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• What does an object look like in memory?

  - by NeilMonday

  This is probably a really dumb question, but I will ask anyway. I am curious what an object looks like in memory. Obviously it would have to have all of its member data in it. I assume that functions for an object would not be duplicated in memory (or maybe I am wrong?). It would seem wasteful to have 999 objects in memory all with the same function defined over and over. If there is only 1 function in memory for all 999 objects, then how does each function know who's member data to modify (I specifically want to know at the low level). Is there an object pointer that gets sent to the function behind the scenes? Perhaps it is different for every compiler? Also, how does the static keyword affect this? With static member data, I would think that all 999 objects would use the exact same memory location for their static member data. Where does this get stored? Static functions I guess would also just be one place in memory, and would not have to interact with instantiated objects, which I think I understand.

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• mscomctl.ocx on my dev machine gives me problems since security patch of MS

  - by Bronzato

  I am busy on this problem since 2 days ago and hope someone can get me out of it. I have Excel 2010 (full install 944Mb) on my Windows 8 computer. It works well. But when I modify my workbook (containing a ListView version 6.0) I am not able to run it on my client's computer. I get the error: Could Not Load An Object. Not Available on This Machine. Even it works well on my dev machine. The reason is: Microsoft applied a Security Patch (near august 2012 I think) on mscomctl.ocx and my Excel 2010 installation files (downloaded not long ago) contains the new version of mscomctl.ocx. The clients using my Excel file don't apply the security patch at this moment. Se everytime I publish my Excel file to client's computers (from my dev environment), I reference the new mscomctl.ocx. That's the problem. I already try to get the old mscomctl.ocx from client's computer and copy & register it on my dev machine but then I got errors (Class not registered, ...) when I create a userform and drag a listview on it. So: mscomctl.ocx on client's machine is version 6.1.98.13 from 2008. mscomctl.ocx on my dev machine is version 6.1.98.34 from 2012. My question: Does someone have an idea how to proceed to have a usable version of mscomctl.ocx on my dev machine? Thank you very much.

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• Checking if user owns file before deleting it

  - by Martin Hoe

  I'm building an API for my site that allows users to delete the files they upload. Obviously, I want to check if the user owns that file before they delete it through the API. I have a files table and a users table, here's the schema: f_id, s_id, u_id, name, size, uploaded u_id, username, password, email, activated, activation_code u_id is a foreign key. The u_id field in the files table points to the u_id in the users table. Given the users username, I want to find the users u_id, and then check if they own the file through the file ID (f_id). I wrote this SQL: $sql = 'SELECT u.username FROM `users` u JOIN `files` f ON u.u_id = f.u_id WHERE f_id = ? AND u.u_id = ? LIMIT 1'; I'm assuming that'd work if I was given the users u_id in the API request, but alas I'm given only their username. How can I modify that SQL to find their user ID and use that? Thanks. Edit: Alright I've got this query but it's always returning an empty result set even though both the file ID and username exist. SELECT u.username FROM `users` u JOIN `files` f ON u.u_id = f.u_id WHERE f.f_id = ? AND u.username = ? LIMIT 1

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• At what point is it worth using a database?

  - by radix07

  I have a question relating to databases and at what point is worth diving into one. I am primarily an embedded engineer, but I am writing an application using QT to interface with our controller. We are at an odd point where we have enough data that it would be feasible to implement a database (around 700+ items and growing) to manage everything, but I am not sure it is worth the time right now to deal with. I have no problems implementing the GUI with files generated from excel and parsed in, but it gets tedious and hard to track even with VBA scripts. I have been playing around with converting our data into something more manageable for the application side with Microsoft Access and that seems to be working well. If that works out I am only a step (or several) away from using an SQL database and using the QT library to access and modify it. I don't have much experience managing data at this level and am curious what may be the best way to approach this. So what are some of the real benefits of using a database if any in this case? I realize much of this can be very application specific, but some general ideas and suggestions on how to straddle the embedded/application programming line would be helpful. Thanks

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• How to do this in a smart way

