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• Parameters not being passed into template when using the .Net transform classes

  - by Chris F

  I am using the .Net XslCompiledTranform to run some simple XSLT (see below for a simplified example). The example XSLT is meant to do simply show the value of the parameter that is passed in to the template. The output is what I expect it to be (i.e. <result xmlns:p1="http://www.doesnotexist.com"> <valueOfParamA>valueA</valueOfParamA> </result> when I use Saxon 9.0, but when I use XslCompiledTransform (XslTransform) in .net I get <result xmlns:p1="http://www.doesnotexist.com"> <valueOfParamA></valueOfParamA> </result> The problem is that that the parameter value of paramA is not being passed into the template when I use the .Net classes. I completely stumped as to why. when I step through in Visual Studio, the debugger says that the template will be called with paramA='valueA' but when execution switches to the template the value of paramA is blank. Can anyone explain why this is happening? Is this a bug in the MS implementation or (more likely) am I doing something that is forbidden in XSLT? Any help greatly appreciated. This is the XSLT that I am using <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns:extfn="http://exslt.org/common" exclude-result-prefixes="extfn" xmlns:p1="http://www.doesnotexist.com"> <!-- Replace msxml with xmlns:extfn="http://exslt.org/common" xmlns:extfn="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:xslt" --> <xsl:output method="xml" indent="yes"/> <xsl:template match="/"> <xsl:variable name="resultTreeFragment"> <p1:foo> </p1:foo> </xsl:variable> <xsl:variable name="nodeset" select="extfn:node-set($resultTreeFragment)"/> <result> <xsl:apply-templates select="$nodeset" mode="AParticularMode"> <xsl:with-param name="paramA" select="'valueA'"/> </xsl:apply-templates> </result> </xsl:template> <xsl:template match="@* | node()" mode="AParticularMode"> <xsl:param name="paramA"/> <valueOfParamA> <xsl:value-of select="$paramA"/> </valueOfParamA> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet>

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• Question about DBD::CSB Statement-Functions

  - by sid_com

  From the SQL::Statement::Functions documentation: Function syntax When using SQL::Statement/SQL::Parser directly to parse SQL, functions (either built-in or user-defined) may occur anywhere in a SQL statement that values, column names, table names, or predicates may occur. When using the modules through a DBD or in any other context in which the SQL is both parsed and executed, functions can occur in the same places except that they can not occur in the column selection clause of a SELECT statement that contains a FROM clause. # valid for both parsing and executing SELECT MyFunc(args); SELECT * FROM MyFunc(args); SELECT * FROM x WHERE MyFuncs(args); SELECT * FROM x WHERE y < MyFuncs(args); # valid only for parsing (won't work from a DBD) SELECT MyFunc(args) FROM x WHERE y; Reading this I would expect that the first SELECT-statement of my example shouldn't work and the second should but it is quite the contrary. #!/usr/bin/env perl use warnings; use strict; use 5.010; use DBI; open my $fh, '>', 'test.csv' or die $!; say $fh "id,name"; say $fh "1,Brown"; say $fh "2,Smith"; say $fh "7,Smith"; say $fh "8,Green"; close $fh; my $dbh = DBI->connect ( 'dbi:CSV:', undef, undef, { RaiseError => 1, f_ext => '.csv', }); my $table = 'test'; say "\nSELECT 1"; my $sth = $dbh->prepare ( "SELECT MAX( id ) FROM $table WHERE name LIKE 'Smith'" ); $sth->execute (); $sth->dump_results(); say "\nSELECT 2"; $sth = $dbh->prepare ( "SELECT * FROM $table WHERE id = MAX( id )" ); $sth->execute (); $sth->dump_results(); outputs: SELECT 1 '7' 1 rows SELECT 2 Unknown function 'MAX' at /usr/lib/perl5/site_perl/5.10.0/SQL/Parser.pm line 2893. DBD::CSV::db prepare failed: Unknown function 'MAX' at /usr/lib/perl5/site_perl/5.10.0/SQL/Parser.pm line 2894. [for Statement "SELECT * FROM test WHERE id = MAX( id )"] at ./so_3.pl line 30. DBD::CSV::db prepare failed: Unknown function 'MAX' at /usr/lib/perl5/site_perl/5.10.0/SQL/Parser.pm line 2894. [for Statement "SELECT * FROM test WHERE id = MAX( id )"] at ./so_3.pl line 30. Could someone explaine me this behavior?

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• HTTP caching confusion

  - by Keith

  I'm not sure whether this is a server issue, or whether I'm failing to understand how HTTP caching really works. I have an ASP MVC application running on IIS7. There's a lot of static content as part of the site including lots of CSS, Javascript and image files. For these files I want the browser to cache them for at least a day - our .css, .js, .gif and .png files rarely change. My web.config goes like this: <system.webServer> <staticContent> <clientCache cacheControlMode="UseMaxAge" cacheControlMaxAge="1.00:00:00" /> </staticContent> </system.webServer> The problem I'm getting is that the browser (tested Chrome, IE8 and FX) doesn't seem to be caching the files as I'd expect. I've got the default settings (check for newer pages automatically in IE). On first visit the content downloads as expected HTTP/1.1 200 OK Cache-Control: max-age=86400 Content-Type: image/gif Last-Modified: Fri, 07 Aug 2009 09:55:15 GMT Accept-Ranges: bytes ETag: "3efeb2294517ca1:0" Server: Microsoft-IIS/7.0 X-Powered-By: ASP.NET Date: Mon, 07 Jun 2010 14:29:16 GMT Content-Length: 918 <content> I think that the Cache-Control: max-age=86400 should tell the browser not to request the page again for a day. Ok, so now the page is reloaded and the browser requests the image again. This time it gets an empty response with these headers: HTTP/1.1 304 Not Modified Cache-Control: max-age=86400 Last-Modified: Fri, 07 Aug 2009 09:55:15 GMT Accept-Ranges: bytes ETag: "3efeb2294517ca1:0" Server: Microsoft-IIS/7.0 X-Powered-By: ASP.NET Date: Mon, 07 Jun 2010 14:30:32 GMT So it looks like the browser has sent the ETag back (as a unique id for the resource), and the server's come back with a 304 Not Modified - telling the browser that it can use the previously downloaded file. It seems to me that would be correct for many caching situations, but here I don't want the extra round trip. I don't care if the image gets out of date when the file on the server changes. There are a lot of these files (even with sprite-maps and the like) and many of our clients have very slow networks. Each round trip to ping for that 304 status is taking about a 10th to a 5th of a second. Many also have IE6 which only has 2 HTTP connections at a time. The net result is that our application appears to be very slow for these clients with every page taking an extra couple of seconds to check that the static content hasn't changed. What response header am I missing that would cause the browser to aggressively cache the files? How would I set this in a .Net web.config for IIS7? Am I misunderstanding how HTTP caching works in the first place?

