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  • How to make designer generated .Net application settings portable

    - by Ville Koskinen
    Hello, I've been looking at modifying the source of the Doppler podcast aggregator with the goal of being able to run the program directly from my mp3 player. Doppler stores application settings using a Visual Studio designer generated Settings class, which by default serializes user settings to the user's home directory. I'd like to change this so that all settings would be stored in the same directory as the exe. It seems that this would be possible by creating a custom provider class which inherits the SettingsProvider class. Has anyone created such a provider and would like to share code? Update: I was able to get a custom settings provider nearly working by using this MSDN sample, i.e. with simple inheritance. I was initially confused as Windows Forms designer stopped working until I did this trick suggested at Codeproject: internal sealed partial class Settings { private MySettingsProvider settingsprovider = new MySettingsProvider(); public Settings() { foreach (SettingsProperty property in this.Properties) { property.Provider = settingsprovider; } ... The program still starts with window size 0;0 though. Anyone with any insight to this? Why the need to assing the provider in runtime---instead of using attributes as suggested by MSDN? Why the changes in how the default settings are passed to the application with the default settings provider vs. the custom one?

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  • Base Href vs. .htaccess RewriteBase

    - by Wayne
    Normally I use <base href="http://domain.com/" /><!--[if ie]></base><![endif]--> I haven't tried much with RewriteBase, I normally get confused and keep changing it till it works. Which method would be best, I obviously find the best solution because the links stay the same so that no links are broken most of the time when attaching a css file, e.g. http://domain.com/css/main.css It just always stay the same when accessing to sub-directories. Although, when I don't use the tag, and I access to a sub directory, it breaks the css links when I use <link href="css/main.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> As my PHP documents would include the header, <?php include("include/global_header.php"); ?> If I do that without the I would have to use: <link href="../css/main.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> Which can break when accessing to a sub-directory. So... does the RewriteBase work the same as the ? Your thoughts.

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  • DDD and MVC: Difference between 'Model' and 'Entity'

    - by Nathan Loding
    I'm seriously confused about the concept of the 'Model' in MVC. Most frameworks that exist today put the Model between the Controller and the database, and the Model almost acts like a database abstraction layer. The concept of 'Fat Model Skinny Controller' is lost as the Controller starts doing more and more logic. In DDD, there is also the concept of a Domain Entity, which has a unique identity to it. As I understand it, a user is a good example of an Entity (unique userid, for instance). The Entity has a life-cycle -- it's values can change throughout the course of the action -- and then it's saved or discarded. The Entity I describe above is what I thought Model was supposed to be in MVC? How off-base am I? To clutter things more, you throw in other patterns, such as the Repository pattern (maybe putting a Service in there). It's pretty clear how the Repository would interact with an Entity -- how does it with a Model? Controllers can have multiple Models, which makes it seem like a Model is less a "database table" than it is a unique Entity. So, in very rough terms, which is better? No "Model" really ... class MyController { public function index() { $repo = new PostRepository(); $posts = $repo->findAllByDateRange('within 30 days'); foreach($posts as $post) { echo $post->Author; } } } Or this, which has a Model as the DAO? class MyController { public function index() { $model = new PostModel(); // maybe this returns a PostRepository? $posts = $model->findAllByDateRange('within 30 days'); while($posts->getNext()) { echo $posts->Post->Author; } } } Both those examples didn't even do what I was describing above. I'm clearly lost. Any input?

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  • CIE XYZ colorspace: is it RGBA or XYZA?

    - by Tronic
    I plan to write a painting program based on linear combinations of xy plane points (0,1), (1,0 ) and (0,0). Such system works identically to RGB, except that the primaries are not within the gamut but at the corners of a triangle that encloses the entire gamut, therefore allowing for all colors to be reproduced. I have seen the three points being referred to as X, Y and Z (upper case) somewhere, but I cannot find the page anymore. My pixel format stores the intensity of each of those three components the same way as RGB does, together with alpha value. This allows using pretty much any image manipulation operation designed for RGBA without modifying the code. What is my format called? Is it XYZA, RGBA or something else? Google doesn't seem to know of XYZA and RGBA will get confused with sRGB + alpha (which I also need to use in the same program). Notice that the primaries X, Y and Z and their intensities have little to do with the x, y and z coordinates (lower case) that are more commonly used.

