Search Results

Search found 17470 results on 699 pages for 'single quote'.

Page 176/699 | < Previous Page | 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183  | Next Page >

  • Forwarding HTTP Request with Direct Server Return

    - by Daniel Crabtree
    I have servers spread across several data centers, each storing different files. I want users to be able to access the files on all servers through a single domain and have the individual servers return the files directly to the users. The following shows a simple example: 1) The user's browser requests http://www.example.com/files/file1.zip 2) Request goes to server A, based on the DNS A record for example.com. 3) Server A analyzes the request and works out that /files/file1.zip is stored on server B. 4) Server A forwards the request to server B. 5) Server B returns file1.zip directly to the user without going through server A. Note: steps 4 and 5 must be transparent to the user and cannot involve sending a redirect to the user as that would violate the requirement of a single domain. From my research, what I want to achieve is called "Direct Server Return" and it is a common setup for load balancing. It is also sometimes called a half reverse proxy. For step 4, it sounds like I need to do MAC Address Translation and then pass the request back onto the network and for servers outside the network of server A tunneling will be required. For step 5, I simply need to configure server B, as per the real servers in a load balancing setup. Namely, server B should have server A's IP address on the loopback interface and it should not answer any ARP requests for that IP address. My problem is how to actually achieve step 4? I have found plenty of hardware and software that can do this for simple load balancing at layer 4, but these solutions fall short and cannot handle the kind of custom routing I require. It seems like I will need to roll my own solution. Ideally, I would like to do the routing / forwarding at the web server level, i.e. in PHP or C# / ASP.net. However, I am open to doing it at a lower level such as Apache or IIS, or at an even lower level, i.e. a custom proxy service in front of everything. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How would I setup iMail to forward a user's mail to another service w/o leaving a copy locally?

    - by Scott Mayfield
    I have an iMail 2006 server installation in which I have a particular user that has several aliases that all point to a single user (me, for the record). I've been copying all of my mail to GMail and reading it there, but it annoys me that I have to go back weekly and log into my mail account on iMail and delete between 6 and 10 thousand copies of messages I've already received, in order to keep my mailbox from filling up (yes, I have it set with no quota, but I consider it bad form to just let the box grow indefinitely). I've got the copying setup via an inbound user rule, but I'm wondering how to accomplish a "copy and delete" rule. The manual isn't clear on what happens with multiple matching rules (will they be processed in order, or is it a first match situation?) and there isn't a means to combine multiple actions into a single rule. If I use the "forward" action, I THINK that it's going to screw up all the sender information once the mail reaches my GMail account and show it as coming from me instead of the original senders (can anyone confirm that this is accurate?) An easy answer would be to delete my user account entirely, replace it with an alias that maps to my GMail account, but then I would lose my ability to log into the system for admin duties. So that leads me to creating a second, lesser known account for admin use, but since it's a real account, sooner or later I'm going to get mail sent to it and I'll be back to the same situation of having a user account that doesn't get emptied periodically. I imagine I can set the quota to 0 MB to cause all incoming mail to my admin account to bounce, or setup an inbound rule to bounce everything, but this is starting to sound kludgy to me. Does anyone know of a more direct work around to copying a user's incoming mail to an outside server and then deleting the local copy w/o removing their account entirely? Or is this just wishful thinking?

    Read the article

  • SQL Query to update parent record with child record values

    - by Wells
    I need to create a Trigger that fires when a child record (Codes) is added, updated or deleted. The Trigger stuffs a string of comma separated Code values from all child records (Codes) into a single field in the parent record (Projects) of the added, updated or deleted child record. I am stuck on writing a correct query to retrieve the Code values from just those child records that are the children of a single parent record. -- Create the test tables CREATE TABLE projects ( ProjectId varchar(16) PRIMARY KEY, ProjectName varchar(100), Codestring nvarchar(100) ) GO CREATE TABLE prcodes ( CodeId varchar(16) PRIMARY KEY, Code varchar (4), ProjectId varchar(16) ) GO -- Add sample data to tables: Two projects records, one with 3 child records, the other with 2. INSERT INTO projects (ProjectId, ProjectName) SELECT '101','Smith' UNION ALL SELECT '102','Jones' GO INSERT INTO prcodes (CodeId, Code, ProjectId) SELECT 'A1','Blue', '101' UNION ALL SELECT 'A2','Pink', '101' UNION ALL SELECT 'A3','Gray', '101' UNION ALL SELECT 'A4','Blue', '102' UNION ALL SELECT 'A5','Gray', '102' GO I am stuck on how to create a correct Update query. Can you help fix this query? -- Partially working, but stuffs all values, not just values from chile (prcodes) records of parent (projects) UPDATE proj SET proj.Codestring = (SELECT STUFF((SELECT ',' + prc.Code FROM projects proj INNER JOIN prcodes prc ON proj.ProjectId = prc.ProjectId ORDER BY 1 ASC FOR XML PATH('')),1, 1, '')) The result I get for the Codestring field in Projects is: ProjectId ProjectName Codestring 101 Smith Blue,Blue,Gray,Gray,Pink ... But the result I need for the Codestring field in Projects is: ProjectId ProjectName Codestring 101 Smith Blue,Pink,Gray ... Here is my start on the Trigger. The Update query, above, will be added to this Trigger. Can you help me complete the Trigger creation query? CREATE TRIGGER Update_Codestring ON prcodes AFTER INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE AS WITH CTE AS ( select ProjectId from inserted union select ProjectId from deleted )