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• C++ adding friend to a template class in order to typecast

  - by user1835359

  I'm currently reading "Effective C++" and there is a chapter that contains code similiar to this: template <typename T> class Num { public: Num(int n) { ... } }; template <typename T> Num<T> operator*(const Num<T>& lhs, const Num<T>& rhs) { ... } Num<int> n = 5 * Num<int>(10); The book says that this won't work (and indeed it doesn't) because you can't expect the compiler to use implicit typecasting to specialize a template. As a soluting it is suggested to use the "friend" syntax to define the function inside the class. //It works template <typename T> class Num { public: Num(int n) { ... } friend Num operator*(const Num& lhs, const Num& rhs) { ... } }; Num<int> n = 5 * Num<int>(10); And the book suggests to use this friend-declaration thing whenever I need implicit conversion to a template class type. And it all seems to make sense. But why can't I get the same example working with a common function, not an operator? template <typename T> class Num { public: Num(int n) { ... } friend void doFoo(const Num& lhs) { ... } }; doFoo(5); This time the compiler complaints that he can't find any 'doFoo' at all. And if i declare the doFoo outside the class, i get the reasonable mismatched types error. Seems like the "friend ..." part is just being ignored. So is there a problem with my understanding? What is the difference between a function and an operator in this case?

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• What does these FindBug messages show?

  - by Hans Klock

  Not every description from from http://findbugs.sourceforge.net/bugDescriptions.html is clear to me. Sure, I can study the implementation but if somebody is more experienced then me, some explanation and examples would be great. Do you have some examples for UI_INHERITANCE_UNSAFE_GETRESOURCE when this is getting a problem? In BX_UNBOXED_AND_COERCED_FOR_TERNARY_OPERATOR I don't see the problem either. If one type is "bigger" then the other, for example int and float, then the result is float. If its Integer and Float its the wrapper Float too. That's what I expect. Does the GC_UNRELATED_TYPES really help to find errors? Isn't it the job of the compiler to check, if--taking the given example--Foo can't go into a Collection<String>. Does HE_SIGNATURE_DECLARES_HASHING_OF_UNHASHABLE_CLASS mean something like bla(Foo f){hashtable.put(f);}, where ´Foo´ is not hashable? Does FingBugs "see" the subclasses too? NP_GUARANTEED_DEREF_ON_EXCEPTION_PATH is stronger "wrong" then NP_ALWAYS_NULL_EXCEPTION? Why two error cases and with NP_NULL_ON_SOME_PATH_EXCEPTION even one more? Sounds very similar to me. What is an example of SIO_SUPERFLUOUS_INSTANCEOF? Something like foo(String s){if (s intenceof String) .... This does a null check too, but this is not the test here... NN_NAKED_NOTIFY. I my opinion the description is not clear. A change of the state is not necessary. If I use new Object() to wait and notify on I don't change the object state. Or is state the lock-state? I don't get it. SP_SPIN_ON_FIELD. Can this really happen that a compiler will move this outside from a loop? This doesn't make sense to me because from outside a Thread can always change the values. And if the variable is volatile the JVM can't cache the value. So what's the meaning? That is the difference between STCAL_STATIC_CALENDAR_INSTANCE and STCAL_INVOKE_ON_STATIC_CALENDAR_INSTANCE or STCAL_INVOKE_ON_STATIC_DATE_FORMAT_INSTANCE/STCAL_STATIC_SIMPLE_DATE_FORMAT_INSTANCE? Why is XXXX.class in WL_USING_GETCLASS_RATHER_THAN_CLASS_LITERAL better then getClass()? A getClass() in a superclass called from the subclass will always return the Class object from the subclass which is good I think. What exactly does EQ_UNUSUAL do? It should check that the argument is of the same type of the class itself but it does't? Did you ever had problems with breaks? Is there real value with SF_SWITCH_FALLTHROUGH? Sounds to strong for me. No idea what TQ_EXPLICIT_UNKNOWN_SOURCE_VALUE_REACHES_ALWAYS_SINK and TQ_EXPLICIT_UNKNOWN_SOURCE_VALUE_REACHES_NEVER_SINK could be.

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• JavaFX - question regarding binding button's disabled state

  - by jamiebarrow

  I'm trying to create a dummy application that maintains a list of tasks. For now, all I'm trying to do is add to the list. I enter a task name in a text box, click on the add task button, and expect the list to be updated with the new item and the task name input to be cleared. I only want to be able to add tasks if the task name is not empty. The below code is my implementation, but I have a question regarding the binding. I'm binding the textbox's text variable to a string in my view model, and the button's disable variable to a boolean in my view model. I have a trigger to update the disabled state when the task name changes. When the binding of the task name happens the boolean is updated accordingly, but the button still appears disabled. But then when I mouse over the button, it becomes enabled. I believe this is due to JavaFX 1.3's binding being lazy - only updates the bound variable when it is read. Also, when I've added the task, I clear the task name in the model, but the textbox's text doesn't change - even though I'm using bind with inverse. Is there a way to make the textbox's text and the button's disabled state update automatically via the binding as I was expecting? Thanks, James AddTaskViewModel.fx: package jamiebarrow; import java.lang.System; public class AddTaskViewModel { function logChange(prop:String,oldValue,newValue):Void { println("{System.currentTimeMillis()} : {prop} [{oldValue}] to [{newValue}] "); } public var newTaskName: String on replace old { logChange("newTaskName",old,newTaskName); isAddTaskDisabled = (newTaskName == null or newTaskName.trim().length() == 0); }; public var isAddTaskDisabled: Boolean on replace old { logChange("isAddTaskDisabled",old,isAddTaskDisabled); }; public var taskItems = [] on replace old { logChange("taskItems",old,taskItems); }; public function addTask() { insert newTaskName into taskItems; newTaskName = ""; } } Main.fx: package jamiebarrow; import javafx.scene.control.Button; import javafx.scene.control.TextBox; import javafx.scene.control.ListView; import javafx.scene.Scene; import javafx.scene.layout.VBox; import javafx.stage.Stage; import javafx.scene.layout.HBox; def viewModel = AddTaskViewModel{}; var txtName: TextBox = TextBox { text: bind viewModel.newTaskName with inverse onKeyTyped: onKeyTyped }; function onKeyTyped(event): Void { txtName.commit(); // ensures model is updated cmdAddTask.disable = viewModel.isAddTaskDisabled;// the binding only occurs lazily, so this is needed } var cmdAddTask = Button { text: "Add" disable: bind viewModel.isAddTaskDisabled with inverse action: onAddTask }; function onAddTask(): Void { viewModel.addTask(); } var lstTasks = ListView { items: bind viewModel.taskItems with inverse }; Stage { scene: Scene { content: [ VBox { content: [ HBox { content: [ txtName, cmdAddTask ] }, lstTasks ] } ] } }

