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  • Destroy process-less console windows left by Visual Studio debug sessions

    - by jon hanson
    A known bug with security update KB978037 can occur with Visual Studio 2003 (and 2008) where sometimes if you restart a debugging session on a console app then the console window doesn't get closed even though the owner process no longer exists. The problem is discussed further here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2402875/visual-studio-debug-console-sometimes-stays-open-and-is-impossible-to-close These zombie windows then can not be closed via the Taskbar or via the TaskManager, and typically require a power off/on to get rid of them. Over the period of even a single day you can accumulate quite a few of them, which clog up your TaskBar and are generally annoying. I thought I would knock up a simple C++ Win32 utility to attempt to call DestroyWindow() on these windows by passing the windows handle as a cmd-line argument and converting it to a HWND. I'm converting the handle from a string by parsing it as a DWORD then casting the DWORD to a HWND. This appears to be working as if I call GetWindowInfo() on the handle it succeeds. However calling DestroyWindow() on the handle fails with error 5 (access denied), presumably because the caller process (i.e. my app) doesn't own the window in question. Any ideas as to how I might get rid of the zombie windows, either via the above approach or any other alternative short of rebooting? I'm in a corporate environment so installing/uninstalling updates/service-packs etc isn't an option.

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  • Qt and variadic functions

    - by Noah Roberts
    OK, before lecturing me on the use of C-style variadic functions in C++...everything else has turned out to require nothing short of rewriting the Qt MOC. What I'd like to know is whether or not you can have a "slot" in a Qt object that takes an arbitrary amount/type of arguments. The thing is that I really want to be able to generate Qt objects that have slots of an arbitrary signature. Since the MOC is incompatible with standard preprocessing and with templates, it's not possible to do so with either direct approach. I just came up with another idea: struct funky_base : QObject { Q_OBJECT funky_base(QObject * o = 0); public slots: virtual void the_slot(...) = 0; }; If this is possible then, because you can make a template that is a subclass of a QObject derived object so long as you don't declare new Qt stuff in it, I should be able to implement a derived templated type that takes the ... stuff and turns it into the appropriate, expected types. If it is, how would I connect to it? Would this work? connect(x, SIGNAL(someSignal(int)), y, SLOT(the_slot(...))); If nobody's tried anything this insane and doesn't know off hand, yes I'll eventually try it myself...but I am hoping someone already has existing knowledge I can tap before possibly wasting my time on it.

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  • Mutex example / tutorial ?

    - by Nav
    I've noticed that asking questions for the sake of creating a reference list etc. is encouraged in SO. This is one such question, so that anyone Googling for a mutex tutorial will find a good one here. I'm new to multithreading, and was trying to understand how mutexes work. Did a lot of Googling and this is the only decent tutorial I found, but it still left some doubts of how it works because I created my own program and the locking didn't work. One absolutely non-intuitive syntax of the mutex is pthread_mutex_lock( &mutex1 );, where it looks like the mutex is being locked, when what I really want to lock is some other variable. Does this syntax mean that locking a mutex locks a region of code until the mutex is unlocked? Then how do threads know that the region is locked? And isn't such a phenomenon supposed to be called critical section? In short, could you please help with the simplest possible mutex example program and the simplest possible explanation on the logic of how it works? I'm sure this will help plenty of other newbies.

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  • PHP (CodeIgniter) Pass Object Through Session

    - by FranticPedantic
    I am using PHP5 and CodeIgniter and I am trying to implement a single-sign on feature with facebook (although I don't think that facebook is relevant to the question). I am somewhat of a novice with PHP and definitely one with CodeIgniter, so if you think my approach is just completely off telling me that would be helpful too. So here is in short what I am doing: //Controller 1 $this->load->plugin("facebook"); $facebook = new Facebook(array ( 'appId' => $fbconfig['appid'], 'secret' => $fbconfig['secret'], 'cookie' => true, ) ); $fbsession = $facebook->getSession(); //works fine $this->session->set_userdata('facebook', serialize($facebook); Now I would like to grab that facebook object in a different controller. //Controller 2 $facebook = unserialize($this->session->userdata('facebook')); $fbsession = $facebook->getSession(); Produces the error: Call to undefined method getSession. So I look up more about serialization and think that maybe it just doesn't know what the facebook object's attributes are. So I add in a $this->load->plugin('facebook'); To controller 2 as well and I get a "Cannot redeclare class facebook." I am strongly suspecting that I am misunderstanding sessions here. Do I have to somehow tell PHP what kind of object it is? Thanks for the help.

