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  • How can I automate new system provisioning with scripts under Mac OS X 10.6?

    - by deeviate
    I've been working on this for days but simply cannot find the correct references to make it work. The idea is to have a script that will baseline newly purchased Macs that comes into the company with basic stuffs like set autologin to off, create a new admin user (for remote admins to access for support, set password to unlock screensaver and etc) . Sample list for baseline that admins have to do on each new machine: Click the Login Options button Set Automatic Login: OFF Check: Show the Restart, Sleep, and Shutdown buttons Uncheck: Show input menu in login window Uncheck: Show password hints Uncheck: Use voice over in the login window Check: Show fast user switching menu as Short Name (note: this is only part of a long list to do on each machine) I've managed to find some references to make some parts work. Like autologin can be unset with: defaults write /Library/Preferences/.GlobalPreferences com.apple.userspref.DisableAutoLogin -bool TRUE and I've kinda found ways to muscle in a new user creation (including prompts) with AppleScript and shell commands. But generally its tough finding ways to do somewhat simple things like turn on password to get out of screensaver or to allow fast user switching. References are either too limited or just no where to be seen (e.g. I can unset autologin via cli but the very next setting on the system preference "show restart, sleep and shutdown buttons" is somewhere else and I can't find any command line to make it set) Does anyone have any ideas on a list, document, reference or anything of where each setting on the system resides so that I can be pointed to make it work? or maybe sample scripts for the above example... My thanks for reading thus far—a huge thank you for whoever that has any info on the above.

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  • Custom bean instantiation logic in Spring MVC

    - by Michal Bachman
    I have a Spring MVC application trying to use a rich domain model, with the following mapping in the Controller class: @RequestMapping(value = "/entity", method = RequestMethod.POST) public String create(@Valid Entity entity, BindingResult result, ModelMap modelMap) { if (entity== null) throw new IllegalArgumentException("An entity is required"); if (result.hasErrors()) { modelMap.addAttribute("entity", entity); return "entity/create"; } entity.persist(); return "redirect:/entity/" + entity.getId(); } Before this method gets executed, Spring uses BeanUtils to instantiate a new Entity and populate its fields. It uses this: ... ReflectionUtils.makeAccessible(ctor); return ctor.newInstance(args); Here's the problem: My entities are Spring managed beans. The reason for this is to inject DAOs on them. Instead of calling new, I use EntityFactory.createEntity(). When they're retrieved from the database, I have an interceptor that overrides the public Object instantiate(String entityName, EntityMode entityMode, Serializable id) method and hooks the factories into that. So the last piece of the puzzle missing here is how to force Spring to use the factory rather than its own BeanUtils reflective approach? Any suggestions for a clean solution? Thanks very much in advance.

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  • Adding a column to a model at runtime (without additional tables) in rails

    - by Marek
    I'm trying to give admins of my web application the ability to add some new fields to a model. The model is called Artwork and i would like to add, for instante, a test_column column at runtime. I'm just teting, so i added a simple link to do it, it will be of course parametric. I managed to do it through migrations: def test_migration_create Artwork.add_column :test_column, :integer flash[:notice] = "Added Column test_column to artworks" redirect_to :action => 'index' end def test_migration_delete Artwork.remove_column :test_column flash[:notice] = "Removed column test_column from artworks" redirect_to :action => 'index' end It works, the column gets added/ removed to/from the databse without issues. I'm using active_scaffold at the moment, so i get the test_column field in the form without adding anything. When i submit a create or an update, however, the test_column does not get updated and stay empty. Inspecting the parameters, i can see: Parameters: {"commit"=>"Update", "authenticity_token"=>"37Bo5pT2jeoXtyY1HgkEdIhglhz8iQL0i3XAx7vu9H4=", "id"=>"62", "record"=>{"number"=>"test_artwork", "author"=>"", "title"=>"Opera di Test", "test_column"=>"TEEST", "year"=>"", "description"=>""}} the test_column parameter is passed correctly. So why active record keeps ignoring it? I tried to restart the server too without success. I'm using ruby 1.8.7, rails 2.3.5, and mongrel with an sqlite3 database. Thanks

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  • How to format dates in Jahia 6 CMS?