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• Cleaning up a dynamic array of Objects in C++

  - by Dr. Monkey

  I'm a bit confused about handling an array of objects in C++, as I can't seem to find information about how they are passed around (reference or value) and how they are stored in an array. I would expect an array of objects to be an array of pointers to that object type, but I haven't found this written anywhere. Would they be pointers, or would the objects themselves be laid out in memory in an array? In the example below, a custom class myClass holds a string (would this make it of variable size, or does the string object hold a pointer to a string and therefore take up a consistent amount of space. I try to create a dynamic array of myClass objects within a myContainer. In the myContainer.addObject() method I attempt to make a bigger array, copy all the objects into it along with a new object, then delete the old one. I'm not at all confident that I'm cleaning up my memory properly with my destructors - what improvements could I make in this area? class myClass { private string myName; public unsigned short myAmount; myClass(string name, unsigned short amount) { myName = name; myAmount = amount; } //Do I need a destructor here? I don't think so because I don't do any // dynamic memory allocation within this class } class myContainer { int numObjects; myClass * myObjects; myContainer() { numObjects = 0; } ~myContainer() { //Is this sufficient? //Or do I need to iterate through myObjects and delete each // individually? delete [] myObjects; } void addObject(string name, unsigned short amount) { myClass newObject = new myClass(name, amount); myClass * tempObjects; tempObjects = new myClass[numObjects+1]; for (int i=0; i<numObjects; i++) tempObjects[i] = myObjects[i]); tempObjects[numObjects] = newObject; numObjects++; delete newObject; //Will this delete all my objects? I think it won't. //I'm just trying to delete the old array, and have the new array hold // all the objects plus the new object. delete [] myObjects; myObjects = tempObjects; } }

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• Starting company and getting a good deal

  - by Dan

  Hi, I'm having the possibility to start a small company with someone else. I'm a software programmer and been working on a field where there isn't much competition, at least in the platform I'm developing, which is the one with highest market share. This other person comes from marketing so he would find / provide clients and be in charge of the business side. So initially it would be me, the tech guy with the knowledge to develop our product and products based on my development, and this person who would become CEO (basically a 50/50 share). The idea is getting a product on our own, but also perform projects for others in order to get some cash. The problem is that his idea is doing this without initial capital. He tells me that he could get some customers from past business (which is mostly true as he has been in the business for some time) and then with the money obtained from such development, we could hire some freelance developers and build our own platform. I've already discussed with him that I don't find this the best way, provided that we need to compete against other companies some of who are VC funded and have many developers working fulltime. But most of all, I'm thinking of whether this is a fair deal to do, provided that this person is not providing anything other than clients, and I'd be the one having to do the work and dedicate time, thus also taking most of the risks. In all fairness, I'd expect him to put some initial capital, given that initially I'm putting some of my code which in some way is money given the time I've dedicated to it. So the question here is, does this seem fair to you? Is this the way it is usually done? My only concern here is that I don't have previous experience with such deals, and I ignore whether this is the usual thing to do in other cases. Certainly having a marketing person helps a lot. As you probably know being a programmer doesn't make me the most indicated person for marketing ;-) but at the same time I'm not sure if this could be a good deal or I'd just be making a pretty inconvenient deal. Hope I made my point clear, but feel free to let me know if more details are needed. Thanks in advance

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• MSSQL 2005: Update rows in a specified order (like ORDER BY)?

  - by JMTyler

  I want to update rows of a table in a specific order, like one would expect if including an ORDER BY clause, but MS SQL does not support the ORDER BY clause in UPDATE queries. I have checked out this question which supplied a nice solution, but my query is a bit more complicated than the one specified there. UPDATE TableA AS Parent SET Parent.ColA = Parent.ColA + (SELECT TOP 1 Child.ColA FROM TableA AS Child WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB ORDER BY Child.Priority) ORDER BY Parent.Depth DESC; So, what I'm hoping that you'll notice is that a single table (TableA) contains a hierarchy of rows, wherein one row can be the parent or child of any other row. The rows need to be updated in order from the deepest child up to the root parent. This is because TableA.ColA must contain an up-to-date concatenation of its own current value with the values of its children (I realize this query only concats with one child, but that is for the sake of simplicity - the purpose of the example in this question does not necessitate any more verbosity), therefore the query must update from the bottom up. The solution suggested in the question I noted above is as follows: UPDATE messages SET status=10 WHERE ID in (SELECT TOP (10) Id FROM Table WHERE status=0 ORDER BY priority DESC ); The reason that I don't think I can use this solution is because I am referencing column values from the parent table inside my subquery (see WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB), and I don't think two sibling subqueries would have access to each others' data. So far I have only determined one way to merge that suggested solution with my current problem, and I don't think it works. UPDATE TableA AS Parent SET Parent.ColA = Parent.ColA + (SELECT TOP 1 Child.ColA FROM TableA AS Child WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB ORDER BY Child.Priority) WHERE Parent.Id IN (SELECT Id FROM TableA ORDER BY Parent.Depth DESC); The WHERE..IN subquery will not actually return a subset of the rows, it will just return the full list of IDs in the order that I want. However (I don't know for sure - please tell me if I'm wrong) I think that the WHERE..IN clause will not care about the order of IDs within the parentheses - it will just check the ID of the row it currently wants to update to see if it's in that list (which, they all are) in whatever order it is already trying to update... Which would just be a total waste of cycles, because it wouldn't change anything. So, in conclusion, I have looked around and can't seem to figure out a way to update in a specified order (and included the reason I need to update in that order, because I am sure I would otherwise get the ever-so-useful "why?" answers) and I am now hitting up Stack Overflow to see if any of you gurus out there who know more about SQL than I do (which isn't saying much) know of an efficient way to do this. It's particularly important that I only use a single query to complete this action. A long question, but I wanted to cover my bases and give you guys as much info to feed off of as possible. :) Any thoughts?

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• HTML5 Video Tag in Chrome - Why is currentTime ignored when video downloaded from my webserver?

