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  • Perl WordPress::XMLRPC categories not being set.

    - by Jay
    The following code works fine to upload a new post to a WordPress blog but for the life of me I can't seem to get the categories to be set. The categories exist. I've tried all lower case, tried case-matching, tried the slug version. Nothing works. No matter how I try passing the categories, the post gets assigned only to the default category. I've scoured the web to find other pieces of sample code and none mention the actual code semantics of how to assign post to certain categories using the WordPress::XMLRPC module. use WordPress::XMLRPC; my $o = WordPress::XMLRPC-new; $o-username('username'); $o-password('password'); $o-proxy('http://blogdomain.com/xmlrpc.php'); $o-server() || die "$!"; my $hashref = { 'title' = 'Test New Post 999 555456782', 'categories' = ['Categorie1', 'Categorie2'], 'description' = '<pHere is the content</p', 'mt_keywords' = 'tag1, tag2, tag3', 'mt_allow_comments' = 1, }; my $ID = $o-newPost($hashref, 1);

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  • backbone marionette - displaying a view in a layout region which has already been rendered

    - by Justin Wyllie
    I have something like this: //render the layout Layout.layout = new Layout.Screen(); MyApp.SomeRegion.show(Layout.layout); //render a view into it var mView = new CompositeView({collection: data}); Layout.layout.SomeRegion.show(mView); That all works fine. The layout has 3 regions. The above has rendered a view into one of them. Now, later, I want (in response to some user interaction) to render another view into one of the other regions. So I try: var mView2 = new CompositeView({collection: data}); Layout.layout.SomeOtherRegion.show(mView); But 'SomeOtherRegion' no longer exists on Layout.layout. I looked at this in Firebug. In the first case Layout.layout has my three regions defined on it. In the second case, not. Though they are still there in the regions object. This is the same layout instance. It looks like once a layout has been rendered you cannot render into it again? There must be a way. Nb. I don't want to re-render the layout. I hope that makes sense --Justin Wyllie

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  • Inheritance of list-style-type property in Firefox (bug in Firebug?)

    - by Marcel Korpel
    Let's have a look at some comments on a page generated by Wordpress (it's not a site I maintain, I'm just wondering what's going on here). As these pages might disappear in the near future, I've put some screenshots online. Here's what I saw: Obviously, the list-item markers shouldn't be there. So I decided to look at the source using Firebug. As you can see, Firebug claims that the list-style property (containing none) is inherited from ol.commentlist. But if that's the case, why are the circle and the square visible? When checking the computed style, Firebug shows the list-style-types correctly. What's the correct behaviour? I just did a quick check in Chromium, whose Web Inspector gave a better view of reality (the list item markers were also displayed in this browser): According to WebKit, list-style of ol.commentlist isn't inherited, only the default value of list-style-type from the rendering engine. So, we may conclude that the output of both browsers is correct and that Firefox (Firebug) shows an incorrect representation of inherited styles. What does the CSS specification say? Inheritance will transfer the list-style values from OL and UL elements to LI elements. This is the recommended way to specify list style information. Not much about the inheritance of ol properties to uls. Is Firebug wrong in this respect? BTW, I managed to let the markers disappear by just changing line 312 of style.css to ol.commentlist, li.commentlist, ul.children { When also explicitly defining the list-style of ul.children to none, the markers are not painted. You can have a look at screenshots of Firebug and WebKit's Web Inspector in this case, if you like.

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  • Techniques for sharing a value among classes in a program

    - by Kenneth Cochran
    I'm using Environment.GetFolderPath(Environment.SpecialFolder.CommonApplicationData) + "\MyProgram" As the path to store several files used by my program. I'd like to avoid pasting the same snippet of code all over the my applcation. I need to ensure that: The path cannot be accidentally changed once its been set The classes that need it have access to it. I've considered: Making it a singleton Using constructor dependency injection Using property dependency injection Using AOP to create the path where its needed. Each has pros and cons. The singleton is everyone's favorite whipping boy. I'm not opposed to using one but there are valid reasons to avoid it if possible. I'm already heavily using constructor injection through Castle Windsor. But this is a path string and Windsor doesn't handle system type dependencies very gracefully. I could always wrap it in a class but that seems like overkill for something as simple as a passing around a string value. In any case this route would add yet another constructor argument to each class where it is used. The problem I see with property injection in this case is that there is a large amount of indirection from the where the value is set to where it is needed. I would need a very long line of middlemen to reach all the places where its used. AOP looks promising and I'm planning on using AOP for logging anyway so this at least sounds like a simple solution. Is there any other options I haven't considered? Am I off base with my evaluation of the options I have considered?

