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  • Etiquette: Version bump my fork of opensource project?

    - by Ross
    This question is about etiquette and open source projects. I have forked an application from github and added two new features. The first feature has been request frequently elsewhere. I have added it. Code & implementation are clean (I think). The second feature is more of a hack. It will be of use to others, but the implementation is a little dirty in useage and more so in code. I need the feature but I don't have the skills to fully implement it properly or to a level that could be considered a worth while contrabution to the main project. How should the versioning work? Do I just bump up my version numbers care-free and push to my master branch? It is annoying to know which version is running, modifed or original, as both have the same version number. But will it be confusing when, months later, my github page has a version number the same as the original but both are actually completely different. (I have made pull requests etc. but that is not the context of my question.) The project I have forked uses ruby jeweler so has a versioning format of: Jeweler tracks the version of your project. It assumes you will be using a version in the format x.y.z. x is the 'major' version, y is the 'minor' version, and z is the patch version. Is this standard for other projects/langauges too? Are my changes patches? Thanks

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  • C Programming. How to deep copy a struct?

    - by user69514
    I have the following two structs where "child struct" has a "rusage struct" as an element. Then I create two structs of type "child" let's call them childA and childB How do I copy just the rusage struct from childA to childB? typedef struct{ int numb; char *name; pid_t pid; long userT; long systemT; struct rusage usage; }child; typedef struct{ struct timeval ru_utime; /* user time used */ struct timeval ru_stime; /* system time used */ long ru_maxrss; /* maximum resident set size */ long ru_ixrss; /* integral shared memory size */ long ru_idrss; /* integral unshared data size */ long ru_isrss; /* integral unshared stack size */ long ru_minflt; /* page reclaims */ long ru_majflt; /* page faults */ long ru_nswap; /* swaps */ long ru_inblock; /* block input operations */ long ru_oublock; /* block output operations */ long ru_msgsnd; /* messages sent */ long ru_msgrcv; /* messages received */ long ru_nsignals; /* signals received */ long ru_nvcsw; /* voluntary context switches */ long ru_nivcsw; /* involuntary context switches */ }rusage; I did the following, but I guess it copies the memory location, because if I changed the value of usage in childA, it also changes in childB. memcpy(&childA,&childB, sizeof(rusage)); I know that gives childB all the values from childA. I have already taken care of the others fields in childB, I just need to be able to copy the rusage struct called usage that resides in the "child" struct.

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  • Website. VoteUp or VoteDown Videos. How to restrict users voting multiple times?

    - by DJDonaL3000
    Im working on a website (html,css,javascript, ajax, php,mysql), and I want to restrict the number of times a particular user votes for a particular video. Its similar to the YouTube system where you can voteUp or voteDown a particular video. Each vote involves adding a row to the video.votes table, which logs the time, vote direction(up or down), the client IPaddress( using PHP: $ip = $_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR']; ), and of course the ID of the video in question. Adding votes is as simple as; (pseudocode): Javascript:onClick( vote( a,b,c,d ) ), which passes variables to PHP insertion script via ajax, and finally we replace the voteing buttons with a "Thank You For Voting" message. THE PROBLEM: If you reload/refresh the page after voting, you can vote again, and again, and again, you get the point. MY QUESTION: How do you limit the amount of times a particular user votes for a particular video?? MY THOUGHTS: Do you use cookies, and add a new cookie with the id of the video. And check for a cookie before you insert a new vote.? OR Before you insert the vote, do you use the IPaddress and the videoID to see if this same user(IP) has voted for this same video(vidID) in the past 24hrs(mktime), and either allow or dissallow the voteInsertion based on this query? OR Do you just not care? Take the assumption that most users are sane, and have better things to do than refresh pages and vote repeatedly.?? Any suggestions or ideas welcome.