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  • Any high-level languages that can use c libraries?

    - by Isaiah
    I know this question could be in vain, but it's just out of curiosity, and I'm still much a newb^^ Anyways I've been loving python for some time while learning it. My problem is obviously speed issues. I'd like to get into indie game creation, and for the short future, 2d and pygame will work. But I'd eventually like to branch into the 3d area, and python is really too slow to make anything 3d and professional. So I'm wondering if there has ever been work to create a high-level language able to import and use c libraries? I've looked at Genie and it seems to be able to use certain libraries, but I'm not sure to what extent. Will I be able to use it for openGL programing, or in a c game engine? I do know some lisp and enjoy it a lot, but there aren't a great many libraries out there for it. Which leads to the problem: I can't stand C syntax, but C has libraries galore that I could need! And game engines like irrlicht. Is there any language that can be used in place of C around C? Thanks so much guys

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  • PHP Post Count in Forum

    - by Chris
    I'm currently desiging a forum application, I considered using a premade but decided against it as it's useful for me to learn some of the techniques. So I've written a fairly full featured forum... great. One of the problems I want to solve is to include user data for each post, at the minute the post table includes the poster ID (obviously) and I added the poster's username at a later date so I didn't have to query the User DB for X number of posts in a thread. However, it's become apparent I now want to do this, usernames don't need to update retrospectively, however avatars, sigs, and especially post counts need to update actively, so data in some form needs keeping up to date somewhere... What would be a good way of implementing this? I obviously don't want to include any more user data on the Posts DB table than necessary, but I'm struggling to find an easy way to do this short of querying the DB for each post in a thread, which is potentially going to create a lot of traffic. How have other people solved this, I've been examining the code on some other open source apps but I can't find what I'm looking for. Is it possible to select multiple records in one query? In which case I could build an array dynamically on each page request (eg 'SQL blah blah' then a for each loop to insert the ID's). Could I join the tables each time? Do I submit a query for each post? Hmm.

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  • jsf messed up links

    - by Mateusz
    I'm new to JSF. My application is working, but I'm confused with links in browser when using controller. BTW, there is also PrimeFaces in my app so don't be suprised with p: tags. Let's say I have 'list' and 'show' pages with controller doing redirection between them. First I'm on http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/list.xhtml page. There is link created with line <p:commandLink action="#{lazyConversationBean.doShow(conv)}" ajax="false" value="View"/>. lazyConversationBean acts here as my Controller. There is method: public String doShow(Conversation c) { this.setSelectedConversation(c); return "view"; } from which I got redirected to ...... again http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/list.xhtml (browser shows it) even when it's correct http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/view.xhtml page. There I have link <p:commandButton action="#{lazyConversationBean.doList()}" ajax="false" value="Back to list"/> and again controller has method: public String doList() { return "list"; } from which I got redirected to ... yeah, you guessed right ... http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/view.xhtml (that is again what browser shows) even when again it is correct http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/list.xhtml page. It seams as browser link area is always one step behind page currently being displayed. I don't even know if it's some incorrect behaviour as I have no idea how to query google for this :D Just for test I did this short tutorial, where netbeans created whole stack of code on one of my entities, and behaviour was the same, so it's not PrimeFaces magic related. Can you tell my why it happens, and how to fix it? Users likes to copy correct links ;)

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  • Javascript force GC collection? / Forcefully free object?