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  • jQuery Validate plugin - password check - minimum requirements - Regex

    - by QviXx
    I've got a little problem with my password-checker. There's got a registration form with some fields. I use jQuery Validate plugin to validate user-inputs. It all works except the password-validation: The password should meet some minimum requirements: minimum length: 8 - I just use 'minlength: 8' at least one lower-case character at least one digit Allowed Characters: A-Z a-z 0-9 @ * _ - . ! At the moment I use this code to validate the password: $.validator.addMethod("pwcheck", function(value, element) { return /^[A-Za-z0-9\d=!\-@._*]+$/.test(value); }); This Code works for the allowed characters but not for minimum requirements. I know that you can use for example (?=.*[a-z]) for a lower-case-requirement. But I just don't get it to work. If I add (?=.*[a-z]) the whole code doesn't work anymore. I need to know how to properly add the code to the existing one. Thank you for your answers! This is the complete code <script> $(function() { $("#regform").validate({ rules: { forename: { required: true }, surname: { required: true }, username: { required: true }, password: { required: true, pwcheck: true, minlength: 8 }, password2: { required: true, equalTo: "#password" }, mail1: { required: true, email: true }, mail2: { required: true, equalTo: "#mail1" } }, messages: { forename: { required: "Vornamen angeben" }, surname: { required: "Nachnamen angeben" }, username: { required: "Usernamen angeben" }, password: { required: "Passwort angeben", pwcheck: "Das Passwort entspricht nicht den Kriterien!", minlength: "Das Passwort entspricht nicht den Kriterien!" }, password2: { required: "Passwort wiederholen", equalTo: "Die Passwörter stimmen nicht überein" }, mail1: { required: "Mail-Adresse angeben", email: "ungültiges Mail-Format" }, mail2: { required: "Mail-Adresse wiederholen", equalTo: "Die Mail-Adressen stimmen nicht überein" } } }); $.validator.addMethod("pwcheck", function(value, element) { return /^[A-Za-z0-9\d=!\-@._*]+$/.test(value); }); }); </script>

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  • How to read spring-application-context.xml and AnnotationConfigWebApplicationContext both in spring mvc

    - by Suvasis
    In case I want to read bean definitions from spring-application-context.xml, I would do this in web.xml file. <context-param> <param-name>contextConfigLocation</param-name> <param-value> /WEB-INF/applicationContext.xml </param-value> </context-param> <listener> <listener-class>org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoaderListener</listener-class> </listener> In case I want to read bean definitions through Java Configuration Class (AnnotationConfigWebApplicationContext), I would do this in web.xml <servlet> <servlet-name>appServlet</servlet-name> <servlet-class>org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet</servlet-class> <init-param> <param-name>contextClass</param-name> <param-value> org.springframework.web.context.support.AnnotationConfigWebApplicationContext </param-value> </init-param> <init-param> <param-name>contextConfigLocation</param-name> <param-value> org.package.MyConfigAnnotatedClass </param-value> </init-param> </servlet> How do I use both in my application. like reading beans from both configuration xml file and annotated class. Is there a way to load spring beans in xml file while we are using AppConfigAnnotatedClass to instantiate/use rest of the beans.