  - by Azzyh

  Hello SO. My websystem im coding with now is integrated from the originally phpBB system. With this i mean when you log on my websystem, you have actually logged into the forum from the login page. Now i came to the "log out" part, and i want to make it smart. Right now its a simply link with logout: <a href="<?php echo BASEDIR; ?>../../ucp.php?mode=logout&sid=<? echo $user->data['session_id']; ?>" style="margin-left: 14px; font-size: 10px;">- Log Out</a> As you see in the link it refers to the forum´s ucp.php?mode=logout, and you need to have the SID variable in it in order to log out right.. anyway.. I want to do this log out part in a smart way, i mean, not so you land on the forum´s "you have now been logged out", i want something maybe like run this page in background when you click, and then it refreshes the current page your on. Or should it be smarter just try to modify the phpbb file ucp.php? I think its hard coded, and not the way I am coding, so thats why i find it abit tricky. Thank you for your answers and examples on how this could be done, in a smart way..

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• Building simple jQuery plugin, need assistance

  - by kirisu_kun

  Hi there, I'm building my first ever jQuery plugin (it's just a simple experiment). Here's what I have so far: (function($){ $.fn.extend({ auchieFader: function(options) { var defaults = { mask: '', topImg : '', } var options = $.extend(defaults, options); return this.each(function() { var o = options; var obj = $(this); var masker = $(o.mask, obj); masker.hover(function () { $(o.topImg).stop().animate({ "opacity": "0" }, "slow"); }, function () { $(o.topImg).stop().animate({ "opacity": "1" }, "slow"); }); }); } }); })(jQuery); I'm then calling the plugin using: $('.fader').auchieFader({mask: ".mask", topImg: ".top"}); If I then add another request say: $('.fader2').auchieFader({mask: ".mask", topImg: ".top"}); Then no matter what instance of my 2 faders I hover both of them will trigger. I know this is because my mask mask and topImg options have the same class - but how can I modify the plugin to allow for these items to have the same class? I know it's probably something really simple, but I'm still finding my way with jQuery and Javascript in general. Any other tips on improving my code would also be greatly appreciated! Cheers, Chris

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• replacing elements horizontally and vertically in a 2D array

  - by wello horld

  the code below ask for the user's input for the 2D array size and prints out something like this: (say an 18x6 grid) .................. .................. .................. .................. .................. .................. code starts here: #include <stdio.h> #define MAX 10 int main() { char grid[MAX][MAX]; int i,j,row,col; printf("Please enter your grid size: "); scanf("%d %d", &row, &col); for (i = 0; i < row; i++) { for (j = 0; j < col; j++) { grid[i][j] = '.'; printf("%c ", grid[i][j]); } printf("\n"); } return 0; } I now ask the user for a string, then ask them where to put it for example: Please enter grid size: 18 6 Please enter word: Hello Please enter location: 0 0 Output: Hello............. .................. .................. .................. .................. .................. Please enter location: 3 4 Output: .................. .................. .................. ..Hello........... .................. .................. program just keeps going. Any thoughts on how to modify the code for this? PS: Vertical seems way hard, but I want to start on horizontal first to have something to work on.

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• Grails - Where to store properties related to domains

  - by GalmWing

  This is something I have been struggling about for some time now. The thing is: I have many (20 or so) static arrays of values. I say static because that is how I'm actually storing them, as static arrays inside some domains. For example, if I have a list of known websites, I do: class Website { ... static websites = ["web1", "web2" ...] } But I do this just while developing, because I can easily change the arrays if needed, but what I'm going to do when the application is ready for deployment? In my project it is very probable that, at some point, these arrays of values change. I've been researching on that matter, one can store application properties inside an external .properties file, but it will be impossible to store an array, even futile, because if some array gets an additional value, the application can't recognize it until the name of the new property is added where needed. Another approach is to store this information in the database, but for some reason it seems like a waste to add 20 or more tables that will have just two rows, an id and a name. And the last option, as far as I know, would be an XML, but I'm not very experienced with those. It seems groovy has a way of creating and reading XML files relatively easy, but I don't know how difficult would be to modify an XML whose layout is predefined in the application. Needless to say that storing them in the config.groovy is not an option since any change will require to recompile. I haven't come across some "standard" (maybe a best practice?) way of dealing with these. So the questions is: Where to store these arrays?

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• Running an application from an USB device...