    - by plash
    I have a js function for playing any given sound using the Audio interface (creating a new instance for every call). This works quite well, until about the 32nd call (sometimes less). This issue is directly related to the release of the Audio instance. I know this because I've allowed time for the GC in Chromium to run and it will allow me to play another 32 or so sounds again. Here's an example of what I'm doing: <html><head> <script language="javascript"> function playSound(url) { snd = new Audio(url); snd.play(); delete snd; snd = null; } </script> </head> <body> <a href="#" onclick="playSound('blah.mp3');">Play sound</a> </body></html> I also have this, which works well for pages that have less than 32 playSound calls: var AudioPlayer = { cache: {}, play: function(url) { if (!AudioPlayer.cache[url]) AudioPlayer.cache[url] = new Audio(url); AudioPlayer.cache[url].play(); } }; But this will not work for what I want to do (dynamically replace a div with other content (from separate files), which have even more sounds on them - 1. memory usage would easily skyrocket, 2. many sounds will never play). I need a way to release the sound immediately. Is it possible to do this? I have found no free/close/unload method for the Audio interface. The pages will be viewed locally, so the constant loading of sounds is not a big factor at all (and most sounds are rather short).

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  • document.onclick settimeout function javascript help

    - by Jamex
    Hi, I have a document.onclick function that I would like to have a delay. I can't seem to get the syntax right. my original code is <script type="text/javascript"> document.onclick=check; function check(e){do something} I tried the below, but that code is incorrect, the function did not execute and nothing happened. <script type="text/javascript"> document.onclick=setTimeout("check", 1000); function check(e){do something} I tried the next set, the function got executed, but no delay. <script type="text/javascript"> setTimeout(document.onclick=check, 1000); function check(e){do something} what is the correct syntax for this code. TIA Edit: The solutions were all good, my problem was that I use the function check to obtain the id of the element being clicked on. But after the delay, there is no "memory" of what was being clicked on, so the rest of the function does not get executed. Jimr wrote the short code to preserve clicked event. The code that is working is // Delay execution of event handler function "f" by "time" ms. document.onclick = makeDelayedHandler(check, 250); function makeDelayedHandler( f, time) { return function( e ) {setTimeout(function() {f( e );}, time ); }; } function check(e){ var click = (e && e.target) || (event && event.srcElement); . . . Thank you all.

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  • SQL: Join multiple tables and get a grouped sum

    - by Scienceprodigy
    I have a database with 3 tables that have related data. One table has transactions, and the other two relate to transaction categories. Basically it's financial data, so each transaction has a category (i.e. "gasoline" for a gas purchase transaction). A short version of my Transactions table looks like this- Transactions Table: ________________________________ | ID | Type | Amount | Category | --------------------------------- I also have two more tables relating a category to a categories parent. So basically, every Category entry in the Transactions Table belongs to a parent category (i.e. "gasoline" would belong to say "Automotive Expenses"). For categories, and their parent, I have two tables - Category Children: ____________________________________________ | ID | Parent Category ID | Child Category | -------------------------------------------- Category Parent: ________________________ | ID | Parent Category | ------------------------ What I'm trying to do is query the database and have it return a total spending by parent category. To get "spending" the Type of transactions must be "Debit". I tried the following statement: SELECT category_parents.parent_category, SUM(amount) AS totals FROM (transactions INNER JOIN category_children ON transactions.category = 'category_children.child_category') INNER JOIN category_parents ON category_children.parent_category_id = category_parents._id WHERE trans_type = 'Debit' GROUP BY parent_category ORDER BY totals DESC but it gives me the following exception: 12-31 13:51:21.515: ERROR/Exception on query(4403): android.database.sqlite.SQLiteException: no such column: category_children.parent_category_id: , while compiling: SELECT category_parents.parent_category, SUM(amount) AS totals FROM (transactions INNER JOIN category_children ON transactions.category='category_children.child_category') INNER JOIN category_parents ON category_children.parent_category_id=category_parents._id where trans_type='Debit' group by parent_category order by totals desc Any help is appreciated. (EXTRA CREDIT: I also need to make another statement to do spending by child category, given the parent category)