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  • Running same powershell script multiple asynchronous times with separate runspace

    - by teqnomad
    Hi, I have a powershell script which is called by a batch script which is called by Trap Receiver (which also passes environment variables) (running on windows 2008). The traps are flushed out at times in sets of 2-4 trap events, and the batch script will echo the trap details for each message to a logfile, but the powershell script on the next line of the batch script will only appear to process the first trap message (the powershell script writes to the same logfile). My interpetation is that the defaultrunspace is common to all iterations of the script running and this is why the others appear to be ignored. I've tried adding "-sta" when I invoke the powershell script using "powershell.exe -command", but this didn't help. I've researched and found a method using C# but I don't know this language, and busy enough learning powershell, so hoping to find a more direct solution especially as interleaving a "wrapper" between batch and powershell will involve passing the environment variables. http://www.codeproject.com/KB/threads/AsyncPowerShell.aspx I've hunted through stackoverflow, and again the only question of similar vein was using C#. Any suggestions welcome. Some script background: The powershell script is actually a modification of a great script found at gregorystrike website - cant post the link as I'm limited to one link but its the one for Lefthand arrays. Lots of mods so it can do multiple targets from one .ini file, taking in the environment variables, and options to run portions of the script interactively with winform. But you can see the gist of the original script. The batch script is pretty basic. The keys things are I'm trying to filter out trap noise using the :~ operator, and I tried -sta option to see if this would compartmentalise the powershell script. set debug=off set CMD_LINE_ARGS="%*" set LHIPAddress="%2" set VARBIND8="%8" shift shift shift shift shift shift shift set CHASSIS="%9" echo %DATE% %TIME% "Trap Received: %LHIPAddress% %CHASSIS% %VARBIND8%" >> C:\Logs\trap_out.txt set ACTION="%VARBIND8:~39,18%" echo %DATE% %TIME% "Action substring is %ACTION%" 2>&1 >> C:\Logs\trap_out.txt if %ACTION%=="Remote Copy Volume" ( echo Prepostlefthand_env_v2.9 >> C:\Logs\trap_out.txt c:\Windows\System32\WindowsPowerShell\v1.0\PowerShell.exe -sta -executionpolicy unrestricted -command " & 'C:\Scripts\prepostlefthand_env_v2.9.ps1' Backupsettings.ini ALL" 2>&1 >> C:\Logs\trap_out.txt ) ELSE ( echo %DATE% %TIME% Action substring is %ACTION% so exiting" 2>&1 >> C:\Logs\trap.out.txt ) exit

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  • Why does a conditional not affect query speed?

    - by Telos
    I have a stored procedure that was taking a "long" period of time to execute. The query only needs to return data in one case, so I figured I could check for that case and just return before hitting the actual query. The only problem is that it still takes the same amount of time to execute with an if statement. I have verified that the code inside the if is not executing, and that if I replace the complex query with a simple select the speed is fine... so now I'm confused. Why is the query being slowed down by code that doesn't get executed when the conditional is false? Here's the query itself: ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[pr_cbc_GetCokeInfo] @pa_record int, @pb_record int AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; declare @ticketRec int SELECT @ticketRec = TicketRecord FROM eservice_live..v_sdticket where TicketRecord=@pa_record AND serviceCompanyID = 1139 AND @pb_record IS NULL if @ticketRec IS NULL return select record = null, doc_ref = @pa_record, memo_type = 'I', memo = 'Bottler: ' + isnull(Bottler, '') + ' ' + 'Sales Loc: ' + isnull(SalesLocation, '') + ' ' + 'Outlet Desc: ' + isnull(OutletDesc, '') + ' ' + 'City: ' + isnull(OutletCity, '') + ' ' + 'EquipNo: ' + isnull(EquipNo, '') + ' ' + 'SerialNo: ' + isnull(SerialNo, '') + ' ' + 'PhaseNo: ' + isnull(cast(PhaseNo as varchar(255)), '') + ' ' + 'StaticIP: ' + isnull(StaticIP, '') + ' ' + 'Air Card: ' + isnull(AirCard, '') FROM eservice_live..v_SDExtendedInfoField ef JOIN eservice_live..CokeSNList csl ON ef.valueText=csl.SerialNo where ef.docType='CLH' AND ef.docref = @ticketRec AND ef.ExtendedDocNumber=5 SET NOCOUNT OFF; END