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  • Firefox not honoring must-revalidate cache headers returned by jQuery.ajax() request

    - by Oliver Weichhold
    UPDATE 1: Judging by this thread I am not the only one having this problem in FF 12 and only in 12. UPDATE 2: The problem does not seem to be limited to Ajax requests. From the looks of it everything that makes it into Firefox 12's cache will be fetched from there. No matter what. The server can specify cache control headers all day long. Bummer! What I'm trying to achieve is the following behavior: Browser may cache the response without revalidating for up to 5 minutes I don't care if the browser revalidates on every request (Both Chrome and IE9 do for example) When the expiration is up the browser MUST revalidate (which in my case will result in fresh data) Chrome and IE9 exhibit the desired behavior when issuing a jquery.ajax() request with ifModified: true and cache: true while Firefox 12 never revalidates, which poses a serious problem. These are the actual response headers: HTTP/1.1 200 OK Server: nginx Date: Sun, 03 Jun 2012 07:13:43 GMT Content-Type: text/javascript; charset=UTF-8 Transfer-Encoding: chunked Connection: keep-alive Vary: Accept-Encoding Cache-Control: private, must-revalidate, max-age=300 Last-Modified: Sun, 03 Jun 2012 07:07:13 GMT Content-Encoding: gzip Any suggestions?

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  • Improve a regex statement in order to be as efficient as it can be

    - by user551625
    I have a PHP program that, at some point, needs to analyze a big amount of HTML+javascript text to parse info. All I want to parse needs to be in two parts. Seperate all "HTML goups" to parse Parse each HTML group to get the needed information. In the 1st parse it needs to find: <div id="myHome" And start capturing after that tag. Then stop capturing before <span id="nReaders" And capture the number that comes after this tag and stop. In the 2nd parse use the capture nº 1 (0 has the whole thing and 2 has the number) from the parse made before and then find . I already have code to do that and it works. Is there a way to improve this, make it easier for the machine to parse? preg_match_all('%<div id="myHome"[^>]>(.*?)<span id="nReaders[^>]>([0-9]+)<"%msi', $data, $results, PREG_SET_ORDER); foreach($results AS $result){ preg_match_all('%<div class="myplacement".*?[.]php[?]((?:next|before))=([0-9]+).*?<tbody.*?<td[^>]>.*?[0-9]+"%msi', $result[1], $mydata, PREG_SET_ORDER); //takes care of the data and finish the program Note: I need this for a freeware program so it must be as general as possible and, if possible, not use php extensions ADD: I ommitted some parts here because I didn't expect for answers like those. There is also a need to parse text inside one of the tags that is in the document. It may be the 6th 7th or 8th tag but I know it is after a certain tag. The parser I've checked (thx profitphp) does work to find the script tag. What now? There are more than 1 tag with the same class. I want them all. But I want only with also one of a list of classes..... Where can I find instructions and demos and limitations of DOM parsers (like the one in http://simplehtmldom.sourceforge.net/)? I need something that will work on, at least, a big amount of free servers.

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  • C Typecast: How to

    - by Jean
    #include<stdio.h> int main(void) { unsigned short a,e,f ; // 2 bytes data type unsigned int temp1,temp2,temp4; // 4 bytes data type unsigned long temp3; // 8 bytes data type a=0xFFFF; e=((a*a)+(a*a))/(2*a); // Line 8 //e=(((unsigned long)(a*a)+(unsigned long)(a*a)))/(unsigned int)(2*a); temp1=a*a; temp2=a*a; temp3=(unsigned long)temp1+(unsigned long)temp2; // Line 14 temp4=2*a; f=temp3/temp4; printf("%u,%u,%lu,%u,%u,%u,%u\n",temp1,temp2,temp3,temp4,e,f,a); return(1); } How do I fix the arithmetic (At Line 8 by appropriate typecasting of intermediate results) so that overflows are taken care of ? Currently it prints 65534 instead of expected 65535. Why is the typecast necessary for Line 14 ?