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  • Detecting whether user stayed after prompting onBeforeUnload

    - by Daniel Magliola
    In a web app I'm working on, I'm capturing onBeforeUnload to ask the user whether he really wants to exit. Now, if he decides to stay, there are a number of things I'd like to do. What I'm trying to figure out is that he actually chose to stay. I can of course declare a SetTimeout for "x" seconds, and if that fires, then it would mean the user is still there (because we didn't get unloaded). The problem is that the user can take any time to decide whether to stay or not... I was first hoping that while the dialog was showing, SetTimeout calls would not fire, so I could set a timeout for a short time and it'd only fire if the user chose to stay. However, timeouts do fire while the dialog is shown, so that doesn't work. Another idea I tried is capturing mouseMoves on the window/document. While the dialog is shown, mouseMoves indeed don't fire, except for one weird exception that really applies to my case, so that won't work either. Can anyone think of other way to do this? Thanks! (In case you're curious, the reason capturing mouseMove doesn't work is that I have an IFrame in my page, containing a site from another domain. If at the time of unloading the page, the focus is within the IFrame, while the dialog shows, then I get the MouseMove event firing ONCE when the mouse moves from inside the IFrame to the outside (at least in Firefox). That's probably a bug, but still, it's very likely that'll happen in our case, so I can't use this method).

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  • Grails Deployment - Fastest way to get deployed?

    - by gav
    Hi All, If anyone has or is running a Grails application on their server I would appreciate some details on where to go after creating the WAR. Background I chose grails because with Google App Engine and the App Engine Plugin deployment should have been trivial. This issue is that there is a bug which makes any application pretty much unusable, I wish this had been more prominent so I didn't have to get to the point of seeing the error myself before I was aware of it. The next option was EC2 and the Cloud Tools plugin, it seems Cloud Tools worked with grails 1.0 but doesn't work with the current 1.2.1 due to issues getting the JAR dependencies. It also seems that Cloud Tools has been succeeded by Cloud Foundry which is in beta, will cost extra money and has limited places (I signed up but haven't got an e-mail). Question My application is painfully trivial, it has a small load, small data requirements and doesn't need to scale past 5 users. How can I deploy my grails app as quickly and painlessly as possible? Specifically: Are there any hosting companies that have tomcat installed on their servers out of the box that I can sign up to and use that will just work? Do you know of any simple tutorials for getting a grails application deployed to EC2 without Cloud Tools? Thanks in advance, Gav Side-note: I picked grails because of good advice from SO, it should have been a very short time from development to deployed product except the tools for auto-deployment aren't that mature and I've never configured a server before.

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  • Using a php://memory wrapper causes errors...

    - by HorusKol
    I'm trying to extend the PHP mailer class from Worx by adding a method which allows me to add attachments using string data rather than path to the file. I came up with something like this: public function addAttachmentString($string, $name='', $encoding = 'base64', $type = 'application/octet-stream') { $path = 'php://memory/' . md5(microtime()); $file = fopen($path, 'w'); fwrite($file, $string); fclose($file); $this->AddAttachment($path, $name, $encoding, $type); } However, all I get is a PHP warning: PHP Warning: fopen() [<a href='function.fopen'>function.fopen</a>]: Invalid php:// URL specified There aren't any decent examples with the original documentation, but I've found a couple around the internet (including one here on SO), and my usage appears correct according to them. Has anyone had any success with using this? My alternative is to create a temporary file and clean up - but that will mean having to write to disc, and this function will be used as part of a large batch process and I want to avoid slow disc operations (old server) where possible. This is only a short file but has different information for each person the script emails.