    - by dpb
    I am helping a friend of mine put up a site for his business. I’ve read different posts and sites trying to find the ideal CMS tool, but people have different views of what is the best, so I finally just picked one of them at random. So I went for an evaluation of Jahia 6.0-CE. As you’ve probably guessed by now, I don’t have so much experience with CMS tools. I just want to setup the CMS, write the templates for the site and let my friend manage the content from there on. So I extracted the sources from SVN and went for a test drive. I managed to create some simple templates to get a hang of things but now I have an issue with a date format. In my definitions.cnd I declared the field like so: date myDateField (datetimepicker[format='dd.MM.yyyy']) This is formatted in the page and the selector also presents this in the dd.MM.yyyy format when inserting the content. But how about sites in other countries, countries that represent the date as MM.dd.yyyy for example? If I specify the format in the CND, hard coded, how can I change this later on so that it adapts based on the browser’s language? Do I extract the content from the repository and format it by hand in the JSP template based on a Locale, or is there a better way? Thank you.

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  • JavaScript for loop index strangeness

    - by pythonBOI
    I'm relatively new to JS so this may be a common problem, but I noticed something strange when dealing with for loops and the onclick function. I was able to replicate the problem with this code: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> window.onload = function () { var buttons = document.getElementsByTagName('a'); for (var i=0; i<2; i++) { buttons[i].onclick = function () { alert(i); return false; } } } </script> </head> <body> <a href="">hi</a> <br /> <a href="">bye</a> </body> </html> When clicking the links I would expect to get '0' and '1', but instead I get '2' for both of them. Why is this? BTW, I managed to solve my particular problem by using the 'this' keyword, but I'm still curious as to what is behind this behavior.

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  • Outlook VSTO AddIn for Meetings

    - by BigDubb
    We have created a VSTO addin for Outlook Meetings. As part of this we trap on the SendEvent of the message on the FormRegionShowing event: _apptEvents.Send += new Microsoft.Office.Interop.Outlook.ItemEvents_SendEventHandler(_apptEvents_Send); The method _apptEvents_Send then tests on a couple of properties and exits where appropriate. private void _apptEvents_Send(ref bool Cancel) { if (!_Qualified) { MessageBox.Show("Meeting has not been qualified", "Not Qualified Meeting", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Information); chkQualified.Focus(); Cancel = true; } } The problem that we're having is that some users' messages get sent twice. Once when the meeting is sent and a second time when the user re-opens outlook. I've looked for memory leaks, thinking that something might not be getting disposed of properly, and have added explicit object disposal on all finally calls to try and make sure resources are managed, but still getting the functionality incosistently across the organization. i.e. I never encountered the problem during development, nor other developers during testing. All users are up to date on framework (3.5 SP1) and Hotfixes for Outlook. Does anyone have any ideas on what might be causing this? Any ideas anyone might have would be greatly appreciated.

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  • How to bind a servlet to a context?

    - by simpatico
    I got javax.servlet.ServletException: Error instantiating servlet class servlets.MemoServlet javax.naming.NameNotFoundException: Name servlets.MemoServlet is not bound in this Context when using <form action="MemoServlet"> I know I could use managedbeans, but I've to use servlets. I suspect the problem has to do with JSF. context.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <Context antiJARLocking="true" path="/MemoWeb/faces"/> web.xml: <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>MemoServlet</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/faces/MemoServlet</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> <servlet> <servlet-name>MemoServlet</servlet-name> <servlet-class>servlets.MemoServlet</servlet-class> </servlet> I seem to have this problem all over the place: com.sun.faces.mgbean.ManagedBeanCreationException: An error occurred performing resource injection on managed bean userManager .... Caused by: javax.naming.NameNotFoundException: Name user.UserManager is not bound in this Context

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  • How to get jQuery to find the first list-item, rather than all list-items?