  - by Workshop Alex

  I'm working on a proof-of-concept application, containing a WCF service with console host and client, both on a single USB device. On the same device I will also have the client application which will connect to this service. The service uses the entity framework to connect to the database, which in this POC will just return a list of names. If it works, it will be used for a larger project. Creating the client and service was easy and this works well from USB. But getting the service to connect to the database isn't. I've found this site, suggesting that I should modify machine.config but that stops the XCopy deployment. This project cannot change any setting of the PC, so this suggestion is bad. I cannot create a deployment setup either. The whole thing just needs to run from USB disk. So, how do I get it to run? (The service just selects a list of names from the database, which it returns to the client. If this POC works, it will do far more complex things!)

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• updating a column in a table only if after the update it won't be negative and identifying all updat

  - by Azeem

  Hello all, I need some help with a SQL query. Here is what I need to do. I'm lost on a few aspects as outlined below. I've four relevant tables: Table A has the price per unit for all resources. I can look up the price using a resource id. Table B has the funds available to a given user. Table C has the resource production information for a given user (including the number of units to produce everyday). Table D has the number of units ever produced by any given user (can be identified by user id and resource id) Having said that, I need to run a batch job on a nightly basis to do the following: a. for all users, identify whether they have the funds needed to produce the number of resources specified in table C and deduct the funds if they are available from table B (calculating the cost using table A). b. start the process to produce resources and after the resource production is complete, update table D using values from table C after the resource product is complete. I figured the second part can be done by using an UPDATE with a subquery. However, I'm not sure how I should go about doing part a. I can only think of using a cursor to fetch each row, examine and update. Is there a single sql statement that will help me avoid having to process each row manually? Additionally, if any rows weren't updated, the part b. SQL should not produce resources for that user. Basically, I'm attempting to modify the sql being used for this logic that currently is in a stored procedure to something that will run a lot faster (and won't process each row separately). Please let me know any ideas and thoughts. Thanks! - Azeem

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• Html 5 Time Tag not recognized by IE8 when cloning

  - by matsientst

  I have been having trouble getting IE to recognize the new Time tag in this context. This all works great in FF. Here is the code: var origComment = $('.articleComment:first div'); if (origComment.length > 0) { var commentHtml = origComment.clone(true); commentHtml.find('time').text('today'); var html = '<article class="' + ((side == 'LEFT') ? '' : 'that') + '">' + commentHtml.html() + '</article>'; $(html).insertAfter('.articleComment:last'); The HTML looks something like this: <article class="articleComment that"> <div id="156" class="parent"> <div class="byline"> <p>Posted <time pubdate="pubdate" datetime="2010-05-07T09:11:08">today</time> by<br/> <a class="username" href="/u/matt">matt</a> </p> <p class="report"><a href="#">Report?</a></p> </div> <div class="comment">left</div> </div> </article> IE can find the Time tag but it returns a collection of 2 elements. I assume the beginning and ending. However, I cannot access it to modify it. I have tried val(), html() and text(). I also can't drop to the actual HTMLElement. I can't get(0).innerHTML. But, if I .get(0).tagName it actually is the Time tag I've got. Any ideas? I hope this makes sense.

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• ORDERBY "human" alphabetical order using SQL string manipulation

  - by supertrue

  I have a table of posts with titles that are in "human" alphabetical order but not in computer alphabetical order. These are in two flavors, numerical and alphabetical: Numerical: Figure 1.9, Figure 1.10, Figure 1.11... Alphabetical: Figure 1A ... Figure 1Z ... Figure 1AA If I orderby title, the result is that 1.10-1.19 come between 1.1 and 1.2, and 1AA-1AZ come between 1A and 1B. But this is not what I want; I want "human" alphabetical order, in which 1.10 comes after 1.9 and 1AA comes after 1Z. I am wondering if there's still a way in SQL to get the order that I want using string manipulation (or something else I haven't thought of). I am not an expert in SQL, so I don't know if this is possible, but if there were a way to do conditional replacement, then it seems I could impose the order I want by doing this: delete the period (which can be done with replace, right?) if the remaining figure number is more than three characters, add a 0 (zero) after the first character. This would seem to give me the outcome I want: 1.9 would become 109, which comes before 110; 1Z would become 10Z, which comes before 1AA. But can it be done in SQL? If so, what would the syntax be? Note that I don't want to modify the data itself—just to output the results of the query in the order described. This is in the context of a Wordpress installation, but I think the question is more suitably an SQL question because various things (such as pagination) depend on the ordering happening at the MySQL query stage, rather than in PHP.