    Read the article

  • How would I setup iMail to forward a user's mail to another service w/o leaving a copy locally?

    - by Scott Mayfield
    I have an iMail 2006 server installation in which I have a particular user that has several aliases that all point to a single user (me, for the record). I've been copying all of my mail to GMail and reading it there, but it annoys me that I have to go back weekly and log into my mail account on iMail and delete between 6 and 10 thousand copies of messages I've already received, in order to keep my mailbox from filling up (yes, I have it set with no quota, but I consider it bad form to just let the box grow indefinitely). I've got the copying setup via an inbound user rule, but I'm wondering how to accomplish a "copy and delete" rule. The manual isn't clear on what happens with multiple matching rules (will they be processed in order, or is it a first match situation?) and there isn't a means to combine multiple actions into a single rule. If I use the "forward" action, I THINK that it's going to screw up all the sender information once the mail reaches my GMail account and show it as coming from me instead of the original senders (can anyone confirm that this is accurate?) An easy answer would be to delete my user account entirely, replace it with an alias that maps to my GMail account, but then I would lose my ability to log into the system for admin duties. So that leads me to creating a second, lesser known account for admin use, but since it's a real account, sooner or later I'm going to get mail sent to it and I'll be back to the same situation of having a user account that doesn't get emptied periodically. I imagine I can set the quota to 0 MB to cause all incoming mail to my admin account to bounce, or setup an inbound rule to bounce everything, but this is starting to sound kludgy to me. Does anyone know of a more direct work around to copying a user's incoming mail to an outside server and then deleting the local copy w/o removing their account entirely? Or is this just wishful thinking? Thanks in advance. Scott

    Read the article

  • mysql INNODB inserts very slow

    - by 133794m3r
    The database's schema is as follows. CREATE TABLE `items` ( `id` mediumint( 8 ) unsigned NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , `name` varchar( 45 ) NOT NULL , `main_type` tinyint( 4 ) NOT NULL , `rarity` tinyint( 4 ) NOT NULL , `stack_size` smallint( 6 ) NOT NULL , `sub_type` tinyint( 4 ) NOT NULL , `cost` mediumint( 8 ) unsigned NOT NULL , `ilvl` smallint( 6 ) unsigned NOT NULL DEFAULT '0', `flavor_text` varchar( 250 ) NOT NULL , `rlvl` tinyint( 3 ) unsigned NOT NULL , `final` tinyint( 4 ) NOT NULL DEFAULT '0', PRIMARY KEY ( `id` ) ) ENGINE = InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET = ascii; Now, doing an insert on this table takes 0.22 seconds. I don't know why it's taking so long to do a single row insert. Reads are really really fast something like 0.005 seconds. With using the example configuration from here dev mysql innodb it averages ~0.002 to ~0.005 seconds. Why it takes more than 100x more time to do a single insert makes no sense to me. My computer is as follows. OS:Debian Sid x86-x64, Mysql 5.1, RAM:4GB ddr2, cpu 2.0Ghz dual core, HDD 7200RPM 32MB cache 640GB. Why it's taking almost 100x as much time for a SELECT * FROM items; vs INSERT INTO items ...; will never make any sense to me. It's still a small table at only 70 rows, and took that long even when it had 0 rows.