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  • Long text will open on more button click

    - by user3723681
    I have this long description text to show it to users. At first it will show a short part of this description. But there will be a "more " button which open the entire description. How can I do this by jquery or css. <div class="desc"> <h3>Product Description</h3> <p>Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Maecenas vel dui aliquam, semper mauris sit amet, imperdiet purus. Fusce convallis, nisl at imperdiet tincidunt, libero dui euismod tortor, eu ornare justo orci quis felis. Morbi volutpat felis nisl, vel interdum nulla porttitor a. Aenean est risus, malesuada a orci at, aliquam mattis ipsum. Proin porttitor metus dapibus nulla tempor scelerisque. Morbi fringilla imperdiet dui, at molestie justo rutrum mattis. Nunc in ultricies lorem. Quisque ut orci nec nibh facilisis imperdiet ac sit amet lacus. Sed tempus condimentum velit et porta. Etiam in lectus sapien. In hac habitasse platea dictumst. Integer tincidunt pulvinar lorem, vel placerat diam.</p> </div> jsfiddle

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  • Detecting Connection Speed / Bandwidth in .net/WCF

    - by Mystagogue
    I'm writing both client and server code using WCF, where I need to know the "perceived" bandwidth of traffic between the client and server. I could use ping statistics to gather this information separately, but I wonder if there is a way to configure the channel stack in WCF so that the same statistics can be gathered simultaneously while performing my web service invocations. This would be particularly useful in cases where ICMP is disabled (e.g. ping won't work). In short, while making my regular business-related web service calls (REST calls to be precise), is there a way to collect connection speed data implicitly? Certainly I could time the web service round trip, compared to the size of data used in the round-trip, to give me an idea of throughput - but I won't know how much of that perceived bandwidth was network related, or simply due to server-processing latency. I could perhaps solve that by having the server send back a time delta, representing server latency, so that the client can compute the actual network traffic time. If a more sophisticated approach is not available, that might be my answer...

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  • Assembly unavailable after Web.config change

    - by tags2k
    I'm using a custom framework that uses reflection to do a GetTypeByName(string fullName) on the fully-qualified type name that it gets from the database, to create an instance of said type and add it to the page, resulting in a standard modular kind of thing. GetTypeByName is a utility function of mine that simply iterates through Thread.GetDomain().GetAssemblies(), then performs an assembly.GetType(fullName) to find the relevant type. Obviously this result gets cached for future reference and speed. However, I'm experiencing some issues whereby if the web.config gets updated (and, in some scarier instances if the application pool gets recycled) then it will lose all knowledge of certain assemblies, resulting in the inability to render an instance of the module type. Debugging shows that the missing assembly literally does not exist in the current thread assemblies list. To get around this I added a second check which is a bit dirty but recurses through the /bin/ directory's DLLs and checks that each one exists in the assemblies list. If it doesn't, it loads it using Assembly.Load and fixing the context issue thanks to 'Solving the Assembly Load Context Problem'. This would work, only it seems that (and I'm aware this shouldn't be possible) some projects still have access to the missing assembly, for example my actual web project rather than the framework itself - and it then complains that duplicate references have been added! Has anyone ever heard of anything like this, or have any ideas why an assembly would simply drop out of existence on a config change? Short of a solution, what is the most elegant workaround to get all the assemblies in the bin to reload? It needs to be all in one "hit" so that the site visitors don't see any difference other than a small delay, so an app_offline.htm file is out of the question. Programatically renaming a DLL in the bin and then naming it back does work, but requires "modify" permissions for the IIS user account, which is insane. Thanks for any pointers the community can gather!