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• Design patterns for Caching Images in a MVC?

  - by Onema

  Hi, I'm designing an image cache system that will be used in an MVC CMS. The main purpose of the image cacher is to modify images: scale, crop, etc and cache them in the client site. I have created an image cache Model and Mapper that interact with the Database, to keep track of the images and know what kind of actions have been applied to them (scale, crop, etc). In addition to the Model and Mapper I have created a ImageCacher Class that is used by the API to manage the Model and image creation based on arguments passed by the client site, this class creates the images and generates the links to the images for the View. A coworker argued that I need to include the functionality of this last Class inside the Model, as the bulk of the logic should go in the model. I respectfully disagree with him since I feel the model's responsibility is to deal with the information about the images cached at the database level, and the responsibility of the ImageCacher Class is to create the url/image that we will be caching (keeping the single responsibility principle). In addition to this I believe that a model should not have Presentation-related features, like creating or showing images. Does anyone have any insight on this? is there a particular design pattern that would make this division of tasks clear and and the image cacher reusable? Should I add all the logic in the Model? Thank you.

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• How to proxy calls to the instance of an object

  - by mr.b

  Edit: Changed question title from "Does C# allow method overloading, PHP style (__call)?" - figured out it doesn't have much to do with actual question. Also edited question text. What I want to accomplish is to proxy calls to a an instance of an object methods, so I could log calls to any of its methods. Right now, I have code similar to this: class ProxyClass { static logger; public AnotherClass inner { get; private set; } public ProxyClass() { inner = new AnotherClass(); } } class AnotherClass { public void A() {} public void B() {} public void C() {} // ... } // meanwhile, in happyCodeLandia... ProxyClass pc = new ProxyClass(); pc.inner.A(); // need to write log message like "method A called" pc.inner.B(); // need to write log message like "method B called" // ... So, how can I proxy calls to an object instance in extensible way? Method overloading would be most obvious solution (if it was supported in PHP way). By extensible, meaning that I don't have to modify ProxyClass whenever AnotherClass changes. In my case, AnotherClass can have any number of methods, so it wouldn't be appropriate to overload or wrap all methods to add logging. I am aware that this might not be the best approach for this kind of problem, so if anyone has idea what approach to use, shoot. Thanks!

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• NVelocity (or Velocity) as a stand-alone formula evaluator

  - by dana

  I am using NVelocity in my application to generate html emails. My application has an event-driven model, where saving and/or updating of objects causes these emails to be sent out. Each event can trigger zero, one or multiple multiple emails. I want to be able to configure which emails get sent out at run-time without having to modify code. I was thinking I could leverage the NVelocity #if() directive to do this. Here is my idea... Step 1) Prior to email sending, the administrator must configure a formula for NVelocity to evaluate. For example: $User.FirstName == "Jack" Step 2) When an object is saved or created, build an NVelocity template in memory based on the input formula. For example: String formula = GetFormulaFromDB(); // $User.FirstName == "Jack" String templ = "#if( " + formula + ") 1 #else 0 #end"; Step 3) Execute the NVelocity engine in memory against the template. Check the results to see if we have to send the email: String result = VelocityMerge(templ); // utility function if( result.Trim() == "1" ) { SendEmail(); } I know this is not exactly what NVelocity was intended to do, but I think it just might work :) One of the benefits of doing things this way is that the same syntax can be used for the formula as is used inside the template. Does anybody have any words of caution or suggestions? Is there a way to execute the #if() directive without jumping through hoops like I have above? Is there a recommended way to validate the formula syntax ahead of time? Thanks.

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• Mysql - Help me alter this query to apply AND logic instead of OR in searching?