    Read the article

  • Certain Japanese characters aren't displayed properly

    - by Nisto
    On the following site: http://www.nciku.com/search/radical the first 2 characters on the second row of the "Step 2" table aren't displayed properly. All other characters look fine. I tried re-installing the Asian fonts via the checkboxes regarding Asian fonts in the "Regional and Language Options" control panel applet. I have tried removing every single Font from the Fonts folder (some were ofcourse not possible to remove), and re-installing them all again. I did this by... Running cmd Closing down the explorer process In cmd; using the command DEL /F /S /Q * in the Fonts folder Putting in my XP SP3 Retail disc In cmd; using expand -r *.tt_ in the I386 folder on the XP disc (and any other font file, in the I386\LANG folder) I also tried installing this pack from Microsoft, but this solved nothing either. I even tried running my browser (Firefox) through AppLocale. And changing character encoding -- again, does not help. I've also tried viewing the page in Internet Explorer. What could be wrong? I have checked my Fonts folder, to make sure that every single font available on the XP disc is available in WINDOWS\Fonts. What shows in the first square on the second row - I can't really tell what it's supposed to look like (but it's not the proper character)... but the second square shows a rectangular symbol containing HEX code. I've been in this situation before -- and it has been when I've been missing fonts. But how could I possibly be missing a necessary font? Shouldn't it be provided in the Asian "font packages"? I've talked to some other users that has viewed the page, and they had no problems displaying those characters on second row - even though they're only using the fonts provided on the Windows installation disc. Windows XP Professional Service Pack 3 (x86 - with latest updates) Firefox 3.6.15

    Read the article

  • nginx config woes for multiple subdomains & domains

    - by Peter Hanneman
    I'm finally moving away from Apache and I've got the latest development version of nginx running on a fully updated Ubuntu 10.04 VPS. I've got a single dedicated IP for the box (1.2.3.4) but I've got two separate domains pointing to the server: www.example1.com and www.example2.net. I would like to map the fallowing relationships between urls and document roots in the config: www.example1.com / example1.com -> /var/www/pub/example1.com/ subdomain.example1.com -> /var/www/dev/subdomain/example1.com/ www.example2.net / example2.net -> /var/www/pub/example2.net/ subdomain.example2.net -> /var/www/dev/subdomain/example2.net/ Where the name of the requested subdomain is a folder under /var/www/dev/. Ideally a request for a non-existent subdomain(no matching folder found) would result in a rewrite to the public site (eg: invalid.example1.com -- www.example1.com) however a mere "404 Not Found" wouldn't be the worst thing in the world. It would also be nice if I didn't need to modify the config every time I mkdir a new subdomain folder - even better if I don't need to edit it for a new domain either...but now I'm getting greedy... :p Although in my defense Apache did all of this with a single directive. Does anyone know how I can efficiently mimic this behavior in nginx? Thanks in advance, Peter Hanneman

    Read the article

  • Overriding some DNS entries in BIND for internal networks

    - by Remy Blank
    I have an internal network with a DNS server running BIND, connected to the internet through a single gateway. My domain "example.com" is managed by an external DNS provider. Some of the entries in that domain, say "host1.example.com" and "host2.example.com", as well as the top-level entry "example.com", point to the public IP address of the gateway. I would like hosts located on the internal network to resolve "host1.example.com", "host2.example.com" and "example.com" to internal IP addresses instead of that of the gateway. Other hosts like "otherhost.example.com" should still be resolved by the external DNS provider. I have succeeded in doing that for the host1 and host2 entries, by defining two single-entry zones in BIND for "host1.example.com" and "host2.example.com". However, if I add a zone for "example.com", all queries for that domain are resolved by my local DNS server, and e.g. querying "otherhost.example.com" results in an error. Is it possible to configure BIND to override only some entries of a domain, and to resolve the rest recursively?