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  • Flex-built SWF's no longer work, error 2048, 2046, 2032

    - by Kevin
    I'm really confused about this problem, and I'm pretty new to Flex. Basically, anything I try to build with mxmlc fails to run now, giving me the above three errors depending on what I do. It was working 30 minutes ago, I've been spending that time trying to figure out what has changed. I redownloaded the Flex SDK, cleared my assetcache, have cleared Firefox's cache. (I'm using Linux.) Even if I compile with -static-link-runtime-shared-libraries=false, since it seems like #2048 is a RSL problem, it still refuses to run. Another strange thing, if I keep <policy-file-url>http://fpdownload.adobe.com/pub/swz/crossdomain.xml</policy-file-url> <rsl-url>textLayout_1.0.0.595.swz</rsl-url> in my flex-config file, then firebug tells me that my swf file is trying to access a copy of that in the app's folder, giving error 2032. And if I stick the one I have in frameworks/rsls/ then it gives me error 2046. I don't know how it could not be properly signed, unless Adobe magically changed a signature and didn't update their flex SDK. Any help will be appreciated.

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  • How CPU finds ISR and distinguishes between devices

    - by ripunjay-tripathi-gmail-com
    I should first share all what I know - and that is complete chaos. There are several different questions on the topic, so please don't get irritated :). 1) To find an ISR, CPU is provided with a interrupt number. In x86 machines (286/386 and above) there is a IVT with ISRs in it; each entry of 4 bytes in size. So we need to multiply interrupt number by 4 to find the ISR. So first bunch of questions is - I am completely confused in mechanism of CPU receiving the interrupt. To raise an interrupt, firstly device shall probe for IRQ - then what ? The interrupt number travels "on IRQ" towards CPU? I also read something like device putting ISR address on data bus ; whats that then ? What is the concept of devices overriding the ISR. Can somebody tell me few example devices where CPU polls for interrupts? And where does it finds ISR for them ? 2) If two devices share an IRQ (which is very much possible), how does CPU differs amongst them ? What if both devices raise an interrupt of same priority simultaneously. I got to know there will be masking of same type and low priority interrupts - but how this communication happens between CPU and device controller? I studied the role of PIC and APIC for this problem, but could not understand. Thanks for reading. Thank you very much for answering.

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  • x86_64 printf segfault after brk call

    - by gmb11
    While i was trying do use brk (int 0x80 with 45 in %rax) to implement a simple memory manager program in assembly and print the blocks in order, i kept getting segfault. After a while i could only reproduce the error, but have no idea why is this happening: .section .data helloworld: .ascii "hello world" .section .text .globl _start _start: push %rbp mov %rsp, %rbp movq $45, %rax movq $0, %rbx #brk(0) should just return the current break of the programm int $0x80 #incq %rax #segfault #addq $1, %rax #segfault movq $0, %rax #works fine? #addq $1, %rax #segfault again? movq $helloworld, %rdi call printf movq $1, %rax #exit int $0x80 In the example here, if the commented lines are uncommented, i have a segfault, but some commands (like de movq $0, %rax) work just fine. In my other program, the first couple printf work, but the third crashes... Looking for other questions, i heard that printf sometimes allocates some memory, and that the brk shouldn't be used, because in this case it corrupts the heap or something... I'm very confused, does anyone know something about that? EDIT: I've just found out that for printf to work you need %rax=0.