    - by ricebowl
    I'm trying to implement a basic jQuery infinite carousel. As much for the learning process as for anything else (as a rule I'm not a fan of re-inventing wheels, but...I have to learn somehow, might as well start with the basics). I've managed to get the list to animate left happily enough, but I'm stuck when it comes to selecting the first element of the list. I've tried to use: $('ul#services > li:first'); $('ul#services > li:first-child'); $('ul#services > li').eq([0]); (xhtml below), In each case a console.log(first) (the var name used) returns all of the list-items. Am I doing something blatantly, and obviously, wrong? The eventual plan is to clone the first li, append it to the parent ul, remove the li from the list and allow the list to scroll infinitely. It's just a list of services rather than links so I'm not -at the moment- planning to have scroll or left/right functionality. Current xhtml: <div class="wrapper"> <ul id="services"> <!-- closing the `</li>` tags on the following line is to remove whitespace in the horizontal list, doesn't seem to make a difference to the jQuery from my own testing. --> <li>one</li ><li>two</li ><li>three</li ><li>four</li ><li>five</li ><li>six</li ><li>seven</li ><li>eight</li ><li>nine</li ><li>ten</li> </ul> </div>

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  • iphone: memory problems after refactor

    - by agilpwc
    I had a NIB with several view controllers in it. I modified the code and used Interface Builder decomose interface to get all the view controllers in their own Nib. But now with empty core data database, I'm getting "message sent to deallocated instance" errors. Here is the code flow: From the RootViewController this is called: if (self.dogController == nil) { DogViewController *controller = [[DogViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"DogViewController" bundle:nil]; self.dogController = controller; [controller release]; } self.dogController.managedObjectContext = self.managedObjectContext; [self.navigationController pushViewController:self.dogController animated:YES]; Then in a dogController a button is pressed to insert a new object and the following code is excuted and the error hits on the save, according to the trace NSManagedObjectContext *context = [self.fetchedResultsController managedObjectContext]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [[self.fetchedResultsController fetchRequest] entity]; NSManagedObject *newManagedObject = [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:[entity name] inManagedObjectContext:context]; // If appropriate, configure the new managed object. [newManagedObject setValue:[NSDate date] forKey:@"birthDate"]; [newManagedObject setValue:@"-" forKey:@"callName"]; // Save the context. NSError *error = nil; if (![context save:&error]) { Then the error produced in the console is * -[JudgeViewController numberOfSectionsInTableView:]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x598e580 I'm racking my brain for hours and I can't figure out where my minor changes made something messed up. Any ideas?

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  • Is it possible to anti alias using Copy swap effect?

    - by Nor
    I'm developing an application in VB.Net using Managed DirectX that runs in windowed mode and renders onto a picture box that is smaller than the form. Whenever I resize the form, the back buffer is streched to fit the picture box. This is not what I would like. The backbuffer size is the same as screen size, however, I only want to render a part of the back buffer, whose size is controlled by the size of the picture box into which I'm rendering. Resetting the device with new presentation parameters is something I would like to avoid. I'm aware that I can use an overload of Device.Present if I set the swap effect to copy, but this doesn't allow me to use Multi Sample Anti Alias (which requires the Discard swap effect). It seems to me that the overload Device.Present is not usable with any other swap effect than copy, and throws an exception. An other alternative I considered is the PresentFlags.DeviceClip, however it seems that it works only for Windows XP. I'm using Windows 7 and it doesn't seem to be doing anything. So, is it even possible that I use anti-aliasing in this situation?

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  • Using VB6 to search for existence of DataFile in Outlook

    - by Graeme
    Hi, I am wanting to write an Add-In for Outlook 2003 which, when Outlook is opened, search for the existence of a datafile called DMSDataStore and if it doesn't exist will install the datafile. I have managed to create the Add-In using VB6 and it runs when I open Outlook. However I haven't found the best/easiest way to search for the existence of the datafile. If the datafile exists it is visible within Outlook under the user's mailbox, much the same as an archive folder is. I would like to be able to search for it by name which is DMSDataFile. I did try - Set tmpInbox = parentFolder.Folders("DMSDataFile") This works OK if the datafile exists but will throw an error if it doesn't. I can create an error handler which will then install the datafile but this doesn't seem like a very tidy way of doing things. I guess I might have to recursively search for the datafile. Can someone let me know what is the best / easiest way to search for the datafile using the name of the datafile and give me some code with which to do it. Thanks G