    Read the article

  • SQL Error (1064) when importing data from SQL file

    - by mejpark
    I have a MySQL database, which was originally set up with the default latin1 character set and latin1_swedish_ci collation. I was using the database like this for sometime, until I noticed strange characters on my production web site, which is powered by a database exported from my development machine. At this point, I changed the default character set of the database and tables to utf8 and the collation to utf8_unicode_ci, converted the latin1 data inside each table to utf8 (using the 'convert data' option) and exported the database as a single SQL file using HeidiSQL. When the resulting SQL file is opened in Notepad++, several characters are rendered incorrectly. For example, en dashes (-) are displayed as – and e with accent (é) are displayed as é. I changed the encoding of the file from ANSI to UTF-8 (using the encoding menu option in Notepad++) and the offending characters are rendered correctly. I saved the new utf8-encoded SQL file and attempted to import the contents into the MySQL database on my production server. The import process fails with following error: /* SQL Error (1064): You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near '?# -------------------------------------------------------- # Host: ' at line 1 */ /* Error with snippets directory: The specified path was not found */ The head of the SQL file: # -------------------------------------------------------- # Host: 127.0.0.1 # Server version: 5.1.33-community # Server OS: Win32 # HeidiSQL version: 6.0.0.3773 # Date/time: 2011-04-20 09:48:36 # -------------------------------------------------------- It chokes on the first line of the file, which is commented out. Why is this happening? I didn't have a problem loading data from SQL files until I changed the character set and collation of the database. I came up with an ugly workaround to this problem by performing following steps: Export database as single SQL file using HeidiSQL Open resulting file in Notepad++ and convert from ANSI to UTF-8 encoding Create new empty file in Notepad++, paste in UTF-8 and save file normally What am I missing here?

    Read the article

  • Can I run Excel 2010 on a server?

    - by Glen Little
    This question is not about a person using Excel on a computer that happens to have an Windows Server OS. And it is not about using any Sharepoint services features! The question is about automated processes that use code (Office Automation) to open Excel files, manipulate them, run calculations, read data, save copies of the file and close the files... all in code. In previous versions of Excel the licensing agreement prevented use on a public server, notes from Microsoft warned about the problems trying to use Office Automation in a server environment, and we were warned that Excel was single threaded and not designed for use on a server. Most of the articles about this were written before Office 2010. But now, Excel 2010 is designed to work on a High Performance Computing server using HPC Services for Excel. One HPC document mentions "Windows HPC Server 2008 R2 includes a comprehensive pop-up manager that can handle occasional dialog boxes and pop-up messages". So my question is... is it now "safe" to run code that automates Excel 2010 on a "normal" server without using the HPC services? If not, can the HPC Services for Excel work on a single server? I don't need the high performance, distributed computing, aspect of HPC Services for Excel... just the ability to run Excel on a server. Can that now be done? Thanks, Glen

    Read the article

  • LDAP, Active Directory and bears, oh my!

    - by Tim Post
    What I have: Workstations running Ubuntu Jaunty mounting /home on a remote NFS server. User accounts are still created locally on each individual workstation. Workstations running Windows XP / Vista NFS server (as noted above) Windows 2008 server All machines share a single private network (LAN). What I need to accomplish: A single, intuitive (GUI driven) place for an office administrator to create user accounts. This should let anyone login to their (linux or windows) workstation, then fire up remote desktop and use the same login to the Windows 2008 server, from any machine on the network. I have read so much on samba, LDAP vs AD, etc and now I'm even more confused than I was before I began researching the problem. Ideally, Linux and Windows users should be able to get to their local files once logged into the Win2008 server. I am a programmer, not an interoperability guru and I'm completely lost on where to even start trying to accomplish this, plus I've run out of things to Google. How would you do this? Is it even possible?

    Read the article

  • Bash Parallelization of CPU-intensive processes

    - by ehsanul
    tee forwards its stdin to every single file specified, while pee does the same, but for pipes. These programs send every single line of their stdin to each and every file/pipe specified. However, I was looking for a way to "load balance" the stdin to different pipes, so one line is sent to the first pipe, another line to the second, etc. It would also be nice if the stdout of the pipes are collected into one stream as well. The use case is simple parallelization of CPU intensive processes that work on a line-by-line basis. I was doing a sed on a 14GB file, and it could have run much faster if I could use multiple sed processes. The command was like this: pv infile | sed 's/something//' > outfile To parallelize, the best would be if GNU parallel would support this functionality like so (made up the --demux-stdin option): pv infile | parallel -u -j4 --demux-stdin "sed 's/something//'" > outfile However, there's no option like this and parallel always uses its stdin as arguments for the command it invokes, like xargs. So I tried this, but it's hopelessly slow, and it's clear why: pv infile | parallel -u -j4 "echo {} | sed 's/something//'" > outfile I just wanted to know if there's any other way to do this (short of coding it up myself). If there was a "load-balancing" tee (let's call it lee), I could do this: pv infile | lee >(sed 's/something//' >> outfile) >(sed 's/something//' >> outfile) >(sed 's/something//' >> outfile) >(sed 's/something//' >> outfile) Not pretty, so I'd definitely prefer something like the made up parallel version, but this would work too.