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  • Determining the chances of an event occurring when it hasn't occurred yet

    - by sanity
    A user visits my website at time t, and they may or may not click on a particular link I care about, if they do I record the fact that they clicked the link, and also the duration since t that they clicked it, call this d. I need an algorithm that allows me to create a class like this: class ClickProbabilityEstimate { public void reportImpression(long id); public void reportClick(long id); public double estimateClickProbability(long id); } Every impression gets a unique id, and this is used when reporting a click to indicate which impression the click belongs to. I need an algorithm that will return a probability, based on how much time has past since an impression was reported, that the impression will receive a click, based on how long previous clicks required. Clearly one would expect that this probability will decrease over time if there is still no click. If necessary, we can set an upper-bound, beyond which we consider the click probability to be 0 (eg. if its been an hour since the impression occurred, we can be pretty sure there won't be a click). The algorithm should be both space and time efficient, and hopefully make as few assumptions as possible, while being elegant. Ease of implementation would also be nice. Any ideas?

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  • How do I compare two PropertyInfos or methods reliably?

    - by Rob Ashton
    Same for methods too: I am given two instances of PropertyInfo or methods which have been extracted from the class they sit on via GetProperty or GetMember etc, (or from a MemberExpression maybe). I want to determine if they are in fact referring to the same Property or the same Method so (propertyOne == propertyTwo) or (methodOne == methodTwo) Clearly that isn't going to actually work, you might be looking at the same property, but it might have been extracted from different levels of the class hierarchy (in which case generally, propertyOne != propertyTwo) Of course, I could look at DeclaringType, and re-request the property, but this starts getting a bit confusing when you start thinking about Properties/Methods declared on interfaces and implemented on classes Properties/Methods declared on a base class (virtually) and overridden on derived classes Properties/Methods declared on a base class, overridden with 'new' (in IL world this is nothing special iirc) At the end of the day, I just want to be able to do an intelligent equality check between two properties or two methods, I'm 80% sure that the above bullet points don't cover all of the edge cases, and while I could just sit down, write a bunch of tests and start playing about, I'm well aware that my low level knowledge of how these concepts are actually implemented is not excellent, and I'm hoping this is an already answered topic and I just suck at searching. The best answer would give me a couple of methods that achieve the above, explaining what edge cases have been taken care of and why :-)

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  • In ActionScript, is there a way to test for existence of variable with datatype "Function"

    - by Robusto
    So I have a class where I instantiate a variable callback like so: public var callback:Function; So far so good. Now, I want to add an event listener to this class and test for existence of the callback. I'm doing like so: this.addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_OVER, function(event:MouseEvent) : void { if (callback) { // do some things } }); This works great, doesn't throw any errors, but everywhere I test for callback I get the following warning: 3553: Function value used where type Boolean was expected. Possibly the parentheses () are missing after this function reference. That bugged me, so I tried to get rid of the warning by testing for null and undefined. Those caused errors. I can't instantiate a Function as null, either. I know, I know, real programmers only care about errors, not warnings. I will survive if this situation is not resolved. But it bothers me! :) Am I just being neurotic, or is there actually some way to test whether a real Function has been created without the IDE bitching about it?

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  • How to replace auto-implemented c# get body at runtime or compile time?