  - by larson4

  I want to be able to play back video from a specific time using the HTML5 video tag (and currently only need to worry about Chrome). This is possible by setting the currentTime property of a video element. That works fine in Chrome with a video sourced from html5rocks.com, but is ignored when the same file is loaded from my own local webserver. Using the sample code from http://playground.html5rocks.com/#video_tag, I have arrived at the following HTML: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <body> <video id="video1" width="320" height="240" volume=".7" controls preload=true autobuffer> <source src="http://playground.html5rocks.com/samples/html5_misc/chrome_japan.webm" type='video/webm; codecs="vp8, vorbis"'/> </video> <input type=button onclick="play()" value="play"> <input type=button onclick="setTime()" value="setTime"> <input type=button onclick="pause()" value="pause"> <script> var play=function() { document.getElementById("video1").play(); } var setTime=function() { document.getElementById("video1").currentTime=2; } var pause=function() { document.getElementById("video1").pause(); } </script> </body> </html> Using Chrome, if you Wait for the video to download for a bit (until the progress bar is about 10% in) Press setTime - you should notice the time jump to 2 seconds press play ...the video will start at 2 seconds in. But if I download the webm file in the source src to my local webserver, and change src to point locally: <source src="chrome_japan.webm" type='video/webm; codecs="vp8, vorbis"'/> ...then setting currentTime is complete ignored. No errors are showing in the developer tools console. Now, my webserver is serving this with mime type "video/webm", but it will be served like any old file -- not streamed. Do I need a webserver that streams in some specific way? What else could be at fault here? Note: The webserver is a proprietary platform and won't have any of the same exact settings or controls one might expect of Tomcat or some other commonly used webserver, though there may be other ways to achieve the same effect.

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• f# types' properties in inconsistent order and of slightly differing types

  - by philbrowndotcom

  I'm trying to iterate through an array of objects and recursively print out each objects properties. Here is my object model: type firmIdentifier = { firmId: int ; firmName: string ; } type authorIdentifier = { authorId: int ; authorName: string ; firm: firmIdentifier ; } type denormalizedSuggestedTradeRecommendations = { id: int ; ticker: string ; direction: string ; author: authorIdentifier ; } Here is how I am instantiating my objects: let getMyIdeasIdeas = [| {id=1; ticker="msfqt"; direction="buy"; author={authorId=0; authorName="john Smith"; firm={firmId=12; firmName="Firm1"}};}; {id=2; ticker="goog"; direction="sell"; author={authorId=1; authorName="Bill Jones"; firm={firmId=13; firmName="ABC Financial"}};}; {id=3; ticker="DFHF"; direction="buy"; author={authorId=2; authorName="Ron James"; firm={firmId=2; firmName="DEFFirm"}};}|] And here is my algorithm to iterate, recurse and print: let rec recurseObj (sb : StringBuilder) o= let props : PropertyInfo [] = o.GetType().GetProperties() sb.Append( o.GetType().ToString()) |> ignore for x in props do let getMethod = x.GetGetMethod() let value = getMethod.Invoke(o, Array.empty) ignore <| match value with | :? float | :? int | :? string | :? bool as f -> sb.Append(x.Name + ": " + f.ToString() + "," ) |> ignore | _ -> recurseObj sb value for x in getMyIdeas do recurseObj sb x sb.Append("\r\n") |> ignore If you couldnt tell, I'm trying to create a csv file and am printing out the types for debugging purposes. The problem is, the first element comes through in the order you'd expect, but all subsequent elements come through with a slightly different (and confusing) ordering of the "child" properties like so: RpcMethods+denormalizedSuggestedTradeRecommendationsid: 1,ticker: msfqt,direction: buy,RpcMethods+authorIdentifierauthorId: 0,authorName: john Smith,RpcMethods+firmIdentifierfirmId: 12,firmName: Firm1, RpcMethods+denormalizedSuggestedTradeRecommendationsid: 2,ticker: goog,direction: sell,RpcMethods+authorIdentifierauthorName: Bill Jones,RpcMethods+firmIdentifierfirmName: ABC Financial,firmId: 13,authorId: 1, RpcMethods+denormalizedSuggestedTradeRecommendationsid: 3,ticker: DFHF,direction: buy,RpcMethods+authorIdentifierauthorName: Ron James,RpcMethods+firmIdentifierfirmName: DEFFirm,firmId: 2,authorId: 2, Any idea what is going on here?

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• Memory management with Objective-C Distributed Objects: my temporary instances live forever!

  - by jkp

  I'm playing with Objective-C Distributed Objects and I'm having some problems understanding how memory management works under the system. The example given below illustrates my problem: Protocol.h #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> @protocol DOServer - (byref id)createTarget; @end Server.m #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import "Protocol.h" @interface DOTarget : NSObject @end @interface DOServer : NSObject < DOServer > @end @implementation DOTarget - (id)init { if ((self = [super init])) { NSLog(@"Target created"); } return self; } - (void)dealloc { NSLog(@"Target destroyed"); [super dealloc]; } @end @implementation DOServer - (byref id)createTarget { return [[[DOTarget alloc] init] autorelease]; } @end int main() { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; DOServer *server = [[DOServer alloc] init]; NSConnection *connection = [[NSConnection new] autorelease]; [connection setRootObject:server]; if ([connection registerName:@"test-server"] == NO) { NSLog(@"Failed to vend server object"); } else [[NSRunLoop currentRunLoop] run]; [pool drain]; return 0; } Client.m #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import "Protocol.h" int main() { unsigned i = 0; for (; i < 3; i ++) { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; id server = [NSConnection rootProxyForConnectionWithRegisteredName:@"test-server" host:nil]; [server setProtocolForProxy:@protocol(DOServer)]; NSLog(@"Created target: %@", [server createTarget]); [[NSRunLoop currentRunLoop] runUntilDate:[NSDate dateWithTimeIntervalSinceNow:1.0]]; [pool drain]; } return 0; } The issue is that any remote objects created by the root proxy are not released when their proxy counterparts in the client go out of scope. According to the documentation: When an object’s remote proxy is deallocated, a message is sent back to the receiver to notify it that the local object is no longer shared over the connection. I would therefore expect that as each DOTarget goes out of scope (each time around the loop) it's remote counterpart would be dellocated, since there is no other reference to it being held on the remote side of the connection. In reality this does not happen: the temporary objects are only deallocate when the client application quits, or more accurately, when the connection is invalidated. I can force the temporary objects on the remote side to be deallocated by explicitly invalidating the NSConnection object I'm using each time around the loop and creating a new one but somehow this just feels wrong. Is this the correct behaviour from DO? Should all temporary objects live as long as the connection that created them? Are connections therefore to be treated as temporary objects which should be opened and closed with each series of requests against the server? Any insights would be appreciated.