    Read the article

  • What is the best way to create a failover cluster for my IIS website?

    - by ObligatoryMoniker
    Our eCommerce website www.tervis.com currently runs on two servers: SQL server: 2005 x 86 on Windows Server 2003 Standard x86 with a single dual core processor and 4 gb of memeory IIS server: Windows Server 2008 Web edition x64 with dual quad core hyper threaded processors and 32 gb of memory Tervis.com's revenue has steadily grown to the point where we need to have redundant servers deployed with a fail over mechanism so that we do not have any down time. Because the SQL server is so underpowered compared to the web server my thought was to purchase: 2 x SQL Server 2008 R2 web edition x64 single processor license 2 x Windows Server 2008 R2 Web Edition Licenses 1 x New Physical dual quad core 32 GB server 1 x F5 Load Balancer I need the Windows Server 2008 R2 Web Edition licenses so that I can run SQL and IIS on the same box for both of these servers. The thought is to run this as an active/passive fail over cluster that could be upgraded to an active/active cluster if we purchased the additional SQL licensing. The F5 load balancer would serve as the device that monitors the two servers and if the current active one stops responding then fails over to using the other server. To be clear this is not windows clustering but simply using a load balancer to fail over between two computers so that you now have a cluster in the general sense. Is this really the best way to accomplish what I need? Is there some way to leverage the old server 2003 SQL server to function as the devices that funnels http requests to the appropriate active server and then fails over if a problem occurs? Is there any third party clustering software that might help me accomplish this in a simpler fashion?

    Read the article

  • Mac OS X duplex printing problem: one- vs. multi-paged documents

    - by Christian Lindig
    I like to print on pre-printed stationery using the Preview.app and a duplex-capable HP Color Laserjet 4700 (PostScript) printer. The print dialog handles one and two-paged documents differently: the paper needs to be placed differently into the tray if the document contains one page versus when it contains two pages. This is not obvious when printing on plain paper but becomes obvious when front and reverse side of sheets are marked. Otherwise the first page would end up on the reverse side of the first sheet. I believe the problem is caused by the printer driver setting duplex printing to false (using the PostScript setpagedevice operator) when emitting a single-page document versus keeping it set to true when emitting multi-page documents. All this despite that duplex printing is always specified in the printer dialog. When printing a single-sided document, duplex=true and duplex=false seem to make a difference with respect which side of a sheet gets printed on. It would be also helpful if others could confirm the problem actually exists. I suspect this problem is not limited to specific printers. I'm on OS X 10.6 and I checked two different HP printers.

    Read the article

  • AWS elastic load balancer basic issues

    - by Jones
    I have an array of EC2 t1.micro instances behind a load balancer and each node can manage ~100 concurrent users before it starts to get wonky. i would THINK if i have 2 such instances it would allow my network to manage 200 concurrent users... apparently not. When i really slam the server (blitz.io) with a full 275 concurrents, it behaves the same as if there is just one node. it goes from 400ms response time to 1.6 seconds (which for a single t1.micro is expected, but not 6). So the question is, am i simply not doing something right or is ELB effectively worthless? Anyone have some wisdom on this? AB logs: Loadbalancer (3x m1.medium) Document Path: /ping/index.html Document Length: 185 bytes Concurrency Level: 100 Time taken for tests: 11.668 seconds Complete requests: 50000 Failed requests: 0 Write errors: 0 Non-2xx responses: 50001 Total transferred: 19850397 bytes HTML transferred: 9250185 bytes Requests per second: 4285.10 [#/sec] (mean) Time per request: 23.337 [ms] (mean) Time per request: 0.233 [ms] (mean, across all concurrent requests) Transfer rate: 1661.35 [Kbytes/sec] received Connection Times (ms) min mean[+/-sd] median max Connect: 1 2 4.3 2 63 Processing: 2 21 15.1 19 302 Waiting: 2 21 15.0 19 261 Total: 3 23 15.7 21 304 Single instance (1x m1.medium direct connection) Document Path: /ping/index.html Document Length: 185 bytes Concurrency Level: 100 Time taken for tests: 9.597 seconds Complete requests: 50000 Failed requests: 0 Write errors: 0 Non-2xx responses: 50001 Total transferred: 19850397 bytes HTML transferred: 9250185 bytes Requests per second: 5210.19 [#/sec] (mean) Time per request: 19.193 [ms] (mean) Time per request: 0.192 [ms] (mean, across all concurrent requests) Transfer rate: 2020.01 [Kbytes/sec] received Connection Times (ms) min mean[+/-sd] median max Connect: 1 9 128.9 3 3010 Processing: 1 10 8.7 9 141 Waiting: 1 9 8.7 8 140 Total: 2 19 129.0 12 3020

    Read the article

  • Is there a screen sharing/remote desktop app for mac that lets you use a different host screen resolution?