    - by qstarin
    I've been trying to figure this out all night, but I guess my knowledge of the .Net Framework just isn't that deep and the problem doesn't exactly Google well, but if I can get a nod in the right direction I'm sure I can implement it, one way or another. I'd like to be able to declare a property decorated with a custom attribute as such: public MyClass { [ReplaceWithExpressionFrom(typeof(SomeOtherClass))] public virtual bool MyProperty { get; } } public SomeOtherClass : IExpressionHolder<MyClass, bool> { ... } public interface IExpressionHolder<TArg, TResult> { Expression<Func<TArg, TResult>> Expression { get; } } And then somehow - this is the part I'm having trouble figuring - replace the automatically generated implementation of that getter with a piece of custom code, something like: Type expressionHolderType = LookupAttributeCtorArgTypeInDeclarationOfPropertyWereReplacing(); return ReplaceWithExpressionFromAttribute.GetCompiledExpressionFrom(expressionHolderType)(this); The main thing I'm not sure how to do is replace the automatic implementation of the get. The first thing that came to mind was PostSharp, but that's a more complicated dependency than I care for. I'd much prefer a way to code it without using post-processing attached to the build (I think that's the jist of how PostSharp sinks its hooks in anyway). The other part of this I'm not so sure about is how to retrieve the type parameter passed to the particular instantiation of the ReplaceWithExpressionFrom attribute (where it decorates the property whose body I want to replace; in other words, how do I get typeof(SomeOtherClass) where I'm coding the get body replacement). I plan to cache compiled expressions from concrete instances of IExpressionHolder, as I don't want to do that every time the property gets retrieved. I figure this has just got to be possible. At the very least I figure I should be able to search an assembly for any method decorated with the attribute and somehow proxy the class or just replace the IL or .. something? And I'd like to make the integration as smooth as possible, so if this can be done without explicitly calling a registration or initialization method somewhere that'd be super great. Thanks!

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  • How to run <script src= > tag from javascript

    - by Gleeb
    I am having some difficulties implementing Paypal buttons with backbone.js The problem is that the button is implemented in a script tag: <script src="paypal-button.min.js?merchant=YOUR_MERCHANT_ID" data-button="buynow" data-name="My product" data-amount="1.00"></script> which i cant run from Handlebars.js because the </script> tag is closing the handlebars <script> I cant use eval(), or i don't understand how i am supposed to do that with the . So there you have it. i am kind of stuck. I am out of ideas on how to implement this button with backbone.js the last resort is to ask the server to produce html pages with the script in them and then load them to the page. i am just refusing to believe that JavaScript has no way to take care of this. Please help. This question relates to another question i asked in this subject. Is it possible to use JavaScript inside handlebars.js template Thank you.

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  • How would I compare two Lists(Of <CustomClass>) in VB?

    - by Kumba
    I'm working on implementing the equality operator = for a custom class of mine. The class has one property, Value, which is itself a List(Of OtherClass), where OtherClass is yet another custom class in my project. I've already implemented the IComparer, IComparable, IEqualityComparer, and IEquatable interfaces, the operators =, <>, bool and not, and overriden Equals and GetHashCode for OtherClass. This should give me all the tools I need to compare these objects, and various tests comparing two singular instances of these objects so far checks out. However, I'm not sure how to approach this when they are in a List. I don't care about the list order. Given: Dim x As New List(Of OtherClass) From {New OtherClass("foo"), New OtherClass("bar"), New OtherClass("baz")} Dim y As New List(Of OtherClass) From {New OtherClass("baz"), New OtherClass("foo"), New OtherClass("bar")} Then (x = y).ToString should print out True. I need to compare the same (not distinct) set of objects in this list. The list shouldn't support dupes of OtherClass, but I'll have to figure out how to add that in later as an exception. Not interested in using LINQ. It looks nice, but in the few examples I've played with, adds a performance overhead in that bugs me. Loops are ugly, but they are fast :) A straight code answer is fine, but I'd like to understand the logic needed for such a comparison as well. I'm probably going to have to implement said logic more than a few times down the road.

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  • Obfuscating ids in Rails app

    - by fphilipe
    I'm trying to obfuscate all the ids that leave the server, i.e., ids appearing in URLs and in the HTML output. I've written a simple Base62 lib that has the methods encode and decode. Defining—or better—overwriting the id method of an ActiveRecord to return the encoded version of the id and adjusting the controller to load the resource with the decoded params[:id] gives me the desired result. The ids now are base62 encoded in the urls and the response displays the correct resource. Now I started to notice that subresources defined through has_many relationships aren't loading. e.g. I have a record called User that has_many Posts. Now User.find(1).posts is empty although there are posts with user_id = 1. My explanation is that ActiveRecord must be comparing the user_id of Post with the method id of User—which I've overwritten—instead of comparing with self[:id]. So basically this renders my approach useless. What I would like to have is something like defining obfuscates_id in the model and that the rest would be taken care of, i.e., doing all the encoding/decoding at the appropriate locations and preventing ids to be returned by the server. Is there any gem available or does somebody have a hint how to accomplish this? I bet I'm not the first trying this.