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• Self updating app, wont overwrite existing app, using Android packagemanager?

  - by LokiSinclair

  I know there are plenty of questions about this on here, but I've tried everything (but the correct 'thing', obviously!) and nothing seems to shine any light on the problem I'm having. I've written an app (for a customer), which is designed to be hosted on their own server. The app references a simple text file with the latest version code in it and checks it against it's own version. If it's out of date it goes off and downloads the update. Everything is working as intended up to this point. I use the: Intent i = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_VIEW); i.setDataAndType(Uri.fromFile(outputFile), "application/vnd.android.package-archive"); i.setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); startActivity(i); ...code to start the install process of the newly downloaded .apk file. And that all starts as I would expect. I click on "Install" - when I'm prompted to confirm the overwriting of the current app, with the new. It starts, and then displays: App not installed. And existing package by the same name with a conflicting signature is already installed. Now I'm aware that Android can't have multiple applications sharing the same package name, which is fine, but nothing comes up in LogCat and I can only assume that the OS is annoyed at me attempting to 'update' my app, even though I'm going through all the correct channels and using the inbuilt package manager to do it for me! Can anyone tell me what the OS is moaning about? I'm not attempting to install two apps side by side, I want it to update it, which it starts to do, and then gets really confused. Is it something to do with me using the same keystore for signing the packages? I highly doubt it as I've used the same keystores previously to handle updates to games and the like, but I just can't figure out what it's complaining about. Hopefully someone out there has had this issue and solved it, and can point me in the right direction. I'm flying a bit blind with the limited information it's giving me :( Cheers.

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• AngularJS service returning promise unit test gives error No more request expected

  - by softweave

  I want to test a service (Bar) that invokes another service (Foo) and returns a promise. The test is currently failing with this error: Error: Unexpected request: GET foo.json No more request expected Here are the service definitions: // Foo service returns new objects having get function returning a promise angular.module('foo', []). factory('Foo', ['$http', function ($http) { function FooFactory(config) { var Foo = function (config) { angular.extend(this, config); }; Foo.prototype = { get: function (url, params, successFn, errorFn) { successFn = successFn || function (response) {}; errorFn = errorFn || function (response) {}; return $http.get(url, {}).then(successFn, errorFn); } }; return new Foo(config); }; return FooFactory; }]); // Bar service uses Foo service angular.module('bar', ['foo']). factory('Bar', ['Foo', function (Foo) { var foo = Foo(); return { getCurrentTime: function () { return foo.get('foo.json', {}, function (response) { return Date.parse(response.data.now); }); } }; }]); Here is my current test: 'use strict'; describe('bar tests', function () { var currentTime, currentTimeInMs, $q, $rootScope, mockFoo, mockFooFactory, Foo, Bar, now; currentTime = "March 26, 2014 13:10 UTC"; currentTimeInMs = Date.parse(currentTime); beforeEach(function () { // stub out enough of Foo to satisfy Bar service: // create mock object with function get: function(url, params, successFn, errorFn) // that promises to return a response with this property // { data: { now: "March 26, 2014 13:10 UTC" }}) mockFoo = { get: function (url, params, successFn, errorFn) { successFn = successFn || function (response) {}; errorFn = errorFn || function (response) {}; // setup deferred promise var deferred = $q.defer(); deferred.resolve({data: { now: currentTime }}); return (deferred.promise).then(successFn, errorFn); } }; // create mock Foo service mockFooFactory = function(config) { return mockFoo; }; module(function ($provide) { $provide.value('Foo', mockFooFactory); }); module('bar'); inject(function (_$q_, _$rootScope_, _Foo_, _Bar_) { $q = _$q_; $rootScope = _$rootScope_; Foo = _Foo_; Bar = _Bar_; }); }); it('getCurrentTime should return currentTimeInMs', function () { Bar.getCurrentTime().then(function (serverCurrentTime) { now = serverCurrentTime; }); $rootScope.$apply(); // resolve Bar promise expect(now).toEqual(currentTimeInMs); }); }); The error is being thrown at $rootScope.$apply(). I also tried using $rootScope.$digest(), but it gives the same error. Thanks in advance for any insight you can give me.

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• jQuery ajax multiline "script" response

  - by Rendrik

  I'm designing a template creation tool, which uses a jQuery Ajax request that posts parameters to a PHP file. The PHP does the actual generation of the template's HTML. // Send for processing. Expect JS back to execute. function generate() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "generate.php", data: $('#genform :input').serialize(), dataType: "script", beforeSend: function() { $("#loading").html("<img src='images/loadbar.gif' />"); $("#loading") .dialog({ height: 80, width: 256, autoOpen: true, modal: true }); }, success: function(data) { $("#loading").dialog('close'); } }); } My trouble is that I have the ajax dataType: set to "script". Using this, the PHP file generates some jQuery dialogs for any errors which works nicely. However, after I generate the HTML, i'm having trouble passing it back. So I have probably 100 lines of generated HTML and javascript which i'd like to work with. In the PHP file, i've tried: echo('$("#result").html("'.$html.'");'); This does actually work if there are NO line breaks in $html. As soon as there are any line breaks, the Chrome debugger reports "gen.html:1 Uncaught SyntaxError: Unexpected token ILLEGAL". It's obvious that it's trying to eval the returned response headers, but is stopping at any line break. So, to be clear, when I pass $html back, if the contents are this: $html = "<div>hi there</div>"; It works fine (all of my error message dialogs are one line). But if it's: $html = "<div> hi there </div>"; It blows up. I'm really not sure how to get around this, or if there's a better way to go about it. It's important to me to keep the formatting so people can copy the HTML template. I may just break down and display the template file on the PHP page if I can't solve this, but I was really hoping to keep everything within the confines of the HTML page.

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• Using XAML + designer to edit Plain Old CLR Objects?