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  • How to Manage project in this scenario

    - by vijay.shad
    Hi All, I am working on a web application which has got good amount of static or pre-login pages. These pages can have some simple forms as well where we would like to capture the visitor's details. Post login, I have got my main application. I am confused about the development and deployment architecture of my application. Post login part of my application has a release cycle of 1-2 months while pre-login pages are to be updated on a weekly basis. It is difficult to make a release of pre-login pages as the overall war also contains post-login application & which sometimes is not release ready. Currently, I have got both these parts bundled in the single war project. Please help me by letting me know the best practices whereby I can achieve following: Manage the releases of these two parts independently. I am using Maven. So is there a way I can share the resources, such as CSS, images etc between these two parts. Header and footer of my application is going to be same on pre-login & post-login pages. I was thinking of deploying these apps as two war files in my tomcat container. But then how will I manage the common resources like Css, images etc. Rgds Vijay

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  • How to make Class for DataObjectAttribute visible in ObjectDataSourse in Web Application

    - by nCdy
    here is a class code : > [DataObjectAttribute] public class > Report { public this() {} > > > [DataObjectMethodAttribute(DataObjectMethodType.Select, > true)] public static > GetAllEmployees() : DataTable { > null } > > > [DataObjectMethodAttribute(DataObjectMethodType.Delete, > true)] public > DeleteEmployeeByID(employeeID : int) : > void { > throw Exception("The value passed to the delete method is " + > employeeID.ToString()); } } but I still can't find where and how and what I must to config to access it ? <asp:ObjectDataSource ID="ObjectDataSource1" runat="server" SelectMethod=" ?????????? "> </asp:ObjectDataSource> Web Application doesn't support App_Code so but I can use compiled Bin somehow, the question is how ? text from this link only confused me more :( thank you

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  • Rails 2.3 session

    - by Sam Kong
    Hi, I am developing a rails 2.3.2 app. I need to keep session_id for an order record, retrieve it and finally delete the session_id when the order is completed. It worked when I used cookies as session store but it doesn't for active_record store. (I restarted my browser, so no cache issue.) I know rails 2.3 implements lazy session load. I read some info about it but am still confused. Can somebody clarify how I use session_id for such a case? What I am doing is... A user make an order going through several pages. There is no sign-up, neither login. So I keep session_id in the order record so that no other user can access the order. @order = Order.last :conditions = {:id = params[:id], :session_id = session[:session_id] } When the order is finished, I set nil to session_id column. How would you implement such a case in lazy session(and active_record store) environment? Thanks. Sam

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  • What's the most concise cross-browser way to access an <iframe> element's window and document?

    - by Bungle
    I'm trying to figure out the best way to access an <iframe> element's window and document properties from a parent page. The <iframe> may be created via JavaScript or accessed via a reference stored in an object property or a variable, so, if I understand correctly, that rules out the use of document.frames. I've seen this done a number of ways, but I'm unsure about the best approach. Given an <iframe> created in this way: var iframe = document.createElement('iframe'); document.getElementsByTagName('body')[0].appendChild(iframe); I'm currently using this to access the document, and it seems to work OK across the major browsers: var doc = iframe.contentWindow || iframe.contentDocument; if (doc.document) { doc = doc.document; } I've also see this approach: var iframe = document.getElementById('my_iframe'); iframe = (iframe.contentWindow) ? iframe.contentWindow : (iframe.contentDocument.document) ? iframe.contentDocument.document : iframe.contentDocument; iframe.document.open(); iframe.document.write('Hello World!'); iframe.document.close(); That confuses me, since it seems that if iframe.contentDocument.document is defined, you're going to end up trying to access iframe.contentDocument.document.document. There's also this: var frame_ref = document.getElementsByTagName('iframe')[0]; var iframe_doc = frame_ref.contentWindow ? frame_ref.contentWindow.document : frame_ref.contentDocument; In the end, I guess I'm confused as to which properties hold which properties, whether contentDocument is equivalent to document or whether there is such a property as contentDocument.document, etc. Can anyone point me to an accurate/timely reference on these properties, or give a quick briefing on how to efficiently access an <iframe>'s window and document properties in a cross-browser way (without the use of jQuery or other libraries)? Thanks for any help!