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  • Django Admin Running Same Query Thousands of Times for Model

    - by Tom
    Running into an odd . . . loop when trying to view a model in the Django admin. I have three related models (code trimmed for brevity, hopefully I didn't trim something I shouldn't have): class Association(models.Model): somecompany_entity_id = models.CharField(max_length=10, db_index=True) name = models.CharField(max_length=200) def __unicode__(self): return self.name class ResidentialUnit(models.Model): building = models.CharField(max_length=10) app_number = models.CharField(max_length=10) unit_number = models.CharField(max_length=10) unit_description = models.CharField(max_length=100, blank=True) association = models.ForeignKey(Association) created = models.DateTimeField(auto_now_add=True) updated = models.DateTimeField(auto_now=True) def __unicode__(self): return '%s: %s, Unit %s' % (self.association, self.building, self.unit_number) class Resident(models.Model): unit = models.ForeignKey(ResidentialUnit) type = models.CharField(max_length=20, blank=True, default='') lookup_key = models.CharField(max_length=200) jenark_id = models.CharField(max_length=20, blank=True) user = models.ForeignKey(User) is_association_admin = models.BooleanField(default=False, db_index=True) show_in_contact_list = models.BooleanField(default=False, db_index=True) created = models.DateTimeField(auto_now_add=True) updated = models.DateTimeField(auto_now=True) _phones = {} home_phone = None work_phone = None cell_phone = None app_number = None account_cache_key = None def __unicode__(self): return '%s' % self.user.get_full_name() It's the last model that's causing the problem. Trying to look at a Resident in the admin takes 10-20 seconds. If I take 'self.association' out of the __unicode__ method for ResidentialUnit, a resident page renders pretty quickly. Looking at it in the debug toolbar, without the association name in ResidentialUnit (which is a foreign key on Resident), the page runs 14 queries. With the association name put back in, it runs a far more impressive 4,872 queries. The strangest part is the extra queries all seem to be looking up the association name. They all come from the same line, the __unicode__ method for ResidentialUnit. Each one is the exact same thing, e.g., SELECT `residents_association`.`id`, `residents_association`.`jenark_entity_id`, `residents_association`.`name` FROM `residents_association` WHERE `residents_association`.`id` = 1096 ORDER BY `residents_association`.`name` ASC I assume I've managed to create a circular reference, but if it were truly circular, it would just die, not run 4000x and then return. Having trouble finding a good Google or StackOverflow result for this.

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  • How do I launch a winforms form from a DLL correctly?

    - by rodent31337
    There's another question similar to mine, but I wanted to gather some specifics: I want to create a DLL that is called from unmanaged code. When the unmanaged functions are called in the DLL, I want to collect information and show it in a kind of form. What I'd like to do is, when DllMain() is called, and the reason is DLL_PROCESS_ATTACH, I would like to instantiate a form. This form should be run on a separate thread. When my function FOO() inside my DLL is called, I would like to take the information from FOO(), dispatch it to the form for rendering. So, more specifically: i) What is the proper way to create a DLL project and have the ability to have Windows forms created in the designer be available to the DLL? ii) What is the correct way to give this form its own thread and message processing loop? iii) How do I dispatch information from the unmanaged DLL functions to the form, or, alternatively a managed class that can update its own state and the form? The form inside the DLL is sort of a "monitor" for data passing in and out of the DLL, so I can keep track of errors/bugs, but not change the core functionality of the DLL functions that are available.

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  • What is the worst gotcha in WPF?

    - by David
    Hi, I've started to make myself a list of "WPF gotchas": things that bug me and that I had to write down to remember because I fall for them every time.... Now, I'm pretty sure you all stumbled upon similar situations at one point, and I would like you to share your experience on the subject: What is the gotcha that gets you all the time? the one you find the most annoying? (I have a few issues that seem to be without explanation, maybe your submissions will explain them) Here are a few of my "personnal" gotchas (randomly presented): For a MouseEvent to be fired even when the click is on the "transparent" background of a control (e.g. a label) and not just on the content (the Text in this case), the control's Background has to be set to "Brushes.Transparent" and not just "null" (default value for a label) A WPF DataGridCell's DataContext is the RowView to whom the cell belong, not the CellView When inside a ScrollViewer, a Scrollbar is managed by the scrollviewer itself (i.e. setting properties such as ScrollBar.Value is without effect) Key.F10 is not fired when you press "F10", instead you get Key.System and you have to go look for e.SystemKey to get the Key.F10 ... and now you're on.