  - by Joe White

  I want to write a POCO in XAML, and use a DataTemplate to display that object in the GUI at runtime. So far, so good; I know how to do all that. Since I'll already have a DataTemplate that can transform my POCO into a WPF visual tree, is there any way to get the Visual Studio designer to play along, and have the Design View show me the POCO+DataTemplate's resulting GUI, as I edit the POCO's XAML? (Obviously the designer wouldn't know how to edit the "design view"; I wouldn't expect the Toolbox or click-and-drag to work on the design surface. That's fine -- I just want to see a preview as I edit.) If you're curious, the POCOs in question would be level maps for a game. (At this point, I'm not planning to ship an end-user map editor, so I'll be doing all the editing myself in Visual Studio.) So the XAML isn't WPF GUI objects like Window and UserControl, but it's still not something where I would want to blindly bang out some XAML and hope for the best. I want to see what I'm doing (the GUI map) as I'm doing it. If I try to make a XAML file whose root is my map object, the designer shows "Intentionally Left Blank - The document root element is not supported by the visual designer." It does this even if I've defined a DataTemplate in App.xaml's <Application.Resources>. But I know the designer can show my POCO, when it's inside a WPF object. One possible way of accomplishing what I want would be to have a ScratchUserControl that just contains a ContentPresenter, and write my POCO XAML inside that ContentPresenter's Content property, e.g.: <UserControl ...> <ContentPresenter> <ContentPresenter.Content> <Maps:Map .../> </ContentPresenter.Content> </ContentPresenter> </UserControl> But then I would have to be sure to copy the content back out into its own file when I was done editing, which seems tedious and error-prone, and I don't like tedious and error-prone. And since I can preview my XAML this way, isn't there some way to do it without the UserControl?

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• File Output using Gforth

  - by sheepez

  As a first project I have been writing a short program to render the Mandelbrot fractal. I have got to the point of trying to output my results to a file ( e.g. .bmp or .ppm ) and got stuck. I have not really found any examples of exactly what I am trying to do, but I have found two examples of code to copy from one file to another. The examples in the Gforth documentation ( Section 3.27 ) did not work for me ( winXP ) in fact they seemed to open and create files but not write to files properly. This is the Gforth documentation example that copies the contents of one file to another: 0 Value fd-in 0 Value fd-out : open-input ( addr u -- ) r/o open-file throw to fd-in ; : open-output ( addr u -- ) w/o create-file throw to fd-out ; s" foo.in" open-input s" foo.out" open-output : copy-file ( -- ) begin line-buffer max-line fd-in read-line throw while line-buffer swap fd-out write-line throw repeat ; I found this example ( http://rosettacode.org/wiki/File_IO#Forth ) which does work. The main problem is that I can't isolate the part that writes to a file and have it still work. The main confusion is that r doesn't seem to consume TOS as I might expect. : copy-file2 ( a1 n1 a2 n2 -- ) r/o open-file throw >r w/o create-file throw r> begin pad maxstring 2 pick read-file throw ?dup while pad swap 3 pick write-file throw repeat close-file throw close-file throw ; \ Invoke it like this: s" output.txt" s" input.txt" copy-file I would be very grateful if someone could explain exactly how the open, create read and write -file words actually work, as my investigation keeps resulting in somewhat bizarre stacks. Any clues as to why the Gforth examples do not work might help too. In summary, I want to output from Gforth to a file and so far have been thwarted. Can anyone offer any help? Thank you Vijay, I think that I understand the example that you gave. However when I try to use something like this ( which I think is similar ): 0 value test-file : write-test s" testfile.out" w/o create-file throw to test-file s" test text" test-file write-line ; I get ok but nothing is put into the file, have I made a mistake? It seems that the problem was due to not flushing the relevant buffers or explicitly closing the file. Adding something like test-file flush-file throw or test-file close-file throw between write-line and ; makes it work. Thanks again Vijay for helping.

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• Browser detection Plugin?

  - by chobo2

  Hi I have a website that I made and I am planning to redo it. The current version of the site used a jquery callout plugin that did not fully work in IE6. This got me thinking about browser detection. At first I was just going to put the supported browsers on the home page but then today on Digg I saw some post about some jquery plugins and wordpress and in the article there was a plugin for detecting IE. So I started to look around for some browser detection plugins. I found a few of them but they where over the top like this one sevenup Its nice but it makes a huge popup and tells them to update. This one is better then another one I found where they basically forced the user to update or they could not continue on the site. So I found this one jquery plugin This one is pretty nice since it looks at the major browsers and does detection on them too expect for chrome which I noticed triggers and an outdated browser with this plugin. So I started to look at the jquery documentation to see if they had a browser detection for chrome this is when I saw that they "Deprecated" and now recommend "Support". So now I am just confused like "Support" seems to be good and I read many posts on this site saying you should use it. But then it does not support stuff like .png detection that might have been useful to me since of that plugin(however I probably will not be using the plugin anymore since I think the author just gave up on it). Plus I don't know if this is something I am looking for at this time. Like I am guessing with "Support" you use it to detect something that is not supported and then do some alternative thing for that browser? For me I am more looking for something to tell the user "Hey look I tested this browser in the these versions of Firefox(3.5+), IE(8+), Opera(9.5+),Chrome(Something), Safari(Something). If your not using these versions you may not being seeing the site how it was intended" Of course I would try to have something shorter then that message but that the gyst. I am also assuming that the site would work in future versions of these browsers. I still check to see if my site works(they usually do) and is half decent in IE 6 but I won't spend hours fixing stuff that might be off in older browsers like IE 6. I won't test my site in older version of other browsers like firefox since I would think the user have to the sense to update so no point testing firefox 2.0 or whatever. So is there a plugin that fits this description? Or can "Support" do what I want? Thanks

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• node.js callback getting unexpected value for variable

  - by defrex

  I have a for loop, and inside it a variable is assigned with var. Also inside the loop a method is called which requires a callback. Inside the callback function I'm using the variable from the loop. I would expect that it's value, inside the callback function, would be the same as it was outside the callback during that iteration of the loop. However, it always seems to be the value from the last iteration of the loop. Am I misunderstanding scope in JavaScript, or is there something else wrong? The program in question here is a node.js app that will monitor a working directory for changes and restart the server when it finds one. I'll include all of the code for the curious, but the important bit is the parse_file_list function. var posix = require('posix'); var sys = require('sys'); var server; var child_js_file = process.ARGV[2]; var current_dir = __filename.split('/'); current_dir = current_dir.slice(0, current_dir.length-1).join('/'); var start_server = function(){ server = process.createChildProcess('node', [child_js_file]); server.addListener("output", function(data){sys.puts(data);}); }; var restart_server = function(){ sys.puts('change discovered, restarting server'); server.close(); start_server(); }; var parse_file_list = function(dir, files){ for (var i=0;i<files.length;i++){ var file = dir+'/'+files[i]; sys.puts('file assigned: '+file); posix.stat(file).addCallback(function(stats){ sys.puts('stats returned: '+file); if (stats.isDirectory()) posix.readdir(file).addCallback(function(files){ parse_file_list(file, files); }); else if (stats.isFile()) process.watchFile(file, restart_server); }); } }; posix.readdir(current_dir).addCallback(function(files){ parse_file_list(current_dir, files); }); start_server(); The output from this is: file assigned: /home/defrex/code/node/ejs.js file assigned: /home/defrex/code/node/templates file assigned: /home/defrex/code/node/web file assigned: /home/defrex/code/node/server.js file assigned: /home/defrex/code/node/settings.js file assigned: /home/defrex/code/node/apps file assigned: /home/defrex/code/node/dev_server.js file assigned: /home/defrex/code/node/main_urls.js stats returned: /home/defrex/code/node/main_urls.js stats returned: /home/defrex/code/node/main_urls.js stats returned: /home/defrex/code/node/main_urls.js stats returned: /home/defrex/code/node/main_urls.js stats returned: /home/defrex/code/node/main_urls.js stats returned: /home/defrex/code/node/main_urls.js stats returned: /home/defrex/code/node/main_urls.js stats returned: /home/defrex/code/node/main_urls.js For those from the future: node.devserver.js