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  • Linq to XML Document Traversal

    - by Perpetualcoder
    I have an xml document like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <demographics> <country id="1" value="USA"> <state id ="1" value="California"> <city>Long Beach</city> <city>Los Angeles</city> <city>San Diego</city> </state> <state id ="2" value="Arizona"> <city>Tucson</city> <city>Phoenix</city> <city>Tempe</city> </state> </country> <country id="2" value="Mexico"> <state id ="1" value="Baja California"> <city>Tijuana</city> <city>Rosarito</city> </state> </country> </demographics> How do I setup LINQ queries for doing things like: 1. Get All Countries 2. Get All States in a Country 3. Get All Cities inside a state of a paricular country ? I gave it a try and I am kind of confused when to use Elements["NodeName"] and Descendants etc. I know I am not the brightest XML guy around. Is the format of the XML file even correct for simple traversal?

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  • Are local variables in Fortran 77 static or stack dynamic?

    - by mm2887
    For my programming languages class one hw problem asks: Are local variables in FORTRAN static or stack dynamic? Are local variables that are INITIALIZED to a default value static or stack dynamic? Show me some code with an explanation to back up your answer. Hint: The easiest way to check this is to have your program test the history sensitivity of a subprogram. Look at what happens when you initialize the local variable to a value and when you don’t. You may need to call more than one subprogram to lock in your answer with confidence. I wrote a few subroutines: - create a variable - print the variable - initialize the variable to a value - print the variable again Each successive call to the subroutine prints out the same random value for the variable when it is uninitialized and then it prints out the initialized value. What is this random value when the variable is uninitialized? Does this mean Fortran uses the same memory location for each call to the subroutine or it dynamically creates space and initializes the variable randomly? My second subroutine also creates a variable, but then calls the first subroutine. The result is the same except the random number printed of the uninitialized variable is different. I am very confused. Please help! Thank you so much.

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  • In .NET, Why Can I Access Private Members of a Class Instance within the Class?

    - by AMissico
    While cleaning some code today written by someone else, I changed the access modifier from Public to Private on a class variable/member/field. I expected a long list of compiler errors that I use to "refactor/rework/review" the code that used this variable. Imagine my surprise when I didn't get any errors. After reviewing, it turns out that another instance of the Class can access the private members of another instance declared within the Class. Totally unexcepted. Is this normal? I been coding in .NET since the beginning and never ran into this issue, nor read about it. I may have stumbled onto it before, but only "vaguely noticed" and move on. Can anyone explain this behavoir to me? I would like to know the "why" I can do this. Please explain, don't just tell me the rule. Am I doing something wrong? I found this behavior in both C# and VB.NET. The code seems to take advantage of the ability to access private variables. Sincerely, Totally Confused Class Jack Private _int As Integer End Class Class Foo Public Property Value() As Integer Get Return _int End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) _int = value * 2 End Set End Property Private _int As Integer Private _foo As Foo Private _jack As Jack Private _fred As Fred Public Sub SetPrivate() _foo = New Foo _foo.Value = 4 'what you would expect to do because _int is private _foo._int = 3 'TOTALLY UNEXPECTED _jack = New Jack '_jack._int = 3 'expected compile error _fred = New Fred '_fred._int = 3 'expected compile error End Sub Private Class Fred Private _int As Integer End Class End Class

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  • Javascript scope chain

    - by Geromey
    Hi, I am trying to optimize my program. I think I understand the basics of closure. I am confused about the scope chain though. I know that in general you want a low scope (to access variables quickly). Say I have the following object: var my_object = (function(){ //private variables var a_private = 0; return{ //public //public variables a_public : 1, //public methods some_public : function(){ debugger; alert(this.a_public); alert(a_private); }; }; })(); My understanding is that if I am in the some_public method I can access the private variables faster than the public ones. Is this correct? My confusion comes with the scope level of this. When the code is stopped at debugger, firebug shows the public variable inside the this keyword. The this word is not inside a scope level. How fast is accessing this? Right now I am storing any this.properties as another local variable to avoid accessing it multiple times. Thanks very much!