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  • Django Many-to-Many Question

    - by DZ
    My questions seems like a common problem that when I have seen any questions on it is never really asked right or not answered. So Im going to try to get the question right, and maybe someone knows how to resolve the issue, or correct my understanding. The problem: When you have a many-to-many relation ship (related_name not through) and you are trying to use the admin interface you are required to input one of the rleationships even though it does not have to exsist for you to create the first entry. Meaning you have to assign a group to an event to create the group. Wow that sounds complicated. So I can see why the question is not getting answered. Lets try the non code explanation example... First and important versions: Django 1.1.1 Phython 2.6 So I have a model where I created a many-to-many realtionship and Im using the related_name Im creating an app that is an event organizer, for simplicty lets say events although they could be anytype). For this first post Im going to stay away from the code and just try to explain. A few keys: (explaining comment) ** - many-to-many So in the model we have 1) The Main Event (this is main model) 2) Groups (link to events and their can be many events for a group) a) Events** I have simplified this example a little becuase I recognize that what does it matter. Just create the event first... But there are specific varations where that will not work. What the many-to-many related_name does it created another table with the indecies of the two other tables. Nothing says that this extra table HAS to be populated. Becuase if I look in the database and work within myPHPadmin I can create a group with out registering an event, since the connection between the two is a seperate table the DB does not care. How do I make the admin interface this realize it? Ok I know thats a lot so I hope I have explained it clearly. Thank you anyone for your comments/thoughts/advice

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  • Javascript: click and dblclick deliver different parentNodes on same html. Why?

    - by user1658206
    currently I work on an very small wysiwyg editor based on jquery. I dont care about IE oder Chrome, just Firefox. My problem is to find if the selection is in a link for to get the value of the href attribute if is set. With click the node of the link is found, with double click always the body. It is in designMode. My event-handler for click and dblclick. The vars current_selection, current_node, iframe and container are global. selection_handler:function() { current_selection = iframe.getSelection(); current_node = current_selection.anchorNode; if(current_node.nodeName == "#text") { current_node = current_node.parentNode; } $('#log').text(current_node.nodeName); }, The log shows mit for example 'body', when I click in unformated text. When I add a link with execCommand('createLink',...) the log shows 'A'. That works. When I mark the linked word with 2 click from start to end, the log shows 'A'. But with double click I always get 'body'. So I can't get the href attribute. The handler is defined in the init: init:function(options) { ... iframe = $('#wysiwyg-'+container.attr('id'))[0].contentWindow; iframe.addEventListener('dblclick',methods.selection_handler,false); iframe.addEventListener('click',methods.selection_handler,false); ... } Has somebody an idea what is wrong?

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  • Sending data back to Controller Spring-MVC