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  • Input In Java- How does it work?

    - by Nir Avnon
    Hey guys, with a lot of help from you i was managed to write this nice code (I'm new in it, so kind of exciting.. :) ) And still I have not understand how can I input this code. first of all, I get an this error in the console line (I'm using Eclipse): Exception in thread "main" java.lang.ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException: 0 at NumberConverter.main(NumberConverter.java:5). What does that mean? I just want to chack whether it works, and I can't call the function/program any how. I used to call in an "old fashion way", like in scheme, to the function that I wrote and see if something happens. How does it work in java? Do we call the program itself? function? what and where do we write? -I want to chack if it works, doesn't matter how, and I'll be glad to know how can I plugin input. Thank you so much! public class NumberConverter{ public static void main(String[] args) { int i = Integer.parseInt(args[0]); toBinary(i); toOctal(i); toHex(i); } public static void toBinary(int int1){ System.out.println(int1 + " in binary is"); System.out.println(Integer.toBinaryString(int1)); } public static void toOctal(int int1){ System.out.println(int1 + " in octal is"); System.out.println(Integer.toOctalString(int1)); } public static void toHex(int int1){ System.out.println(int1 + " in hex is"); System.out.println(Integer.toHexString(int1)); } }

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  • c# Wrapper to native c++ code, wrapping a parameter which is a pointer to an array

    - by mb300dturbo
    Hi, I have the following simple DLL in c++ un-managed code; extern "C" __declspec(dllexport) void ArrayMultiplier(float (*pointerArray)[3], int scalar, int length); void ArrayMultiplier(float (*pointerArray)[3], int scalar, int length) { for (int i = 0 ; i < length ; length++) { for (int j = 0; j < 3; j++) { pointerArray[i][j] = pointerArray[i][j] * scalar; } } } I have tried writing the following wrapper function for the above in c#: [DllImport("sample.dll")] public static extern void ArrayMultiplier(ref float elements, int scalar, int length); where elements is a 2 dimentional 3x3 array: public float[][] elements = { new float[] {2,5,3}, new float [] {4,8,6}, new float [] {5,28,3} }; The code given above compiles, but the program crashes when the wrapper function is called: Wrapper.ArrayMultiplier(ref elements, scalar, length); Please help me here, and tell me whats wrong with the code above, or how a wrapper can be written for a simple c++ function: void SimpleFunction(float (*pointerToArray)[3]); Thank you all in advance

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  • Is it possible to limit outside connections to a subdomain with .htaccess or similar?

    - by digidave0205
    I host a web application. This application serves static html pages that are refreshed at various intervals. Some as often as every 30 secs. At this time I have about 300 unique pages that are accessed via 300 unique subdomains. Some clients have at most 50 visitors to their unique page and it refreshes every 30 secs, no problem. Other clients have up to 1000 or more visitors to their page. These clients are killing my server. There was no predefined limit upon signup but now I have to impose such a limit to remain afloat financially. I would like to define a finite number of connections allowed for each individual subdomain in my hosting account. Connections attempted out of range of this finite value would either be rejected or redirected. I have access to .htaccess and php.ini. Is something of this nature possible? Oh, I have a dedicated/managed server at 1and1.

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  • Android lifecycle: Fill in data in activity in onStart() or onResume()?

