believe there would be such a major bug in it.

    Read the article

  • JQuery not removing added element

    - by Scott
    What I want to do is add and remove list items. I have got it to add new items to the list and I can remove existing ones but not the ones that have been added. It seem like it would work but it doesn't. Any help would be appreciated! Here the code: JQuery: <script type="text/javascript"> $(function(){ $('a#add').click(function(){ $('<li><a href="#" id="remove">--</a>List item</li>').appendTo('ul#list'); }); $('a#remove').click(function(){ $(this).parent().remove(); }); }); </script> HTML: <a href="#" id="add">Add List Item</a> <ul id="list"> <li><a href="#" id="remove">--</a> List item</li> <li><a href="#" id="remove">--</a> List item</li> <li><a href="#" id="remove">--</a> List item</li> <li><a href="#" id="remove">--</a> List item</li> </ul>

    Read the article

  • NSTimer won't stop it only resets when invalidated & released

    - by J Fries
    When I press my stop button to stop the timer it just resets to the original time and begins counting down again. I have looked everywhere and all I have found is "invalidate" and it isn't working. I want the time to stop when I hit stop and the label to display the original time. I also turned off automatic counting so I could try releasing and it is giving me an error: 0x10e20a5: movl 16(%edx), %edx EXC_BAD_ACCESS (code=2, address=0x10) `NSTimer *rockettTimer; int rocketCount; @interface FirstViewController () @property (strong, nonatomic) IBOutlet UILabel *rocketTimer; - (IBAction)stopButton:(id)sender; - (IBAction)startButton:(id)sender; @end @implementation FirstViewController @synthesize rocketTimer; -(void) rocketTimerRun{ rocketCount = rocketCount - 1; int minuts = rocketCount / 60; int seconds = rocketCount - (minuts * 60); NSString *timerOutput = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d:%.2d", minuts, seconds]; rocketTimer.text = timerOutput; } - (IBAction)startButton:(id)sender { rocketCount = 180; rockettTimer = [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:1.0 target:self selector:@selector(rocketTimerRun) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; - (IBAction)stopButton:(id)sender { [rockettTimer invalidate]; //[rockettTimer release]; } - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; // Do any additional setup after loading the view, typically from a nib. } - (void)viewDidUnload { [self setRocketTimer:nil]; [super viewDidUnload]; // Release any retained subviews of the main view. } - (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation: (UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation { if ([[UIDevice currentDevice] userInterfaceIdiom] == UIUserInterfaceIdiomPhone) { return (interfaceOrientation != UIInterfaceOrientationPortraitUpsideDown); } else { return YES; } } @end`

    Read the article

  • JPA 2.0 Provider Hibernate Spring MVC 3.0

    - by user558019
    Dear All i have very strange problem we are using jpa 2.0 with hibernate and spring 3.0 mvc annotations based Database generated through JPA DDL is true and MySQL as Database; i will provide some refference classes and then my porblem. public abstract class Common implements serializable{ @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) @Column(name = "id", updatable = false) private Long id; @ManyToOne @JoinColumn private Address address; //with all getter and setters //as well equal and hashCode } public class Parent extends Common{ private String name; @OneToMany(cascade = {CascadeType.MERGE,CascadeType.PERSIST}, mappedBy = "parent") private List<Child> child; //setters and rest of class } public class child extends Common{ //some properties with getter/setters } public class Address implements Serializable{ @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) @Column(name = "id", updatable = false) private Long id; private String street; //rest of class with get/setter } as in code you can see that parents and child classes extends Common class so both have address property and id , the problem occurs when change the address refference in parent class it reflect same change in all child objects in list and if change address refference in child class then on merge it will change address refference of parent as well i am not able to figure out is it is problem of jpa or hibernate or spring thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • How to check dates don't overlap in a table using TSQL.