    - by Umesh Awasthi
    I am not sure if this is a complex problem but as a starting person this seems a bit complex to me. I have an object based on which i need to show some values on the UI and let user select some of them, i need to send data back to another controller when user click on the submit button.Here is the structure of my data object public class PrsData{ private Map<String, List<PrsCDData>> prsCDData; } public class PrsCDData{ private Map<String, Collection<ConfiguredDesignData>> configuredDesignData; } public ConfiguredDesignData{ // simple fields } I have set the object in model before showing the view like model.addAttribute("prsData", productData.getPrData()); In the form i have following settings <form:form method="post" commandName="prsData" action="${addProductToCartAction}" > <form:hidden path="prsCDData['${prsCDDataMap.key}'] [${status.index}].configuredDesignData['${configuredDesignDataMap.key}'] [${configuredDesignDataStatus.index}].code"/> <form:hidden path="prsCDData['${prsCDDataMap.key}'] [${status.index}].configuredDesignData['${configuredDesignDataMap.key}'] [${configuredDesignDataStatus.index}].description"/> </form:form> This is what i have at AddProductToCartController public String addToCart(@RequestParam("productCodePost") final String code, @ModelAttribute("prsData") final PrsData prsData, final Model model, @RequestParam(value = "qty", required = false, defaultValue = "1") final long qty) On submitting the form i am getting following exception org.springframework.beans.NullValueInNestedPathException: Invalid property 'prsCDData[Forced][0]' of bean class [com.product.data.PrsData]: Cannot access indexed value of property referenced in indexed property path 'prsCDData[Forced][0]': returned null It seems like its trying to access the values on this controller while i am trying to send value to that controller and trying to create same object with selected values Can any one tell me where i am doing wrong and what i need to take care of

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  • SQL left join with multiple rows into one row

    - by beardedd
    Basically, I have two tables, Table A contains the actual items that I care to get out, and Table B is used for language translations. So, for example, Table A contains the actual content. Anytime text is used within the table, instead of storing actual varchar values, ids are stored that relate back to text stored in Table B. This allows me to by adding a languageID column to Table B, have multiple translations for the same row in the database. Example: Table A Title (int) Description (int) Other Data.... Table B TextID (int) - This is the column whose value is stored in other tables LanguageID (int) Text (varchar) My question is more a call for suggestions on how to best handle this. Ideally I want a query that I can use to select from the table, and get the text as opposed to the ids of the text out of the table. Currently when I have two text items in the table this is what I do: SELECT C.ID, C.Title, D.Text AS Description FROM (SELECT A.ID, A.Description, B.Text AS Title FROM TableA A, TranslationsTable B WHERE A.Title = B.TextID AND B.LanguaugeID = 1) C LEFT JOIN TranslationsTable D ON C.Description = D.TextID AND D.LanguaugeID = 1 This query gives me the row from Table A I am looking for (using where statements in the inner select statement) with the actual text based on the language ID used instead of the text ids. This works fine when I am only using one or two text items that need to be translated, but adding a third item or more, it starts to get really messy - essentially another left join on top of the example. Any suggestions on a better query, or at least a good way to handle 3 or more text items in a single row?

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  • breaking datetime into constituent parts ASP.NET MVC form

    - by nick
    hi guys, i have searched the web relentlessly for this and have not found anything - which is surprising because i would think it is such a common scenario! Basically, on my model i have a DateTime field which i wish the user to populate through a form. I am using the Html helper to render all other parts of the form (along with validation) So this question is in two parts... Html Helper Firstly, is there any way to use the Html helper to split the DateTime field to be rendered as the three constituent parts of a date: day, month, year (since i do not care about the time part). This could be rendered as text boxes, drop down lists or a combination of both. Model Binding And then when the form is posted, what is the best approach for binding back up to the model? I have seen Scott Hanselmann's solution to this, but it seems a little bloated for what i need - i was hoping for a slightly more elegant solution. Is it recommended to extend DefaultModelBinder and set that as default binder (since all dates would be handled in this way) or write a class that implements IModelBionder and set it as the default binder for the DateTime type? Thanks for all the help in advance :-) i'm loving MVC but it's infuriating me that something so trivial is causing so much headaches!