    - by pjv
    Should you get data via a cursor and fill in the data on the screen, such as setting the window title, in onStart() or onResume()? onStart() would seem the logical place because after onStart() the Activity can already be displayed, albeit in the background. Notably I was having a problem with a managed dialog that made me rethink this. If the user rotates the screen while the dialog is still open, onCreateDialog() and onPrepareDialog() are called between onStart() and onResume(). If the dialog needs to be based on the data you need to have the data before onResume(). If I'm correct about onStart() then why does the Notepad example give a bad example by doing it in onResume()? See http://developer.android.com/resources/samples/NotePad/src/com/example/android/notepad/NoteEditor.html NoteEditor.java line 176 (title = mCursor.getString...). Also, what if my Activity launches another Actvity/Dialog that changes the data my cursor is tracking. Even in the simplest case, does that mean that I have to manually update my previous screen (a listener for a dialog in the main activity), or alternatively that I have to register a ContentObserver, since I'm no longer updating the data in onResume() (though I could update it twice of course)? I know it's a basic question but the dialog only recently, to my surprise, made me realize this.

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  • How to convert a byte array of 19200 bytes in size where each byte represents 4 pixels (2 bits per p

    - by Klinger
    I am communicating with an instrument (remote controlling it) and one of the things I need to do is to draw the instrument screen. In order to get the screen I issue a command and the instrument replies with an array of bytes that represents the screen. Below is what the instrument manual has to say about converting the response to the actual screen: The command retrieves the framebuffer data used for the display. It is 19200 bytes in size, 2-bits per pixel, 4 pixels per byte arranged as 320x240 characteres. The data is sent in RLE encoded form. To convert this data into a BMP for use in Windows, it needs to be turned into a 4BPP. Also note that BMP files are upside down relative to this data, i.e. the top display line is the last line in the BMP. I managed to unpack the data, but now I am stuck on how to actually go from the unpacked byte array to a bitmap. My background on this is pretty close to zero and my searches have not revealed much either. I am looking for directions and/or articles I could use to help me undestand how to get this done. Any code or even pseudo code would also help. :-) So, just to summarize it all: How to convert a byte array of 19200 bytes in size, where each byte represents 4 pixels (2 bits per pixel), to a bitmap arranged as 320x240 characters. Thanks in advance.

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  • Reading PDF form field data from Flex 4 ( via php or coldfusion )

    - by Brian Russel Davis
    Been searching web for an answer for this for a MONTH. I am not an expert in Coldfusion. So supposedly this is easy in CF -- but the mark-up confuses the HECK out of me. So here I am. I have managed to import and read a PDF using the CF Proxy for Actionscript: http://forums.adobe.com/thread/754629?tstart=0 --- BUT --- After all my trouble there, the precious form filed information that I was looking for was not there in the PDF info object. GRRRR. So I am back to looking for a way to do this with CFC's or CFM's or PHP. All I want is this: Read the PDF from a Flex app. GET the form field information. WRITE a new PDF with the form field values. I have found so many close but no cigar options ... and I have tried so many that failed. There are so many free PDF this and that out there. But Adobe seems to reserve the real functionality for themselves. All the free options don't seem to have access to the form data? Anyways I am so exhausted with looking for ways to do this. I need help!

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  • Can somebody please explain this recursive function for me?

    - by capncoolio
    #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> void reprint(char *a[]) { if(*a) { printf("%d ",a); reprint(a+1); printf("%s ",*a); } } int main() { char *coll[] = {"C", "Objective", "like", "don't", "I", NULL}; reprint(coll); printf("\n"); return EXIT_SUCCESS; } As the more experienced will know, this prints the array in reverse. I don't quite understand how! I need help understanding what reprint(char *a[]) does. I understand pointer arithmetic to a degree, but from inserting printf's here and there, I've determined that the function increments up to the array end, and then back down to the start, only printing on the way down. However, I do not understand how it does this; all I've managed to understand by looking at the actual code is that if *a isn't NULL, then call reprint again, at the next index. Thanks guys!