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• .NET: Is there a way to finagle a default namespace in an XPath 1.0 query?

  - by Cheeso

  I'm building a tool that performs xpath 1.0 queries on XHTML documents. The requirement to use a namespace prefix in the query is killing me. The query looks like this: html/body/div[@class='contents']/div[@class='body']/ div[@class='pgdbbyauthor']/h2[a[@name][starts-with(.,'Quick')]]/ following-sibling::ul[1]/li/a (all on one line) ...which is bad enough, except because it's xpath 1.0, I need to use an explicit namespace prefix on each QName, so it looks like this: ns1:html/ns1:body/ns1:div[@class='contents']/ns1:div[@class='body']/ ns1:div[@class='pgdbbyauthor']/ns1:h2[ns1:a[@name][starts-with(.,'Quick')]]/ following-sibling::ns1:ul[1]/ns1:li/ns1:a To set up the query, I do something like this: var xpathDoc = new XPathDocument(new StringReader(theText)); var nav = xpathDoc.CreateNavigator(); var xmlns = new XmlNamespaceManager(nav.NameTable); foreach (string prefix in xmlNamespaces.Keys) xmlns.AddNamespace(prefix, xmlNamespaces[prefix]); XPathNodeIterator selection = nav.Select(xpathExpression, xmlns); But what I want is for the xpathExpression to use the implicit default namespace. Is there a way for me to transform the unadorned xpath expression, after it's been written, to inject a namespace prefix for each element name in the query? I'm thinking, anything between two slashes, I could inject a prefix there. Excepting of course axis names like "parent::" and "preceding-sibling::" . And wildcards. That's what I mean by "finagle a default namespace". Is this hack gonna work? Addendum Here's what I mean. suppose I have an xpath expression, and before passing it to nav.Select(), I transform it. Something like this: string FixupWithDefaultNamespace(string expr) { string s = expr; s = Regex.Replace(s, "^(?!::)([^/:]+)(?=/)", "ns1:$1"); // beginning s = Regex.Replace(s, "/([^/:]+)(?=/)", "/ns1:$1"); // stanza s = Regex.Replace(s, "::([A-Za-z][^/:*]*)(?=/)", "::ns1:$1"); // axis specifier s = Regex.Replace(s, "\\[([A-Za-z][^/:*\\(]*)(?=[\\[\\]])", "[ns1:$1"); // predicate s = Regex.Replace(s, "/([A-Za-z][^/:]*)(?!<::)$", "/ns1:$1"); // end s = Regex.Replace(s, "^([A-Za-z][^/:]*)$", "ns1:$1"); // edge case s = Regex.Replace(s, "([-A-Za-z]+)\\(([^/:\\.,\\)]+)(?=[,\\)])", "$1(ns1:$2"); // xpath functions return s; } This actually works for simple cases I tried. To use the example from above - if the input is the first xpath expression, the output I get is the 2nd one, with all the ns1 prefixes. The real question is, is it hopeless to expect this Regex.Replace approach to work, as the xpath expressions get more complicated?

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• java multipart POST library

  - by tom

  Is there a multipart POST library out there that achieve the same effect of doing a POST from a html form? for example - upload a file programmingly in Java versus upload the file using a html form. And on the server side, it just blindly expect the request from client side to be a multipart POST request and parse out the data as appropriate. Has anyone tried this? specifically, I am trying to see if I can simulate the following with Java The user creates a blob by submitting an HTML form that includes one or more file input fields. Your app sets blobstoreService.createUploadUrl() as the destination (action) of this form, passing the function a URL path of a handler in your app. When the user submits the form, the user's browser uploads the specified files directly to the Blobstore. The Blobstore rewrites the user's request and stores the uploaded file data, replacing the uploaded file data with one or more corresponding blob keys, then passes the rewritten request to the handler at the URL path you provided to blobstoreService.createUploadUrl(). This handler can do additional processing based on the blob key. Finally, the handler must return a headers-only, redirect response (301, 302, or 303), typically a browser redirect to another page indicating the status of the blob upload. Set blobstoreService.createUploadUrl as the form action, passing the application path to load when the POST of the form is completed. <body> <form action="<%= blobstoreService.createUploadUrl("/upload") %>" method="post" enctype="multipart/form-data"> <input type="file" name="myFile"> <input type="submit" value="Submit"> </form> </body> Note that this is how the upload form would look if it were created as a JSP. The form must include a file upload field, and the form's enctype must be set to multipart/form-data. When the user submits the form, the POST is handled by the Blobstore API, which creates the blob. The API also creates an info record for the blob and stores the record in the datastore, and passes the rewritten request to your app on the given path as a blob key.

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• General ORM design question

  - by Calvin

  Suppose you have 2 classes, Person and Rabbit. A person can do a number of things to a rabbit, s/he can either feed it, buy it and become its owner, or give it away. A rabbit can have none or at most 1 owner at a time. And if it is not fed for a while, it may die. Class Person { Void Feed(Rabbit r); Void Buy(Rabbit r); Void Giveaway(Person p, Rabbit r); Rabbit[] rabbits; } Class Rabbit { Bool IsAlive(); Person pwner; } There are a couple of observations from the domain model: Person and Rabbit can have references to each other Any actions on 1 object can also change the state of the other object Even if no explicit actions are invoked, there can still be a change of state in the objects (e.g. Rabbit can be starved to death, and that causes it to be removed from the Person.rabbits array) As DDD is concerned, I think the correct approach is to synchronize all calls that may change the states in the domain model. For instance, if a Person buys a Rabbit, s/he would need to acquire a lock in Person to make a change to the rabbits array AND also another lock in Rabbit to change its owner before releasing the first one. This would prevent a race condition where 2 Persons claim to be the owner of the little Rabbit. The other approach is to let the database to handle all these synchronizations. Who makes the first call wins, but then the DB needs to have some kind of business logics to figure out if it is a valid transaction (e.g. if a Rabbit already has an owner, it cannot change its owner unless the Person gives it away). There are both pros/cons in either approach, and I’d expect the “best” solution would be somewhere in-between. How would you do it in real life? What’s your take and experience? Also, is it a valid concern that there can be another race condition the domain model has committed its change but before it is fully committed in the database? And for the 3rd observation (i.e. state change due to time factor). How will you do it?