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  • Oracle command hangs when using view for "WHILE x IN..." subquery

    - by Calvin Fisher
    I'm working on a web service that fetches data from an oracle data source in chunks and passes it back to an indexing/search tool in XML format. I'm the C#/.NET guy, and am kind of fuzzy on parts of Oracle. Our Oracle team gave us the following script to run, and it works well: SELECT ROWID, [columns] FROM [table] WHERE ROWID IN ( SELECT ROWID FROM ( SELECT ROWID FROM [table] WHERE ROWID > '[previous_batch_last_rowid]' ORDER BY ROWID ) WHERE ROWNUM <= 10000 ) ORDER BY ROWID 10,000 rows is an arbitrary but reasonable chunk size and ROWID is sufficiently unique for our purposes to use as a UID since each indexing run hits only one table at a time. Bracketed values are filled in programmatically by the web service. Now we're going to start adding views to the indexing, each of which will union a few separate tables. Since ROWID would no longer function as a unique identifier, they added a column to the views (VIEW_UNIQUE_ID) that concatenates the ROWIDs from the component tables to construct a UID for each union. But this script does not work, even though it follows the same form as the previous one: SELECT VIEW_UNIQUE_ID, [columns] FROM [view] WHERE VIEW_UNIQUE_ID IN ( SELECT VIEW_UNIQUE_ID FROM ( SELECT VIEW_UNIQUE_ID FROM [view] WHERE ROWID > '[previous_batch_last_view_unique_id]' ORDER BY VIEW_UNIQUE_ID ) WHERE ROWNUM <= 10000 ) ORDER BY VIEW_UNIQUE_ID It hangs indefinitely with no response from the Oracle server. I've waited 20+ minutes and the SQLTools dialog box indicating a running query remains the same, with no progress or updates. I've tested each subquery independently and each works fine and takes a very short amount of time (<= 1 second), so the view itself is sound. But as soon as the inner two SELECT queries are added with "WHERE VIEW_UNIQUE_ID IN...", it hangs. Why doesn't this query work for views? In what important way are they not interchangeable here?

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  • Why does Hibernate 2nd level cache only cache within a session?

    - by Synesso
    Using a named query in our application and with ehcache as the provider, it seems that the query results are tied to the session. Any attempt to access the value from the cache for a second time results in a LazyInitializationException We have set lazy=true for the following mapping because this object is also used by another part of the system which does not require the reference... and we want to keep it lean. <class name="domain.ReferenceAdPoint" table="ad_point" mutable="false" lazy="false"> <cache usage="read-only"/> <id name="code" type="long" column="ad_point_id"> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> <property name="name" column="ad_point_description" type="string"/> <set name="synonyms" table="ad_point_synonym" cascade="all-delete-orphan" lazy="true"> <cache usage="read-only"/> <key column="ad_point_id" /> <element type="string" column="synonym_description" /> </set> </class> <query name="find.adpoints.by.heading">from ReferenceAdPoint adpoint left outer join fetch adpoint.synonyms where adpoint.adPointField.headingCode = ?</query> Here's a snippet from our hibernate.cfg.xml <property name="hibernate.cache.provider_class">net.sf.ehcache.hibernate.SingletonEhCacheProvider</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.use_query_cache">true</property> It doesn't seem to make sense that the cache would be constrained to the session. Why are the cached queries not usable outside of the (relatively short-lived) sessions?

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  • Assigning console.log to another object (Safari issue)

    - by Trevor Burnham
    I wanted to keep my logging statements as short as possible while preventing console from being accessed when it doesn't exist; I came up with the following solution: var _ = {}; if (console) { _.log = console.debug; } else { _.log = function() { } } To me, this seems quite elegant, and it works great in Firefox 3.6 (including preserving the line numbers that make console.debug more useful than console.log). But it doesn't work in Safari 4. (Haven't tested in other browsers yet.) If I follow the above with console.debug('A') _.log('B'); the first statement works fine in both browsers, but the second generates a "TypeError: Type Error" in Safari. Is this just a difference between how Firebug and the Safari Web Developer Tools implement console? If so, it is VERY annoying on Apple's part. (I get the same results in both browsers if I bind the console function to a prototype and then instantiate, rather than binding it directly to the object.) I could, of course, just call console.debug from an anonymous function assigned to _.log, but then I'd lose my line numbers. Any other ideas?