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  • Why Finalize method not allowed to override

    - by somaraj
    I am new to .net ..and i am confused with the destructor mechanism in C# ..please clarify In C# destructors are converted to finalize method by CLR. If we try to override it (not using destructor ) , will get an error Error 2 Do not override object.Finalize. Instead, provide a destructor. But it seems that the Object calss implementation in mscorlib.dll has finalize defined as protected override void Finalize(){} , then why cant we override it , that what virtual function for . Why is the design like that , is it to be consistent with c++ destructor concept. Also when we go to the definition of the object class , there is no mention of the finalize method , then how does the hmscorlib.dll definition shows the finalize funtion . Does it mean that the default destructor is converted to finalize method. public class Object { public Object(); public virtual bool Equals(object obj); public static bool Equals(object objA, object objB); public virtual int GetHashCode(); public Type GetType(); protected object MemberwiseClone(); public static bool ReferenceEquals(object objA, object objB); public virtual string ToString(); }

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  • Should this even be a has_many :through association?

    - by GoodGets
    A Post belongs_to a User, and a User has_many Posts. A Post also belongs_to a Topic, and a Topic has_many Posts. class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :posts end class Topic < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :posts end class Post < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :topic end Well, that's pretty simple and very easy to set up, but when I display a Topic, I not only want all of the Posts for that Topic, but also the user_name and the user_photo of the User that made that Post. However, those attributes are stored in the User model and not tied to the Topic. So how would I go about setting that up? Maybe it can already be called since the Post model has two foreign keys, one for the User and one for the Topic? Or, maybe this is some sort of "one-way" has_many through assiociation. Like the Post would be the join model, and a Topic would has_many :users, :through = :posts. But the reverse of this is not true. Like a User does NOT has_many :topics. So would this even need to be has_many :though association? I guess I'm just a little confused on what the controller would look like to call both the Post and the User of that Post for a give Topic. Edit: Seriously, thank you to all that weighed in. I chose tal's answer because I used his code for my controller; however, I could have just as easily chosen either j.'s or tim's instead. Thank you both as well. This was so damn simple to implement, and I think today marks the day that I'm beginning to fall in love with rails.

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  • How to scan an array for certain information

    - by Andrew Martin
    I've been doing an MSc Software Development conversion course, the main language of which is Java, since the end of September. We have our first assessed practical coming and I was hoping for some guidance. We have to create an array that will store 100 integers (all of which are between 1 and 10), which are generated by a random number generator, and then print out ten numbers of this array per line. For the second part, we need to scan these integers, count up how often each number appears and store the results in a second array. I've done the first bit okay, but I'm confused about how to do the second. I have been looking through the scanner class to see if it has any methods which I could use, but I don't see any. Could anyone point me in the right direction - not the answer, but perhaps which library it comes from? Code so far: import java.util.Random; public class Practical4_Assessed { public static void main(String[] args) { Random numberGenerator = new Random (); int[] arrayOfGenerator = new int[100]; for (int countOfGenerator = 0; countOfGenerator < 100; countOfGenerator++) arrayOfGenerator[countOfGenerator] = numberGenerator.nextInt(10); int countOfNumbersOnLine = 0; for (int countOfOutput = 0; countOfOutput < 100; countOfOutput++) { if (countOfNumbersOnLine == 10) { System.out.println(""); countOfNumbersOnLine = 0; countOfOutput--; } else { System.out.print(arrayOfGenerator[countOfOutput] + " "); countOfNumbersOnLine++; } } } } Thanks, Andrew

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  • How do I setup NInject? (I'm getting can't resolve "Bind", in the line "Bind<IWeapon>().To<Sword>()

    - by Greg
    Hi, I'm getting confused in the doco how I should be setting up Ninject. I'm seeing different ways of doing it, some v2 versus v1 confusion probably included... Question - What is the best way in my WinForms application to set things up for NInject (i.e. what are the few lines of code required). I'm assuming this would go into the MainForm Load method. In other words what code do I have to have prior to getting to: Bind<IWeapon>().To<Sword>(); I have the following code, so effectively I just want to get clarification on the setup and bind code that would be required in my MainForm.Load() to end up with a concrete Samurai instance? internal interface IWeapon { void Hit(string target); } class Sword : IWeapon { public void Hit(string target) { Console.WriteLine("Chopped {0} clean in half", target); } } class Samurai { private IWeapon _weapon; [Inject] public Samurai(IWeapon weapon) { _weapon = weapon; } public void Attack(string target) { _weapon.Hit(target); } } thanks PS. I've tried the following code, however I can't resolve the "Bind". Where does this come from? what DLL or "using" statement would I be missing? private void MainForm_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Bind<IWeapon>().To<Sword>(); // <== *** CAN NOT RESOLVE Bind *** IKernel kernel = new StandardKernel(); var samurai = kernel.Get<Samurai>();

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  • How do I label a group of radio boxes for WCAG / 508 Compliance? Is ASP.NET doing it wrong?