  - by sandeepan-nath

  First execute these tables and data dumps :- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `Tags` ( `id_tag` int(10) unsigned NOT NULL auto_increment, `tag` varchar(255) default NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id_tag`), UNIQUE KEY `tag` (`tag`), KEY `id_tag` (`id_tag`), KEY `tag_2` (`tag`), KEY `tag_3` (`tag`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 AUTO_INCREMENT=18 ; INSERT INTO `Tags` (`id_tag`, `tag`) VALUES (1, 'key1'), (2, 'key2'); CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `Tutors_Tag_Relations` ( `id_tag` int(10) unsigned NOT NULL default '0', `id_tutor` int(10) default NULL, KEY `Tutors_Tag_Relations` (`id_tag`), KEY `id_tutor` (`id_tutor`), KEY `id_tag` (`id_tag`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1; INSERT INTO `Tutors_Tag_Relations` (`id_tag`, `id_tutor`) VALUES (1, 1), (2, 1); The following query finds all the tutors from Tutors_Tag_Relations table which have reference to at least one of the terms "key1" or "key2". SELECT td . * FROM Tutors_Tag_Relations AS td INNER JOIN Tags AS t ON t.id_tag = td.id_tag WHERE t.tag LIKE "%key1%" OR t.tag LIKE "%key2%" Group by td.id_tutor LIMIT 10 Please help me modify this query so that it returns all the tutors from Tutors_Tag_Relations table which have reference to both the terms "key1" and "key2" (AND logic instead of OR logic). Please suggest an optimized query considering huge number of data records (the query should NOT individually fetch two sets of tutors matching each keyword and then find the intersection).

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• Best ways to construct Dynamic Search Conditions for Sql

  - by CoolBeans

  I have always wondered what's the best way to achieve this task. In most web based applications you have to provide search options on many different criteria. Based on what criteria is chosen behind the scene you modify your SQL. Generally, this is how I tend to go about it:- Have a base SQL template. In the base template have conditions like this WHERE [#PRE_COND1] AND [#PRE_COND2] .. so on and so forth. So an example SQL might look something like SELECT NAME,AGE FROM PERSONS [,#TABLE2] [,#TABLE3] WHERE [#PRE_COND1] AND [#PRE_COND2] ORDER BY [#ORD_COND1] AND [#ORD_COND2] etc. During run time after figuring out the all the search criteria user has entered, I replace the [#PRE_COND1]s and [#ORD_COND1]s with the appropriate SQLs and then execute the query. I personally do not like this brute force method. However, I never came across a better approach either. How do you accomplish such tasks generally given you are either using native JDBC or Spring JDBC? It is almost like I need a C MACRO like functionality in Java to do this.

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• How to allow devise users to edit their profil?

  - by user1704926

  I have a namespace called "backend" which is protected by Devise. I would like now to allow users to edit their profil. So I created a users_controller in Backend. Here's the users_controllercode : class Backend::UsersController < ApplicationController layout 'admin' before_filter :authenticate_user! def index @users = Backend::User.all respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.json { render json: @users } end end def show @user = Backend::User.find(params[:id]) respond_to do |format| format.html # show.html.erb format.json { render json: @user } end end def edit @user = Backend::User.find(params[:id]) end def update @user = Backend::User.find(params[:id]) respond_to do |format| if @user.update_attributes(params[:user]) format.html { redirect_to @user, notice: 'Article was successfully updated.' } format.json { head :no_content } else format.html { render action: "edit" } format.json { render json: @user.errors, status: :unprocessable_entity } end end end end When I go on backend_users_path there is a list of all the users. I would like to permit to edit only his own profil. So I go on the Edit page : <%= link_to "Edit", edit_backend_user_path(backend_user.id) %> . Here's the Edit page code : <%= simple_form_for @user do |f| %> <div><%= f.label :email %><br /> <%= f.input :email, :autofocus => true %></div> <div><%= f.submit "Update" %></div> <% end %> And there is my problem : when I try to modify the email address, nothing happen. The update fails. How can I do this ? I'm quite lost. Thanks by advance.

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• .net remoting - Better solution to wait for a service to initialize ?