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  • Help creating custom iPhone Classes

    - by seanny94
    This should be a simple question, but I just can't seem to figure it out. I'm trying to create my own class which will provide a simpler way of playing short sounds using the AudioToolbox framework as provided by Apple. When I import these files into my project and attempt to utilize them, they just don't seem to work. I was hoping someone would shed some light on what I may be doing wrong here. simplesound.h #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> @interface simplesound : NSObject { IBOutlet UILabel *statusLabel; } @property(nonatomic, retain) UILabel *statusLabel; - (void)playSimple:(NSString *)url; @end simplesound.m #import "simplesound.h" @implementation simplesound @synthesize statusLabel; - (void)playSimple:(NSString *)url { if (url = @"vibrate") { AudioServicesPlaySystemSound(kSystemSoundID_Vibrate); statusLabel.text = @"VIBRATED!"; } else { NSString *paths = [[NSBundle mainBundle] resourcePath]; NSString *audioF1ile = [paths stringByAppendingPathComponent:url]; NSURL *audioURL = [NSURL fileURLWithPath:audioFile isDirectory:NO]; SystemSoundID mySSID; OSStatus error = AudioServicesCreateSystemSoundID ((CFURLRef)audioURL,&mySSID); AudioServicesAddSystemSoundCompletion(mySSID,NULL,NULL,simpleSoundDone,NULL); if (error) { statusLabel.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"Error: %d",error]; } else { AudioServicesPlaySystemSound(mySSID); } } static void simpleSoundDone (SystemSoundID mySSID, void *args) { AudioServicesDisposeSystemSoundID (mySSID); } } - (void)dealloc { [url release]; } @end Does anyone see what I'm trying to accomplish here? Does anyone know how to remedy this code that is supposedly wrong?

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  • Is it possible to load an assembly targeting a different .NET runtime version in a new app domain?

    - by Notre
    Hello, I've an application that is based on .NET 2 runtime. I want to add a little bit of support for .NET 4 but don't want to (in the short term), convert the whole application (which is very large) to target .NET 4. I tried the 'obvious' approach of creating an application .config file, having this: <startup useLegacyV2RuntimeActivationPolicy="true"> <supportedRuntime version="v4.0" /> </startup> but I ran into some problems that I noted here. I got the idea of creating a separate app domain. To test it, I created a WinForm project targeting .NET 2. I then created a class library targeting .NET 4. In my WinForm project, I added the following code: AppDomainSetup setup = new AppDomainSetup(); setup.ApplicationBase = "path to .NET 4 assembly"; setup.ConfigurationFile = System.Environment.CurrentDirectory + "\\DotNet4AppDomain.exe.config"; // Set up the Evidence Evidence baseEvidence = AppDomain.CurrentDomain.Evidence; Evidence evidence = new Evidence(baseEvidence); // Create the AppDomain AppDomain dotNet4AppDomain = AppDomain.CreateDomain("DotNet4AppDomain", evidence, setup); try { Assembly doNet4Assembly = dotNet4AppDomain.Load( new AssemblyName("MyDotNet4Assembly, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=66f0dac1b575e793")); MessageBox.Show(doNet4Assembly.FullName); } finally { AppDomain.Unload(dotNet4AppDomain); } My DotNet4AppDomain.exe.config file looks like this: <startup useLegacyV2RuntimeActivationPolicy="true"> <supportedRuntime version="v4.0" /> </startup> Unfortunately, this throws the BadImageFormatException when dotNet4AppDomain.Load is executed. Am I doing something wrong in my code, or is what I'm trying to do just not going to work? Thank you!

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  • Apache RewriteRule: it is possible to 'detect' the first and second path segment?