    - by Mark Brittingham
    I am trying to bring an existing web site into greater conformance with WCAG 2.0 Guidelines and am a bit confused over the output emitted by Microsoft (ASP.NET 4.0 although it was the same in 3.5). Suppose you have a question like: "How would you rate your health?" and a set of 5 answers created using an ASP.NET RadioButtonList. I place the question in an asp:Label with an "AssociatedControlID" that matches the ID of the RadioButtonList (e.g. "SelfRatingBox"). Seems pretty easy... Only the output that is generated has an html "label" with a "For" that is equal to the ID of a table that wraps up the RadioButtons. I assumed that this would work with page readers but our 508 compliance guy is saying that the reader isn't associating the label with the radio controls. The WCAG guidelines indicate that you have to use a fieldset around the entire group and a legend to capture the associated text (the question). So what gives? It would be ideal if MS could take my label and the radiobuttonlist and generate the appropriate fieldset and legend tags but it seems pretty clear that to achieve WCAG compliance, I'll have to roll my own. Is this correct or am I missing something?

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  • Javascript: prototypal inheritance and the prototype property

    - by JanD
    Hi, I have a simple code fragment in JS working with prototype inheritance. function object(o) { function F() {} F.prototype = o; return new F(); } //the following code block has a alternate version var mammal = { color: "brown", getColor: function() { return this.color; } } var myCat = object(mammal); myCat.meow = function(){return "meow";} that worked fine but adding this: mammal.prototype.kindOf = "predator"; does not. ("mammal.prototype is undefined") Since I guessed that object maybe have no prototype I rewrote it, replacing the var mammal={... block with: function mammal() { this.color = "brown"; this.getColor = function() { return this.color; } } which gave me a bunch of other errors: "Function.prototype.toString called on incompatible object" and if I try to call _myCat.getColor() "myCat.getColor is not a function" Now I am totally confused. After reading Crockford, and Flanagan I did not get the solution for the errors. So it would be great if somebody knows... - why is the prototype undefined in the first example (which is foremost concern; I thought the prototype of explicitly set in the object() function) - why get I these strange errors trying to use the mammal function as prototype object in the object() function? Edit by the Creator of the Question: These two links helped a lot too: Prototypes_in_JavaScript on the spheredev wiki explains the way the prototype property works relativily simple. What it lacks is some try-out code examples. Some good examples are provided by Morris John's Article. I personally find the explanations are not that easy as in the first link, but still very good. The most difficult part even after I actually got it is really not to confuse the .prototype propery with the internal [[Prototype]] of an object.

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  • jQuery Validation error...

    - by Povylas
    Hi, I have been struggling with this jQuery Validation Plugin. Here is the code: <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { var validator = $('#signup').validate({ errorElement: 'span', rules: { username: { required: true, minlenght: 6 //remote: "check-username.php" }, password: { required: true, minlength: 5 }, confirm_password: { required: true, minlength: 5, equalTo: "#password" }, email: { required: true, email: true }, agree: "required" }, messages: { username: { required: "Please enter a username", minlength: "Your username must consist of at least 6 characters" //remote: "Somenoe have already chosen nick like this." }, password: { required: "Please provide a password", minlength: "Your password must be at least 5 characters long" }, confirm_password: { required: "Please provide a password", minlength: "Your password must be at least 5 characters long", equalTo: "Please enter the same password as above" }, email: "Please enter a valid email address", agree: "Please accept our policy" } }); var root = $("#wizard").scrollable({size: 1, clickable: false}); // some variables that we need var api = root.scrollable(); $("#data").click(function() { validator.form(); }); // validation logic is done inside the onBeforeSeek callback api.onBeforeSeek(function(event, i) { if($("#signup").valid() == false){ return false; }else{ return true; } $("#status li").removeClass("active").eq(i).addClass("active"); }); //if tab is pressed on the next button seek to next page root.find("button.next").keydown(function(e) { if (e.keyCode == 9) { // seeks to next tab by executing our validation routine api.next(); e.preventDefault(); } }); $('button.fin').click(function(){ parent.$.fn.fancybox.close() }); }); </script> And here is the error: $.validator.methods[method] is undefined http://www.vvv.vhost.lt/js/jquery-validate/jquery.validate.min.js Line 15 I am completely confused... Maybe some kind of handler is needed? I would be grateful for any kind of answer.