    - by MarqueIV
    Ok, there are tons and tons of questions about remote desktop for mac and they're all being closed as duplicates. I however am specifically looking for one that will let me use a different resolution than the host, the way you can with Remote Desktop for Windows. For instance, when I connect to my 11" Macbook Air booted into Windows7 from my quad-screen desktop, also booted into Win7 using Microsoft's Remote Desktop Client, it blanks out the screen on the notebook, then virtualizes the video across all four of my desktop's monitors at their native resolutions (2560x1600, 2 x 1920x1200 and 1600x1200) and the notebook now acts as if it has four physical monitors connected to it. All of this from a notebook that only has a 1366 x 768 native resolution. Even when running OS X on the client running RDC, while it doesn't support multi-monitors like its Win counterpart, it still lets me run at the native resolution of the client screen of 2560x1600. Again, it just blanks out the host screen while doing so. However when using Mac's screen sharing, since that is just glorified VNC, it just mirrors what's already on the host's screen, meaning it will always be a single screen with the resolution of 1366x768. This of course makes sense since VNC is a mirroring solution, not a video-virtualizing one like RDC, but it means that on my quad-monitor setup, the remote window isn't even large enough to fill up a single monitor, let alone four (unless you have a client that can scale it up, but that's video scaling. It's still only 1366x768.) So what I'm looking for is if there is a solution on the Mac that lets me do the same thing as RDC in a Win environment. Don't care if I have to pay. I'd gladly pay several hundred dollars for this. I just need that specific feature. Note: People have suggested various VNC clients, but the VNC host still runs at 1366x768 so that will not work here. Ever. Also, people have suggested Synergy/Synergy+/Teleport and such which share the keyboard and mouse, not video. Completely different animal unrelated to what I'm looking for.

    Read the article

  • diskmgmt.msc: Cannot delete volume from USB

    - by Notinlist
    I have an USB drive with about 8GB of size. It has a single partition of size 169MB. Don't know why, I got it that way. I wanted to delete this small (FAT32) partition and create a single NTFS volume on it. First, I noticed that the "Delete volumme" option is disabled (grayed out). I then tried "Change drive letter and paths..." and removed "F:", that way I made sure that there are no open files on it. The "Delete volume" was still disabled. Then I got suspicious, and right clicked on the "Unallocated" area and I noticed that I did not have any useful option. All "New * volume" items are disabled. I exited from diskmgmt.msc, ran a cmd.exe with administrator privileges, ran the diskmgmt.msc from it, same experiences. Why can't i do anything with this disk? I've read some advices about downloading some alternative free software, but I rather not do it if possible. I still hope that Windows 7 Enterprise 64bit alone can reinitialize an USB drive without external help. I also cannot do anything with my other 8GB pendrive. It's all an NTFS volume, I tried to delete it, but the option is disabled here too. Maybe I have some settings somewhere that prevents my from partitioning USB disks. (I have the freedom to remove my D: partition which is the second - not counding the "System reserved" - on my SSD disk.)

    Read the article

  • Is there a free PDF printer / distiller that creates signable documents?

    - by Coderer
    I've used various methods (mentioned elsewhere on this site) to create PDFs, using a printer driver or converting from PostScript, etc. The common problem is that if I open any of the output files in the newer versions of Adobe Reader, there's an option to "Place Signature" but it's greyed out, or gives an error message that the feature has been disabled for this document. As far as I can tell, there's an option set somewhere in the document metadata that tells Reader "allow the user to sign this document", or don't. None of the free/open source tools that have been been linked to in other SU posts have had this listed as an option (though to be fair I haven't actually downloaded and tried all of them). Is there a tool that does this? Can I just poke a bit with a hex editor somewhere to turn on this functionality? I can sometimes get access to Acrobat Professional to turn on this option, but doing it for every desired case would be more work than I care to do. The current workaround for single-page documents is: Print the document to PDF (possibly via postscript) Open a single-page blank PDF with the "signable" bit turned on in Reader create a custom "stamp" using the Reader markup tools, by importing the printed-to document "stamp" an image of the printed document on the blank page, hoping to get it centered about right place a signature over the document-but-not-really you just stamped This obviously does not scale well at all. It would be much better if I could: Print the document to PDF Drag the document to a simple shortcut / tool / whatever Open the document in Reader Place a signature in the document ETA: Sorry, maybe I should have been clearer -- I'm talking about the certificate-based digital signing available in Adobe Reader, not adding a virtual ink signature. Also, any solution really would have to be available offline.