    - by Jon
    I have a table with start and finish datetimes that I need to determine if any overlap and not quite sure the best way to go. Initially I was thinking of using a nested cursor as shown below which does work, however I'm checking the same records against each other twice and I'm sure it is not very efficient. eg: this table would result in an overlap. id start end ------------------------------------------------------- 1 2009-10-22 10:19:00.000 2009-10-22 11:40:00.000 2 2009-10-22 10:31:00.000 2009-10-22 13:34:00.000 3 2009-10-22 16:31:00.000 2009-10-22 17:34:00.000 Declare @Start datetime, @End datetime, @OtherStart datetime, @OtherEnd datetime, @id int, @endCheck bit Set @endCheck = 0 DECLARE Cur1 CURSOR FOR select id, start, end from table1 OPEN Cur1 FETCH NEXT FROM Cur1 INTO @id, @Start, @End WHILE @@FETCH_STATUS = 0 AND @endCheck = 0 BEGIN -- Get a cursor on all the other records DECLARE Cur2 CURSOR FOR select start, end from table1 and id != @id OPEN Cur2 FETCH NEXT FROM Cur2 INTO @OtherStart, @OtherEnd WHILE @@FETCH_STATUS = 0 AND @endCheck = 0 BEGIN if ( @Start > @OtherStart AND @Start < @OtherEnd OR @End > @OtherStart AND @End < @OtherEnd ) or ( @OtherStart > @Start AND @OtherStart < @End OR @OtherEnd > @Start AND @OtherEnd < @End ) BEGIN SET @endCheck = 1 END FETCH NEXT FROM Cur2 INTO @OtherStart, @OtherEnd END CLOSE Cur2 DEALLOCATE Cur2 FETCH NEXT FROM Cur1 INTO @id, @Start, @End END CLOSE Cur1 DEALLOCATE Cur1

    Read the article

  • need help with jquery selector

    - by Gandalf StormCrow
    I have a following HTML : <ul class="someclass"> <li id="1"> <button type="button" class="grey"></button> </li> <li id="2"> <button type="button" class="grey"></button> </li> <li id="44"> <button type="button" class="grey"></button> </li> <li id="54"> <button type="button" class="grey"></button> </li> </ul> Now here is what I'm trying to accomplish with jquery : When button is clicked to find out id of parent li, here is how I tried and failed: $(".grey").live('click', function(){ alert($(this).parents("li").attr("id")); alert($(this).parents("li:first").attr("id")); }); Both give me null alerted, how can I do this ?

    Read the article

  • Divs don't toggle

    - by stackoverflowuser
    I have following divs on my page <div id="rpttimeline">div 1</div> <div id="rptareaview">div 2</div> <div id="rptgalleria">div 3</div> <div id="rptremainingwork">div 4</div> <div id="rptremainingspec">div 5</div> <div id="rptremainingreq">div 6</div> <div id="rptremaininguserstory">div 7</div> Initially through css I have the first two divs set to visible and the remaining are hidden. in my document ready function I have $(document).ready(function () { window.setInterval(toggleDivs, 5000); }); function toggleDivs() { $('#rpttimeline').toggle(); $('#rptareaview').toggle(); $('#rptgalleria').toggle(); $('#rptremainingwork').toggle(); $('#rptremainingspec').toggle(); $('#rptremainingreq').toggle(); $('#rptremaininguserstory').toggle(); } when toggledivs is called the first two divs get hidden but the other divs are not visible. It seems the toggle is affecting just the first two divs. Am I missing something here?