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  • C++/Qt - Memory allocation question

    - by HardCoder1986
    Hello! I recently started investigating Qt for myself and have the following question: Suppose I have some QTreeWidget* widget. At some moment I want to add some items to it and this is done via the following call: QList<QTreeWidgetItem*> items; // Prepare the items QTreeWidgetItem* item1 = new QTreeWidgetItem(...); QTreeWidgetItem* item2 = new QTreeWidgetItem(...); items.append(item1); items.append(item2); widget->addTopLevelItems(items); So far it looks ok, but I don't actually understand who should control the objects' lifetime. I should explain this with an example: Let's say, another function calls widget->clear();. I don't know what happens beneath this call but I do think that memory allocated for item1 and item2 doesn't get disposed here, because their ownage wasn't actually transfered. And, bang, we have a memory leak. The question is the following - does Qt have something to offer for this kind of situation? I could use boost::shared_ptr or any other smart pointer and write something like shared_ptr<QTreeWidgetItem> ptr(new QTreeWidgetItem(...)); items.append(ptr.get()); but I don't know if the Qt itself would try to make explicit delete calls on my pointers (which would be disastrous since I state them as shared_ptr-managed). How would you solve this problem? Maybe everything is evident and I miss something really simple?

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  • What do you call a generalized (non-GUI-related) "Model-View-Controller" architecture?

    - by dcuccia
    I am currently refactoring code that coordinates multiple hardware components for data acquisition, and feeling a bit like I'm recreating the wheel. In particular, an MVC-like pattern seems to be emerging. Except, this has nothing to do with a GUI and I'm worried that I'm forcing this particular pattern where another might be more appropriate. Here's my scenario: Individual hardware "component" classes obey interface contracts for each hardware type. Previously, component instances were orchestrated by a single monolithic InstrumentController class, which relied heavily on configuration + branching logic for executing a specific acquisition sequence. After an iteration, I have a separate controller for each component, with these controllers all managed by a small InstrumentControllerBase (or its derivatives). The composite system will receive "input" either programmatically or via inter-hardware component triggering - in either case these interactions are routed to, and handled by, the appropriate controller. So, I have something that feels MVC-esque, but I don't know if that's because I'm forcing the point. With little direct MVC experience in application development, it's hard to know if I'm just trying to make my scenario fit MVC, where another pattern might be a good alternative or complimentary. My problem is, search results and wiki documentation of these family of patterns seems to immediately drop me into GUI-specific discussions. I understand "M means Model data and the V means View" - but do you call the superset pattern? Component-Commander-Controller? Whence can I exhume examples exemplary?

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  • reading keyboard input without "consuming" it in x86 assembly

    - by Bob
    Ok so here the deal: I have an assignment regarding DOS and interrupts: I need to write a sort of key-logger function that can be called from C code. what it means is a c program would call an assembly function called startlog that would indicate to start logging the keys pressed until a function called endlog is called. the logging should work like this: write the ascii value of any key pressed without disturbing the C code between startlog and endlog, meaning that if the C code also needs to read the input (let's say by scanf, it would work ok). I managed to write the logger by changing the interrupt vector 9th entry (interrupt for keyboard press) to a function I wrote that writes the values to a file, and it works fine. however the C code does not get the input. Basically what i did is read the key pressed using int 21h, however after reading the ascii value it is "consumed" so I need a way to either simulate the key press again or read the value without "consuming" it so next time a key is read it reads the same key. (I described the code in english because it is long and clumsy assembly code)

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  • Does Monitor.Wait ensure that fields are re-read?

    - by Marc Gravell
    It is generally accepted (I believe!) that a lock will force any values from fields to be reloaded (essentially acting as a memory-barrier or fence - my terminology in this area gets a bit loose, I'm afraid), with the consequence that fields that are only ever accessed inside a lock do not themselves need to be volatile. (If I'm wrong already, just say!) A good comment was raised here, questioning whether the same is true if code does a Wait() - i.e. once it has been Pulse()d, will it reload fields from memory, or could they be in a register (etc). Or more simply: does the field need to be volatile to ensure that the current value is obtained when resuming after a Wait()? Looking at reflector, Wait calls down into ObjWait, which is managed internalcall (the same as Enter). The scenario in question was: bool closing; public bool TryDequeue(out T value) { lock (queue) { // arbitrary lock-object (a private readonly ref-type) while (queue.Count == 0) { if (closing) { // <==== (2) access field here value = default(T); return false; } Monitor.Wait(queue); // <==== (1) waits here } ...blah do something with the head of the queue } } Obviously I could just make it volatile, or I could move this out so that I exit and re-enter the Monitor every time it gets pulsed, but I'm intrigued to know if either is necessary.

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