    Read the article

  • Command line scripts to restore the 4 system databases of MS SQL Server 2008

    - by ciscokid
    Hi there, can someone give me some advice on how to restore the 4 system databases (master, msdb, model, tempdb) of a sql server 2008 please? I've already done some testing myself (on restoring the master database) with the following commad line script as a result: ::set variables set dbname=master set dbdirectory=C:\Program Files\Microsoft SQL Server\MSSQL10.MSSQLSERVER\MSSQL\DATA title Restoring %dbname% database net stop mssqlserver cd C:\Program Files\Microsoft SQL Server\MSSQL10.MSSQLSERVER\MSSQL\Binn sqlservr -m sqlcmd -Slocalhost -E -Q "restore database master from disk='c:\master.bak' WITH REPLACE" net start mssqlserver pause After the execution of the 'sqlservr -m' command (used to start the server instance in single-user mode, which is only necessary when restoring the MASTER database), the script stops. So in order to execute the last 2 commands I need to separate the script into 2 smaller scripts, and run them one after the other. Does anyone has an idea on how I can merge them into one single script that runs completely without any interruption? I also want to restore the other 3 system databases using command line scripts like this one. Can someone please advice me how I need to go on? I've already noticed that restoring the temdb is not so easy, but there has to be a way... Looking forward to your advice!

    Read the article

  • New SSD, is the MBR broken? DISK BOOT FAILURE

    - by Shevek
    I've been running Windows 7 on a WD 500gb SATA single drive, single partition setup for some time with no issues. I've just installed a new Kingston V Series 64gb SSD and performed a clean install of Win7 to it, deleting the partitions on the 500gb and using that as a data drive. All was well for a few reboots but then I started to get "DISK BOOT FAILURE, INSERT SYSTEM DISK AND PRESS ENTER" messages. If I put the Win7 install DVD back in the drive it boots fine. Tried a clean install again, after replacing SATA cables and swapping SATA ports, with a complete partition wipe of both drives. Again, rebooted fine a few times then back with the "DISK BOOT FAILURE" error. Looked on the web and found some discussions about it so I then started from scratch again. This time I wiped the MBR on both drives using MBRWork, disconnected the 500gb and reinstalled to the SSD. Removed the install DVD and installed all the drivers which involved many reboots, all with no problem. To make sure I also did a few cold boots as well. Reconnected the 500gb, initialised, partitioned and formatted it. Copied data to it and did some more reboots and shutdowns. All was ok. Then out of the blue comes another "DISK BOOT FAILURE" and again, if the Win7 install DVD is in the drive it boots fine. So, is the SSD a bad'un? TIA UPDATE: It was a BIOS issue! I found a hidden away option for HDD boot order, which was separate from the usual HDD/CDRom/FDD boot order option. The WD was set to boot before the SSD... Swapped them round and all is well. Still don't understand how it worked at first though... Thanks Solaris

    Read the article

  • In Icinga (Nagios), how do I configure hosts with multiple IPs?

    - by gertvdijk
    I'm setting up Icinga (Nagios fork) and I have some machines with multiple interfaces. Some services are only listening on one of them and to check them correctly, I like to know if it's possible to have multiple IP addresses configured for a single host in Icinga. Here's a minimal example: Remote Server: eth0: 1.2.3.4 (public IP) eth1: 10.1.2.3 (private IP, secure tunnel) Apache listening on 1.2.3.4:80. (public only) OpenSSH listening on 10.1.2.3:22. (internal network only) Postfix SMTP listening on 0.0.0.0:25 (all interfaces) Icinga Server: eth0: 10.2.3.4 (private IP, internet access) Now if I define a host: define host { use generic-host host_name server1 alias server1.gertvandijk.net address 10.1.2.3 } This will not check the HTTP status correctly. And defining an additional host: define host { use generic-host host_name server1-public alias server1.gertvandijk.net address 1.2.3.4 } will check everything, but shows up as two independent hosts. Now I want to 'aggregate' these two hosts to show up as a single host, yet providing an easy configuration to check the services on their proper address. What is the most elegant number-of-configuration-lines-saving solution to this? I read about several plugins available to workaround this, but I can't figure out what is the current way to address it. Solutions go back to 2003, but I'm running Icinga 1.7.1, already capable of the address6 option, yet that triggers IPv6-only resolving on the hostname... Ideally, I wish to configure Icinga to be intelligent enough to know that the Postfix instance running on 10.1.2.3:25 is the same as 1.2.3.4:25 and thus not triggering two alarms. I guess this must have been tackled before and sysadmins have it set up now. Please share your solution to this. Thanks! :)