    Read the article

  • JSF: Using same jsp page for different outcomes

    - by ComputerPilot
    Would it be possible to use a navigation-case as shown below with the same view-id but different from-outcomes? In the managed bean, I wanted to compare the from-outcome values and decide on the group panel that I would display on the page. How can I get the from-outcome value in my managed bean? <navigation-case> <from-outcome>modifyphone</from-outcome> <to-view-id>/modifytelephone.jsp</to-view-id> </navigation-case> <navigation-case> <from-outcome>confirmmodifyphone</from-outcome> <to-view-id>/modifytelephone.jsp</to-view-id> </navigation-case> <navigation-case> <from-outcome>submitmodifyphone</from-outcome> <to-view-id>/modifytelephone.jsp</to-view-id> </navigation-case>

    Read the article

  • Using data.table to aggregate

    - by dayne
    After multiple suggestions from SO users, I am finally trying to convert my code over to using data.tables. library(data.table) DT <- data.table(plate = paste0("plate",rep(1:2,each=5)), id = rep(c("CTRL","CTRL","ID1","ID2","ID3"),2), val = 1:10) > DT plate id val 1: plate1 CTRL 1 2: plate1 CTRL 2 3: plate1 ID1 3 4: plate1 ID2 4 5: plate1 ID3 5 6: plate2 CTRL 6 7: plate2 CTRL 7 8: plate2 ID1 8 9: plate2 ID2 9 10: plate2 ID3 10 What I would like to do is take the average of DT[,val] by plate when the id is "CTRL". I would normally aggregate the data frame, then use match to map the values back to a new column, 'ctrl'. Using the data.table package I can get: DT[id=="CTRL",ctrl:=mean(val),by=plate] > DT plate id val ctrl 1: plate1 CTRL 1 1.5 2: plate1 CTRL 2 1.5 3: plate1 ID1 3 NA 4: plate1 ID2 4 NA 5: plate1 ID3 5 NA 6: plate2 CTRL 6 6.5 7: plate2 CTRL 7 6.5 8: plate2 ID1 8 NA 9: plate2 ID2 9 NA 10: plate2 ID3 10 NA What I need is really: DT <- data.table(plate = paste0("plate",rep(1:2,each=5)), id = rep(c("CTRL","CTRL","ID1","ID2","ID3"),2), val = 1:10, ctrl = rep(c(1.5,6.5),each=5)) > DT plate id val ctrl 1: plate1 CTRL 1 1.5 2: plate1 CTRL 2 1.5 3: plate1 ID1 3 1.5 4: plate1 ID2 4 1.5 5: plate1 ID3 5 1.5 6: plate2 CTRL 6 6.5 7: plate2 CTRL 7 6.5 8: plate2 ID1 8 6.5 9: plate2 ID2 9 6.5 10: plate2 ID3 10 6.5 Eventually I would like to use much more complicated selections of the values, but I do not know how to select specific values, run some function, then map those values back to the appropriate row using data frames.

    Read the article

  • how to get something to display only once in a while loop

    - by Matt Nathanson
    I've got a mysql query running and it checks to see if an iterator is equal to 1, then display this div title... if ($this->dliterator == 1) {echo "<div class='clientsection' id='downloads'>Downloads</div><br/>";}; The problem is, is that the dl iterator may not necessarily start at 1. (it is directly related to a downloadid from the database). How can I get this to display only for the first time through the loop ONLY? while ($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)) { if ($row['download'] != null){ if ($this->dliterator == 1) {echo "<div class='clientsection' id='downloads'>Downloads</div><br/>";}; if ($editDownload == 1) { echo "<div class='clientlink' style='margin-top: 15px;'>"; echo "<input name='downloads[$this->dliterator][name]' type='text' id='download$this->dliterator' value='" . $row['download'] . "'/>"; echo "<input name='downloads[$this->dliterator][title]' type='text' id='downloadtitle$this->dliterator' value='" . $row['downloadtitle'] . "'/>"; echo "<img class='removelink' src='/images/deletelink.png' width='15' />"; echo "<input id='downloadid' name='downloads[$this->dliterator][id]' type='hidden' value='".$row['downloadid']."' style='display: none'/>"; echo "<br/><img id='uploaddownload$uploaditerator' class='uploaddownload' src='../images/upload.png' width='80'/>"; echo "</div>"; }; }; $this->dliterator++; $uploaditerator++; };