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  • Is there any possibility of rendering differences betweeen firefox 3 and 3.5 and IE 7 and 8, even if

    - by metal-gear-solid
    I'm making a site for European client and he said Firefox 3 and IE 7 and 8 has more user than others browser for desktop in Europe http://gs.statcounter.com/#browser_version-eu-monthly-200812-201001-bar I've only IE 7 and Firefox 3.5.7 installed in my PC. Should I download portable Firefox 3.0 and test in it too even if I'm not using any new css property/selector which only has support in Firefox 3.5 or testing in 3.5.7 would be enough? And for IE testing in IE 7 would be enough or should i check my site in IE8 (downloading VPC image of IE8 and testing in VM) even if I'm not using any new css property/selector which only has support in IE8? Or is it necessary to use <meta http-equiv="X-UA-Compatible" content="IE=EmulateIE7" /> in <head> ? But what will happen when user will switch compatibility mode to IE 8 default rendering mode? Can we make site compatible in IE 7 and 8 both without using <meta http-equiv="X-UA-Compatible" content="IE=EmulateIE7" />? If yes, then what special we need to do.care/consider in css to make site identical in both?

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  • What C# container is most resource-efficient for existence for only one operation?

    - by ccornet
    I find myself often with a situation where I need to perform an operation on a set of properties. The operation can be anything from checking if a particular property matches anything in the set to a single iteration of actions. Sometimes the set is dynamically generated when the function is called, some built with a simple LINQ statement, other times it is a hard-coded set that will always remain the same. But one constant always exists: the set only exists for one single operation and has no use before or after it. My problem is, I have so many points in my application where this is necessary, but I appear to be very, very inconsistent in how I store these sets. Some of them are arrays, some are lists, and just now I've found a couple linked lists. Now, none of the operations I'm specifically concerned about have to care about indices, container size, order, or any other functionality that is bestowed by any of the individual container types. I picked resource efficiency because it's a better idea than flipping coins. I figured, since array size is configured and it's a very elementary container, that might be my best choice, but I figure it is a better idea to ask around. Alternatively, if there's a better choice not out of resource-efficiency but strictly as being a better choice for this kind of situation, that would be nice as well.

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  • How to sort array with undefined elements in IE7 JavaScript

    - by Gene Goykhman
    I am having trouble sorting an array that includes undefined elements (a sparse array) in IE7. This works great in Safari and Firefox of course, and I haven't tried other versions of IE, but here is a simple example. <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> function runscript() { var myArray = [{id: 2}, undefined, {id: 0}, {id: 1}, {id: 3}, {id: 4}, {id: 5}]; myArray.sort(function compare(a, b) { return a.id - b.id; }); var output = ''; for (loop in myArray) { output += myArray[loop].id + ' '; } alert(output); } </script> </head> <body onLoad="runscript();"> </body> The alert() at the end inexplicably shows 0 2 3 4 5 1. Removing the undefined element from the array correctly sorts it and the alert shows 0 1 2 3 4 5. Is there a way to work around this in IE7 so that I can reliably sort arrays that include undefined elements? I don't care where the undefined elements end up as long as the defined elements are sorted correctly.

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  • Is it possible to achieve MAX(As,Ad) openGL blending?

    - by Jeff B
    I am working on a game where I want to create shadows under a series of sprites on a grid. The shadows are larger than the sprites themselves and the sprites are animated (i.e. move and rotate). I cannot simply render them into the sprite png, or the shadows will overlap adjacent sprites. I also cannot simply put shadows on a lower layer by themselves, because when they overlap, they will create dark bands at their intersection. These sprites are animated, so it is not feasible to render these en masse. Basically, I want the sprites' shadows to blend together such that they max out at a set opacity. Example: I believe this is equivalent to an openGL blending of (Rs,Gs,Bs,Max(As,Ds)), where I don't really care about R,G, and B, as it will always be the same color in src and dst. However, this is not a valid openGL blending mode. Is there an easy way to accomplish this, especially in cocos2d-iphone? I would be able to approximate this by making the shadow sprites opaque, then applying them both to a parent sprite, and making the parent sprite 40% opacity. However, the way cocos2d works, this only sets the opacity of each child to 40%, rather than the combined sprite image, which results in the same stripe.

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  • Expose webservice directly to webclients or keep a thin server-side script layer in between?