    Read the article

  • Can two mocha for After Effects X-Spline Layers be merged ?

    - by George Profenza
    Hello, I'm new to mocha for After Effects, but like the auto tracking feature. There are a few markers I'm adding, but there's one which is giving me a bit of a headache. I'm tracking a circle that moves around a larger object, so it moves in front of it initially, then behind, being occluded by the larger object, then in front again. I tried to track the circle in the first part(when it's in front, before being occluded) and in the second part(when it's in front again, coming out on the other side of the large object) using a single X-Spline. The problem is the second part starts in a different location and I don't know how to 'move' the X-Spline to the new position and track from there, without affecting the previous keyframes. As a workaround I use two X-Spline Layers, export the data to .txt files, then manually merge the two files into a new one containing keyframes from both X-Spline Layers. Is there an easier way to do this (either merging two X-Spline Layer, or using a single X-Spline Layer that can move to a new location without affecting previous keyframes) ? Any suggestion would help.

    Read the article

  • SSH tunnel for socks5 proxy is slow with concurrent load

    - by RawwrBag
    I ssh to a remote AWS server using Ubuntu. I use ssh's port forwarding capabilities to do this. I have tried forwarding a dynamic port (ssh -D) or a single port (ssh -L with dante running as a remote socks server). Both are equally slow. I also tried different ciphers (ssh -c). Concurrent TCP connections pretty much do not work. For example, I can go to speedtest.net and start a test (which is fairly fast, probably maxes out my line speed) and if I try and do anything (i.e. load google.com) while the test is still running, all the additional connections seem to hang until the speed test is over. I realize OpenSSH is single-threaded. Is this the problem? It doesn't even show up on my top. Same goes for sshd on the remote server -- no processor hit. Is there anyway to bump ssh performance or should I step up to OpenVPN or something better suited for this?

    Read the article

  • Bad Intel DQ965GF motherboard? Fails memtest, but memory is good.

    - by Boden
    I've got a machine with a DQ965GF motherboard. Two days ago it started locking up hard. Ran memtest 3.3, 1.7, and TestMem 4. TestMem just freezes, memtest failed on moving 8 bit inversions. Letting memtest run eventually causes the system to restart. I pulled memory sticks one by one, and then replaced the memory with a couple of known good sticks. No luck. I switched power supplies, didn't help. Swapped video cards just to be safe. No help. When I start the machine I get a single beep before it POSTs. According to the manual, a single beep means: 1 beep - Refresh Error (with nothing on the screen and it is not a video problem) I'm assuming that the motherboard has failed since it's obviously not a RAM or power issue. Do you agree? NOTE: I also tried resetting BIOS defaults, and even flashed the BIOS to the latest version. I also ran the Mersenne Prime Test and the CPU seems to click along just fine. (Tried logging in to superuser with openid but it's not working for me today. Hope this gets through)

    Read the article

  • Port knocking via SSH tunnels

    - by j0ker
    I have a server running in my university's internal network. There is only one SSH daemon running which is secured by port knocking with knockd. Works fine if I try to connect from within the internal network. But since the server has no external IP, I have to tunnel into the internal network every time I want to access the server from outside. And since tunneling only works for a single port I cannot do the port knocking as easily as from an internal client. In fact, I don't get it to work at all. What I'm trying is opening tunnels for all the different ports that have to be knocked. Then I send TCP-SYN packets into the tunnels. But that doesn't work even for a single port. If I establish the tunnel on the first port in the knock sequence and send a packet through it, it doesn't reach the server. There is no entry in the log file of knockd, while there should be something like 123.45.67.89: openSSH: Stage 1 (as shown with internal knocks). So I guess, the problem doesn't exist within my knocking script but is a more general one. Are there any known problems with what I'm trying to do? Is it even possible or am I missing something? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183  | Next Page >