    Read the article

  • Querying for a unique value based on the aggregate of another value while grouping on a third value

    - by Justin Swartsel
    So I know this problem isn't a new one, but I'm trying to wrap my head around it and understand the best way to deal with scenarios like this. Say I have a hypothetical table 'X' that looks like this: GroupID ID (identity) SomeDateTime -------------------------------------------- 1 1000 1/1/01 1 1001 2/2/02 1 1002 3/3/03 2 1003 4/4/04 2 1004 5/5/05 I want to query it so the result set looks like this: ---------------------------------------- 1 1002 3/3/03 2 1004 5/5/05 Basically what I want is the MAX SomeDateTime value grouped by my GroupID column. The kicker is that I DON'T want to group by the ID column, I just want to know the 'ID' that corresponds to the MAX SomeDateTime. I know one pseudo-solution would be: ;WITH X1 as ( SELECT MAX(SomeDateTime) as SomeDateTime, GroupID FROM X GROUP BY GroupID ) SELECT X1.SomeDateTime, X1.GroupID, X2.ID FROM X1 INNER JOIN X as X2 ON X.DateTime = X2.DateTime But this doesn't solve the fact that a DateTime might not be unique. And it seems sloppy to join on a DateTime like that. Another pseudo-solution could be: SELECT X.GroupID, MAX(X.ID) as ID, MAX(X.SomeDateTime) as SomeDateTime FROM X GROUP BY X.GroupID But there are no guarantees that ID will actually match the row that SomeDateTime comes from. A third less useful option might be: SELECT TOP 1 X.GroupID, X.ID, X.SomeDateTime FROM X WHERE X.GroupID = 1 ORDER BY X.SomeDateTime DESC But obviously that only works with a single, known, GroupID. I want to be able to join this result set on GroupID and/or ID. Does anyone know of any clever solutions? Any good uses of windowing functions? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How to persist in order

    - by parhs
    I have two entities: EXAM and EXAM_NORMAL. EXAM @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy=GenerationType.IDENTITY) private Long id; private String name; private String codeName; @Enumerated(EnumType.STRING) private ExamType examType; @ManyToOne private Category category; @OneToMany(mappedBy="id",cascade=CascadeType.PERSIST) @OrderBy("id") private List<Exam_Normal> exam_Normal; EXAM_NORMAL @Id private Long item; @Id @ManyToOne private Exam id; @Enumerated(EnumType.STRING) private Gender gender; private Integer age_month_from; private Integer age_month_to; The problem is that if I put a list of EXAM_NORMAL at an EXAM class if I try to persist(EXAM) I get an error because it tries to persist EXAM_NORMAL first but it cant because the primary key of EXAM is missing because it isn't persisted... Is there any way to define the order? Or should I set null the list, persist and then set the list again? thanks:)

    Read the article

  • Linq2Sql - attempting to update but the Set statement in sql is empty

    - by MrTortoise
    This is weird ... done updates loads of times before but cannot spot why this is different. I have a client class from the dbml I added a method called update public void UpdateSingle() { L2SDataContext dc = new L2SDataContext(); Client c = dc.Clients.Single<Client>(p => p.ID == this.ID); c.CopyToMe(this); c.updatedOn = DateTime.Now; dc.SubmitChanges(); dc.Dispose(); } The CopytoMe method public void CopyToMe(Client theObject) { if (ID != theObject.ID) { ID = theObject.ID; } /// this is redundant as generated code checks field for a change. deleted = theObject.deleted; deletedBy = theObject.deletedBy; deletedOn = theObject.deletedOn; insertedBy = theObject.insertedBy; insertedOn = theObject.insertedOn; name = theObject.name; updatedBy = theObject.updatedBy; updatedOn = theObject.updatedOn; } Im taking a client that was selected, changing its name and then calling this update method. The generated sql is as follows exec sp_executesql N'UPDATE [dbo].[tblClient] SET WHERE ([ID] = @p0) AND ([name] = @p1) AND ([insertedOn] = @p2) AND ([insertedBy] = @p3) AND ([updatedOn] = @p4) AND ([updatedBy] = @p5) AND ([deletedOn] IS NULL) AND ([deletedBy] IS NULL) AND (NOT ([deleted] = 1))',N'@p0 int,@p1 varchar(8000),@p2 datetime,@p3 int,@p4 datetime,@p5 int',@p0=103,@p1='UnitTestClient',@p2=''2010-05-17 11:33:22:520'',@p3=3,@p4=''2010-05-17 11:33:22:520'',@p5=3 I have no idea why this is not working ... used this kind of select object, set field to new value submit the selected object pattern many times and not had this problem. there is also nothing obviously wrong with the dbml - although this is probably a false statement any ideas?