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• Using a map with set_intersection

  - by Robin Welch

  Not used set_intersection before, but I believe it will work with maps. I wrote the following example code but it doesn't give me what I'd expect: #include <map> #include <string> #include <iostream> #include <algorithm> using namespace std; struct Money { double amount; string currency; bool operator< ( const Money& rhs ) const { if ( amount != rhs.amount ) return ( amount < rhs.amount ); return ( currency < rhs.currency ); } }; int main( int argc, char* argv[] ) { Money mn[] = { { 2.32, "USD" }, { 2.76, "USD" }, { 4.30, "GBP" }, { 1.21, "GBP" }, { 1.37, "GBP" }, { 6.74, "GBP" }, { 2.55, "EUR" } }; typedef pair< int, Money > MoneyPair; typedef map< int, Money > MoneyMap; MoneyMap map1; map1.insert( MoneyPair( 1, mn[1] ) ); map1.insert( MoneyPair( 2, mn[2] ) ); map1.insert( MoneyPair( 3, mn[3] ) ); // (3) map1.insert( MoneyPair( 4, mn[4] ) ); // (4) MoneyMap map2; map1.insert( MoneyPair( 3, mn[3] ) ); // (3) map1.insert( MoneyPair( 4, mn[4] ) ); // (4) map1.insert( MoneyPair( 5, mn[5] ) ); map1.insert( MoneyPair( 6, mn[6] ) ); map1.insert( MoneyPair( 7, mn[7] ) ); MoneyMap out; MoneyMap::iterator out_itr( out.begin() ); set_intersection( map1.begin(), map1.end(), map2.begin(), map2.end(), inserter( out, out_itr ) ); cout << "intersection has " << out.size() << " elements." << endl; return 0; } Since the pair labelled (3) and (4) appear in both maps, I was expecting that I'd get 2 elements in the intersection, but no, I get: intersection has 0 elements. I'm sure this is something to do with the comparitor on the map / pair but can't figure it out.

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• Mock Object and Interface

  - by tunl

  I'm a newbie in Unit Test with Mock Object. I use EasyMock. I try to understand this example: import java.io.IOException; public interface ExchangeRate { double getRate(String inputCurrency, String outputCurrency) throws IOException; } import java.io.IOException; public class Currency { private String units; private long amount; private int cents; public Currency(double amount, String code) { this.units = code; setAmount(amount); } private void setAmount(double amount) { this.amount = new Double(amount).longValue(); this.cents = (int) ((amount * 100.0) % 100); } public Currency toEuros(ExchangeRate converter) { if ("EUR".equals(units)) return this; else { double input = amount + cents/100.0; double rate; try { rate = converter.getRate(units, "EUR"); double output = input * rate; return new Currency(output, "EUR"); } catch (IOException ex) { return null; } } } public boolean equals(Object o) { if (o instanceof Currency) { Currency other = (Currency) o; return this.units.equals(other.units) && this.amount == other.amount && this.cents == other.cents; } return false; } public String toString() { return amount + "." + Math.abs(cents) + " " + units; } } import junit.framework.TestCase; import org.easymock.EasyMock; import java.io.IOException; public class CurrencyTest extends TestCase { public void testToEuros() throws IOException { Currency testObject = new Currency(2.50, "USD"); Currency expected = new Currency(3.75, "EUR"); ExchangeRate mock = EasyMock.createMock(ExchangeRate.class); EasyMock.expect(mock.getRate("USD", "EUR")).andReturn(1.5); EasyMock.replay(mock); Currency actual = testObject.toEuros(mock); assertEquals(expected, actual); } } So, i wonder how to Currency use ExchangeRate in toEuros(..) method. rate = converter.getRate(units, "EUR"); The behavior of getRate(..) method is not specified because ExchangeRate is an interface.

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• SQL/Schema comparison and upgrade

  - by Workshop Alex

  I have a simple situation. A large organisation is using several different versions of some (desktop) application and each version has it's own database structure. There are about 200 offices and each office will have it's own version, which can be one of 7 different ones. The company wants to upgrade all applications to the latest versions, which will be version 8. The problem is that they don't have a separate database for each version. Nor do they have a separate database for each office. They have one single database which is handled by a dedicated server, thus keeping things like management and backups easier. Every office has it's own database schema and within the schema there's the whole database structure for their specific application version. As a result, I'm dealing with 200 different schema's which need to be upgraded, each with 7 possible versions. Fortunately, every schema knows the proper version so checking the version isn't difficult. But my problem is that I need to create upgrade scripts which can upgrade from version 1 to version 2 to version 3 to etc... Basically, all schema's need to be bumped up one version until they're all version 8. Writing the code that will do this is no problem. the challenge is how to create the upgrade script from one version to the other? Preferably with some automated tool. I've examined RedGate's SQL Compare and Altova's DatabaseSpy but they're not practical. Altova is way too slow. RedGate requires too much processing afterwards, since the generated SQL Script still has a few errors and it refers to the schema name. Furthermore, the code needs to become part of a stored procedure and the code generated by RedGate doesn't really fit inside a single procedure. (Plus, it's doing too much transaction-handling, while I need everything within a single transaction. I have been considering using another SQL Comparison tool but it seems to me that my case is just too different from what standard tools can deliver. So I'm going to write my own comparison tool. To do this, I'll be using ADOX with Delphi to read the catalogues for every schema version in the database, then use this to write the SQL Statements that will need to upgrade these schema's to their next version. (Comparing 1 with 2, 2 with 3, 3 with 4, etc.) I'm not unfamiliar with generating SQL-Script-Generators so I don't expect too many problems. And I'll only be upgrading the table structures, not any of the other database objects. So, does anyone have some good tips and tricks to apply when doing this kind of comparisons? Things to be aware of? Practical tips to increase speed?

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