  - by CitizenInsane

  Context I have a client application (which i cannot modify, i.e. i only have the binary) that needs to run from time to time external commands that depends on a resource which is very long to initialize (about 20s). I thus decided to initialize this resource once for all in a "CommandServer.exe" application (single instance in the system tray) and let my client application call an intermediate "ExecuteCommand.exe" program that uses .net remoting to perform the operation on the server. The "ExecuteCommand.exe" is in charge for starting the server on first call and then leave it alive to speed up further commands. The service: public interface IMyService { void ExecuteCommand(string[] args); } The "CommandServer.exe" (using WindowsFormsApplicationBase for single instance management + user friendly splash screen during resource initializations): private void onStartupFirstInstance(object sender, StartupEventArgs e) { // Register communication channel channel = new TcpServerChannel("CommandServerChannel", 8234); ChannelServices.RegisterChannel(channel, false); // Register service var resource = veryLongToInitialize(); service = new MyServiceImpl(resource); RemotingServices.Marshal(service, "CommandServer"); // Create icon in system tray notifyIcon = new NotifyIcon(); ... } The intermediate "ExecuteCommand.exe": static void Main(string[] args) { startCommandServerIfRequired(); var channel = new TcpClientChannel(); ChannelServices.RegisterChannel(channel, false); var service = (IMyService)Activator.GetObject(typeof(IMyService), "tcp://localhost:8234/CommandServer"); service.RunCommand(args); } Problem As the server is very long to start (about 20s to initialize the required resources), the "ExecuteCommand.exe" fails on service.RunCommand(args) line because the server is yet not available. Question Is there a elegant way I can tune the delay before to receive "service not available" when calling service.RunCommand ? NB1: Currently I'm working around the issue by adding a mutex in server to indicate for complete initiliazation and have "ExecuteCommand.exe" to wait for this mutex before to call service.RunCommand. NB2: I have no background with .net remoting, nor WCF which is recommended replacer. (I chose .net remoting because this looked easier to set-up for this single shot issue in running external commands).

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• Live clock javascript starts from my custom time

  - by newworroo

  I was trying to create a live/dynamic clock is based on my custom time instead of system time. There are many scripts, but I couldn't find the clock starts from my custom time. Here is an example that I'm trying to modify. The problem is the seconds doesn't change, and it looks like I need to use ajax. Is there any way to do it without ajax? If not, help me to do it using ajax!!! The reason I don't like ajax method is that another page should be called and refreshed, so it will eat server ram. ex) http://www.javascriptkit.com/script/cut2.shtml Before: <script> function show(){ var Digital=new Date() var hours=Digital.getHours() var minutes=Digital.getMinutes() var seconds=Digital.getSeconds() ... ... After: <script> function show(){ var Digital=new Date() var hours=<?php echo $hr; ?>; var minutes=<?php echo $min; ?>; var seconds=<?php echo $sec; ?>; ... ...

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• Waiting until one event has happened before moving onto the next.

  - by jaasum

  I currently have a scrolling anchor animation that also adds an "active" class to the anchor clicked. I am trying to fit the below function into the works as well, so say someone clicks "anchor 1", "anchor 1" will get an active class and the window will scroll to that location. But, after that has happened say the user manually begins scrolling down the page, I want the active class to be removed. The problem I am running up against now is that the below function will happen when the scrolling animation from a clicked anchor is taking place. How can I disable this only when the window is being scrolled from a clicked anchor? $(window).scroll(function() { $('a[href^=#]').removeClass('active'); }); Here is the scrolling anchor script I am working with. /******* *** Anchor Slider by Cedric Dugas *** *** Http://www.position-absolute.com *** Never have an anchor jumping your content, slide it. Don't forget to put an id to your anchor ! You can use and modify this script for any project you want, but please leave this comment as credit. *****/ jQuery.fn.anchorAnimate = function(settings) { settings = jQuery.extend({ speed : 500 }, settings); return this.each(function(){ var caller = this $(caller).click(function (event) { event.preventDefault() var locationHref = window.location.href var elementClick = $(caller).attr("href") var destination = $(elementClick).offset().top; $("html:not(:animated),body:not(:animated)").animate({ scrollTop: destination}, settings.speed, 'easeOutCubic', function() { window.location.hash = elementClick }); return false; }) }) } And lastly, my jQuery // Scrolling Anchors $('[href^=#]').anchorAnimate(); // Active Class For Clicked Anchors var anchorscroll = $('a[href^=#]') anchorscroll.click(function(){ var anchorlocation = $(this).attr("href"); anchorscroll.removeClass('active'); $(this).addClass('active'); $('a[href='+anchorlocation+']').addClass('active'); });

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• Help Redirecting A Page to Another Page with adverts for 5 seconds, and then redirecting to another page.