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  • Why isn't UIScrollView always calling viewDidLoad on subviews?

    - by Rob S.
    I'm a bit confused on the behaviour of UIScrollView as it pertains to subview loading. In my app, I lazily load subviews into my scroller. Most of the time, -viewDidLoad is called on the subview immediately after adding it the UIScrollView. There is one scenario where it isn't being called. At the 'end' of my scroll view I have a "please wait" view. When it is fully scrolled on to the page, it fades out, I add the subview and -viewDidLoad is not called. In this case, when I remove the last subview and add another subview, I get nothing. I've tried [scrollView setNeedsDisplay] and [scrollView setNeedsLayout] to no avail. I've also sent the same messages to the view I just added - no dice. Does anyone have any insight here? Many people have many questions about -viewDidLoad and I haven't been able to find one related to direct subviews inside of a scrollview. Or I have and I haven't realized it :) Thanks in advance! Rob

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  • How reliable is DateTime.UtcNow in Silverlight applications?

    - by Edward Tanguay
    I have a silverlight application which users will be running in various time zones. These applications load their data from the server upon start up, then cache it in IsolatedStorage. When I make changes to the data on the server, I want to be able to change the "last updated time" so that all silverlight clients download the newest data the next time they check this date. However, I'm a bit confused as to how to handle the time zone issue since a if the server is in New York and the update time is set to 2010-01-01 17:00:00 and a client in Seattle checks compares it to its local time of 2010-01-01 14:00:00 it won't update and will continue to provide old data for three more hours. My solution is to always post the update time in UTC time, not with the time on the server, then make the Silverlight app check with DateTime.UtcNow. Is this as easy as it sounds or are their issues with this, e.g. that timezones are not set correctly on computers and hence the SilverlightApp does not report the correct UTC time. Can anyone say from experience how likely it is that using DateTime.UtcNow like this for cache refreshing will work in all cases? If DateTime.UtcNow is not reliable, I will just use an incremented "DataVersion" integer but there are other scenarios in which getting time zone sychronization down would make it useful to thoroughly understand how to solve this in silverlight apps.

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  • How to use a linkedList and multiple classes with my Java GUI

    - by Asj
    How should I use a linked list with my GUI program? The program is supposed to have blocks with textareas and dropdown menus. The number of blocks depends on the number of times the user presses a button. It's supposed to be possible to put blocks within blocks. I want to store the information created, using a linked list and then saving to a file. I'm thinking, for the sub blocks, there would be linked lists within the linked list. Should I use Java.util.LinkedList? How do I add the information? A Node class? Should that be in a separate file? I started to try sitting up a linked list, but it's getting me confused. I'm still unsure about how a person is supposed to make GUI's. I've only seen really simple GUI's. Can anyone tell me how I should arrange things? At the moment, I have three files, one for the main GUI window, one for the question blocks to be inserted within that, and one for some tools to use within those two files to make the code easier to understand. But, there seems to be something wrong with the question block file, because I've been making the background white for each JPanel, and there's a gray outline around the question blocks when I run the program. I probably shouldn't paste a ton of code here... These are my files: http://asj127.webs.com/BuildAssessmentWindow.java http://asj127.webs.com/QuestionBlock.java http://asj127.webs.com/JPanelTools.java

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