    - by DaNieL
    Im really really a newbie in regexp and I can’t figure out how to do that. My goal is to have the RewriteRule to 'slice' the request URL path in 3 parts: example.com/foo #should return: index.php?a=foo&b=&c= example.com/foo/bar #should return: index.php?a=foo&b=bar&c= example.com/foo/bar/baz #should return: index.php?a=foo&b=bar&c=baz example.com/foo/bar/baz/bee #should return: index.php?a=foo&b=bar&c=baz/bee example.com/foo/bar/baz/bee/apple #should return: index.php?a=foo&b=bar&c=baz/bee/apple example.com/foo/bar/baz/bee/apple/and/whatever/else/no/limit/in/those/extra/parameters #should return: index.php?a=foo&b=bar&c=baz/bee/apple/and/whatever/else/no/limit/in/those/extra/parameters In short, the first segment in the URL path (foo) should be given to a, the second segment (bar) to b, and the rest of the string in c I wroted this one <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !=/favicon.ico RewriteRule ^(([a-z0-9/]))?(([a-z0-9/]+))?(([a-z0-9]+))(.*)$ index.php?a=$1&b=$2&c=$3 [L,QSA] </IfModule> But obviously doesn’t work, and I don’t even know if what I want is possible. Any suggestion? EDIT: After playing with coach manager, I got this one working too: RewriteRule ^([^/]*)?/?([^/]*)?/?(.*)?$ index.php?a=$1&b=$2&c=$3 [L,QSA]

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  • Partial Classes - are they bad design?

    - by dferraro
    Hello, I'm wondering why the 'partial class' concept even exists in .NET. I'm working on an application and we are reading a (actually very good) book relavant to the development platform we are implementing at work. In the book he provides a large code base /wrapper around the platform API and explains how he developed it as he teaches different topics about the platform development. Anyway, long story short - he uses partial classes, all over the place, as a way to fake multiple inheritence in C# (IMO). Why he didnt just split the classes up into multiple ones and use composition is beyond me. He will have 3 'partial class' files to make up his base class, each w/ 3-500 lines of code... And does this several times in his API. Do you find this justifiable? If it were me, I'd have followed the S.R.P. and created multiple classes to handle different required behaviors, then create a base class that has instances of these classes as members (e.g. composition). Why did MS even put partial class into the framework?? They removed the ability to expand/collapse all code at each scope level in C# (this was allowed in C++) because it was obviously just allowing bad habits - partial class is IMO the same thing. I guess my quetion is: Can you explain to me when there would be a legitimate reason to ever use a partial class? I do not mean this to be a rant / war thread. I'm honeslty looking to learn something here. Thanks

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  • Recursive Maze in Java

    - by Api
    I have written a short Java code for solving a simple maze problem to go from S to G. I do not understand where the problem is going wrong. import java.util.Scanner; public class tester { static char [][] grid={ {'.','.'}, {'.','.'}, {'S','G'}, }; static int a=2; static int b=2; static boolean findpath(int x, int y) { if((x > grid.length-1) || (y > grid[0].length-1) || (x < 0 || y < 0)) { return false; } else if(x==a && y==b){ return true; } else if (findpath(x,y-1) == true){ return true; } else if (findpath(x+1,y) == true){ return true; } else if (findpath(x,y+1) == true) { return true; } else if (findpath(x-1,y) == true){ return true; } return false; } public static void main(String[] args){ boolean result=findpath(2,0); System.out.print(result); } } I am giving the starting position directly and goal is defined in a & b. Do help.

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  • How to release a "PopUp" view"?

    - by david
    I have this class that shows a popup. I do a alloc-init on it and it comes up. DarkVader* darkPopUp = [[DarkVader alloc] init:theButton helpMessage:[theButton.titleLabel.text intValue] isADay:NO offset:0]; It shows itself and if the user presses Ok it disappears. When do I release this? I could do a [self release] in the class when the OK button is pressed. Is this correct? If I do this the Analyzer says it has a retain count of +1 and gets leaked in the calling function. If I release it just after the alloc-init the Analyzer says it has a retain count of +0 and i should not release it. DLog(@"DarkVader retain count: %i", [darkPopUp retainCount]); says it has a retain count of 2. I'm confused. In short my question is: How do I release an object that gets initialized does some work and ends but no one is there to release it in the calling function.

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