    Read the article

  • How to control div on hover:?

    - by AAA
    I found a way to change the background color of a menu option upon hover. However, when you hover an option, it takes up some wide space that moves all the other options to the right, its sort of annoying, i want to maintain a consistent space, so if i hover, only the color should change, not the option moving to the right. Sort of the way facebook has its menu options. Below is the code: <div id="menu"> <a href="/hello" id="option">home</a> <a href="/hello" id="option">profile</a> <a href="/hello" id="option">account</a> <a href="/hello" id="option">settings</a> <a href="/hello" id="option">extra</a> <a href="/hello" id="option">logout</a> </div> CSS: div#menu { margin-left: 630px; margin-top:-20px; } option { margin-left: 20px; } #option:hover{ background: #3F2327; padding: 10px; }

    Read the article

  • PHP - Use isset inside function not working..?

    - by pnichols
    I have a PHP script that when loaded, check first if it was loaded via a POST, if not if GET['id'] is a number. Now I know I could do this like this: if(isset($_GET['id']) AND isNum($_GET['id'])) { ... } function isNum($data) { $data = sanitize($data); if ( ctype_digit($data) ) { return true; } else { return false; } } But I would like to do it this way: if(isNum($_GET['id'])) { ... } function isNum($data) { if ( isset($data) ) { $data = sanitize($data); if ( ctype_digit($data) ) { return true; } else { return false; } } else { return false; } } When I try it this way, if $_GET['id'] isn't set, I get a warning of undefined index: id... It's like as soon as I put my $_GET['id'] within my function call, it sends a warning... Even though my function will check if that var is set or not... Is there another way to do what I want to do, or am I forced to always check isset then add my other requirements..??

    Read the article

  • Jquery - $.(post) data response not consistent with PHP

    - by Sasha
    Jquery code: var code = $('#code'), id = $('input[name=id]').val(), url = '<?php echo base_url() ?>mali_oglasi/mgl_check_paid'; code.on('focusout', function(){ var code_value = $(this).val(); if(code_value.length != 16 ) { if ($('p[role=code_msg]').length != 0 ) $('p[role=code_msg]').remove() ; code.after('<p role=code_msg>Pogrešan kod je unešen.</p>'); } else { if ($('p[role=code_msg]').length != 0 ) $('p[role=code_msg]').remove() ; $.post(url, {id : id, code : code_value}, function(data){ if(data != 'TRUE'){ code.after('<p role=code_msg>Uneti kod je neispravan.</p>'); } else { code.after('<p role=code_msg>Status malog oglasa je promenjen.</p>'); code.after(create_image()); code.remove(); } }); } }); PHP (Codeigniter) code: function mgl_check_paid() { $code = $this->input->post('code'); $id = $this->input->post('id'); echo ($this->mgl->mgl_check_paid($code, $id)) ? 'TRUE' : 'FALSE'; } Problem is following: When code is sent and if it is correct, PHP part will echo TRUE, and JS will execute ELSE part (after post), but for some reason it is not doing that (it is executing the first part of the statment)? What is wrong with this code?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180  | Next Page >