  - by XcodeDev

  Hey, I am trying to redirect a page to another page, and that was working successfully. However I am trying to redirect the first page to another page with adverts. This page will then redirect to another page after five seconds. I am trying to do that by doing this: <?php include('ads.php'); ?> <?php sleep(2); $url = $_GET['url']; header("Location: ".$url.""); exit; ?> However it is showing the advert in ads.php perfectly, but it is not redirecting after five seconds. I am receiving this error in my web browser: Warning: Cannot modify header information - headers already sent by (output started at /home/nucleusi/public_html/adverts/ads.php:1) in /home/nucleusi/public_html/adverts/index.php on line 7 A typical link I would be redirecting to would be this: http://nucleusiphone.com/adverts/index.php/?url=http%3A%2F%2Fitunes.apple.com%2Fmx%2Falbum%2Fstill-got-the-blues%2Fid14135178%3Fi%3D14135158 Thanks in advanced. PS. I don't know any php so any code helps!

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• Java redirected system output to jtext area, doesnt update until calculation is finished

  - by user1806716

  I have code that redirects system output to a jtext area, but that jtextarea doesnt update until the code is finished running. How do I modify the code to make the jtextarea update in real time during runtime? private void updateTextArea(final String text) { SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { consoleTextAreaInner.append(text); } }); } private void redirectSystemStreams() { OutputStream out = new OutputStream() { @Override public void write(int b) throws IOException { updateTextArea(String.valueOf((char) b)); } @Override public void write(byte[] b, int off, int len) throws IOException { updateTextArea(new String(b, off, len)); } @Override public void write(byte[] b) throws IOException { write(b, 0, b.length); } }; System.setOut(new PrintStream(out, true)); System.setErr(new PrintStream(out, true)); } The rest of the code is mainly just an actionlistener for a button: private void updateButtonActionPerformed(java.awt.event.ActionEvent evt) { // TODO add your handling code here: String shopRoot = this.shopRootDirTxtField.getText(); String updZipPath = this.updateZipTextField.getText(); this.mainUpdater = new ShopUpdater(new File(shopRoot), updZipPath); this.mainUpdater.update(); } That update() method begins the process of copying+pasting files on the file system and during that process uses system.out.println to provide an up-to-date status on where the program is currently at in reference to how many more files it has to copy.

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• How can you exclude a large number of records in a cross db query using LINQ2SQL?

  - by tap

  So here is my situation: I have a vendor supplied DB we cannot modify and a custom db that imports data from the vendor app and acts on it. Once records are imported form the vendor app, they cannot appear on the list of records to be imported. Also we only want to display the 250 most recent records that have not been imported. What I originally started with was select the list of ids that have been imported from the custom db, and then query the vendor db, using the list of ids in a .Where(x = !idList.Contains(x.Id)) clause on the remote query. This worked up until we broke 2100 records imported into the custom db, as 2100 is the limit on the number of parameters that can be passed into SQL. After finding out this was the actual problem and not the 'invalid buffer'/'severe error' ADO.Net reported, my solution was to remove the first 2000 ids in the remote query, and then remove the remaining records in the local query. Having to pull back a large number of irrelevant records, just to exclude them, so I can get the correct 250 records seems very inelegant. Is there a better way to do this, short of doing a cross db stored procedure? Thanks in advance.

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• mysql query not running correctly from inside the application

  - by Mala

  I am completely stumped. Here is my php (CodeIgniter) code: function mod() { $uid = $this->session->userdata('uid'); $pid = $this->input->post('pid'); if ($this->_verify($uid,$pid)) { $name = $this->input->post('name'); $price = $this->input->post('price'); $curr = $this->input->post('curr'); $url = $this->input->post('url'); $query = $this->db->query("UPDATE items SET name=".$this->db->escape($name).", price=".$this->db->escape($price).", currency=".$this->db->escape($curr),", url=".$this->db->escape($url)." WHERE pid=".$this->db->escape($pid)." LIMIT 1"); } header('location: '.$this->session->userdata('current')); } The purpose of this code is to modify the properties (name, price, currency, url) of a row in the 'items' table (priary key is pid). However, for some reason, allowing this function to run once modifies the name, price, currency and url of ALL entries in the table, regardless of their pid and of the LIMIT 1 thing I tacked on the end of the query. It's as if the last line of the query is being completely ignored. As if this wasn't strance enough, I replaced "$query = $this->db->query(" with an "echo" to see the SQL query being run, and it outputs a query much like I would expect: UPDATE items SET name='newname', price='newprice', currency='newcurrency', url='newurl' WHERE pid='10' LIMIT 1 Copy-pasting this into a MySQL window acts exactly as I want: it modifies the row with the selected pid. What is going on here???

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