    - by max
    Hi, I'm developing a REST webservice (Java, Jersey). The people I'm doing this for want to directly access the webservice via Javascript. Some instinct tells me this is not a good idea, but I cannot really explain that instinct. My natural approach would have been to have the webservice do the real logic and database access, but also have some (relatively thin) server-side script layer (e.g. in PHP). Clients would talk to the PHP layer which in turn would talk to the webservice. (The webservice would be pretty local to the apache/PHP server and implicitly trust calls from the script layer. The script layer would take care of session management.) (Btw, I am not talking about just hiding the webservice behind an Apache which simply redirects calls.) But as I find myself at a lack of words/arguments to explain my instinct, I wonder whether my instinct is right - note that while I have been developing all kinds of software in all kinds of languages and frameworks for like 17 years, this is the first time I develop a webservice. So my question is basically: what are your opinions? Are there any standard setups? Is my instinct totally wrong? Or partially? ;P Many thanks, Max PS: I might add a few bits of information about the planned usage of the whole application: will be accessed by different kinds of users, partly general public, partly privileged thus, all major OS/browser combinations can be expected as clients however, writing the client is not my responsibility will potentially have very high load/traffic logic of webservice will later be massively expanded for another product which is basically a superset of the functionality of the current project there is a significant likelihood that at some point an API should be exposed which can be used by 3rd party developers - obviously, with some restrictions at some point, the public view of the product should become accessible via smartphones, too (in other words, maybe a customized version of the site to adapt to the smaller display and different input methods)

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  • change postgres date format

    - by Jay
    Is there a way to change the default format of a date in Postgres? Normally when I query a Postgres database, dates come out as yyyy-mm-dd hh:mm:ss+tz, like 2011-02-21 11:30:00-05. But one particular program the dates come out yyyy-mm-dd hh:mm:ss.s, that is, there is no time zone and it shows tenths of a second. Apparently something is changing the default date format, but I don't know what or where. I don't think it's a server-side configuration parameter, because I can access the same database with a different program and I get the format with the timezone. I care because it appears to be ignoring my "set timezone" calls in addition to changing the format. All times come out EST. Additional info: If I write "select somedate from sometable" I get the "no timezone" format. But if I write "select to_char(somedate::timestamptz, 'yyyy-mm-dd hh24:mi:ss-tz')" then timezones work as I would expect. This really sounds to me like something is setting all timestamps to implicitly be "to_char(date::timestamp, 'yyyy-mm-dd hh24:mi:ss.m')". But I can't find anything in the documentation about how I would do this if I wanted to, nor can I find anything in the code that appears to do this. Though as I don't know what to look for, that doesn't prove much.

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  • Manipulating/changing adressbar link Help

    - by Karem
    I am out of my own "ideas" going through this. I have a album viewer. When you click next I want the adressbar to hang with it, e.g if you start on ?photoid=1, and click next (next picture appends and stuff), and then i want it to say ?photoid=2. Now I cant make it say ?photoid=2 without changing/manipulating, and this you cant do without HTML5. I have made a script in HTML5 that works fine, but then I need to take care of those who dont have HTML5(only chrome, ff4 etc supports html5) Made the script from this( https://developer.mozilla.org/en/DOM/Manipulating_the_browser_history ) I thought of adding #photoid=2 so, ?photoid=1#photoid=2 and then check if theres anything in # then use that instead of the $_GET.. But apparently you cannot do that as # is client side handled and never sent to the server. So what should I then do? Any suggestions please to make a workaround this? I checked facebook, what they did to IE users, and I could hear that it "clicked" (the annoying click sound from IE) twice.. the first was to get to the next picture, the second click sound changed the adressbar?!(how?). And then I also thought hey, html5 is only supported in ff4, and I got ff3.6, and they manipulate the adress bar url when you browse through the album photos, exactly like how I wanted (and what I have written for but it only works in Chrome and ff4..?). How could they do that?

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