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  • Android - Dealing with a Dialog on Screen Orientation change

    - by Donal Rafferty
    I am overriding the onCreateDialog and onPrepareDialog methods or the Dialog class. I have followed the example from Reto Meier's Professional Android Application Development book, Chapter 5 to pull some XML data and then use a dialog to display the info. I have basically followed it exactly but changed the variables to suit my own XML schema as follows: @Override public Dialog onCreateDialog(int id) { switch(id) { case (SETTINGS_DIALOG) : LayoutInflater li = LayoutInflater.from(this); View settingsDetailsView = li.inflate(R.layout.details, null); AlertDialog.Builder settingsDialog = new AlertDialog.Builder(this); settingsDialog.setTitle("Provisioned Settings"); settingsDialog.setView(settingsDetailsView); return settingsDialog.create(); } return null; } @Override public void onPrepareDialog(int id, Dialog dialog) { switch(id) { case (SETTINGS_DIALOG) : String afpunText = " "; if(setting.getAddForPublicUserNames() == 1){ afpunText = "Yes"; } else{ afpunText = "No"; } String Text = "Login Settings: " + "\n" + "Password: " + setting.getPassword() + "\n" + "Server: " + setting.getServerAddress() + "\n"; AlertDialog settingsDialog = (AlertDialog)dialog; settingsDialog.setTitle(setting.getUserName()); tv = (TextView)settingsDialog.findViewById(R.id.detailsTextView); if (tv != null) tv.setText(Text); break; } } It works fine until I try changing the screen orientation, When I do this onPrepareDialog gets call but I get null pointer exceptions on all my variables. The error still occurs even when I tell my activity to ignore screen orientation in the manifest. So I presume something has been left out of the example in the book do I need to override another method to save my variables in or something?

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  • Can't start the portable version of NetBeans 6.9.1 IDE

    - by Coder
    I downloaded the portable version of netbeans netbeans-6.9.1-201007282301-ml.zip from the netbeans site and changed the config file in etc/netbeans.conf as indicated on the netbeans site. The file contents are below. # ${HOME} will be replaced by JVM user.home system property #netbeans_default_userdir="${HOME}/.netbeans/6.9" netbeans_default_userdir=".netbeans/6.9" # Options used by NetBeans launcher by default, can be overridden by explicit # command line switches: netbeans_default_options="-J-client -J-Xss2m -J-Xms32m -J-XX:PermSize=32m -J-XX:MaxPermSize=200m -J-Dapple.laf.useScreenMenuBar=true -J-Dapple.awt.graphics.UseQuartz=true -J-Dsun.java2d.noddraw=true" # Note that a default -Xmx is selected for you automatically. # You can find this value in var/log/messages.log file in your userdir. # The automatically selected value can be overridden by specifying -J-Xmx here # or on the command line. # If you specify the heap size (-Xmx) explicitely, you may also want to enable # Concurrent Mark & Sweep garbage collector. In such case add the following # options to the netbeans_default_options: # -J-XX:+UseConcMarkSweepGC -J-XX:+CMSClassUnloadingEnabled -J-XX:+CMSPermGenSweepingEnabled # (see http://wiki.netbeans.org/wiki/view/FaqGCPauses) # Default location of JDK, can be overridden by using --jdkhome <dir>: #netbeans_jdkhome="/path/to/jdk" netbeans_jdkhome="C:\Program Files\Java\jdk1.6.0_24\" # Additional module clusters, using ${path.separator} (';' on Windows or ':' on Unix): #netbeans_extraclusters="/absolute/path/to/cluster1:/absolute/path/to/cluster2" # If you have some problems with detect of proxy settings, you may want to enable # detect the proxy settings provided by JDK5 or higher. # In such case add -J-Djava.net.useSystemProxies=true to the netbeans_default_options. But it refuses to start when i try to run it. If i change the JDK path to something incorrect it complains that it can't find the jdk so i think the jdk path is correct. It also creates a .netbeans directory when i try to start it. I don't see any errors and it just doesn't do anything else observable. Does anybody know how to set up this version of netbeans? Thanks.

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  • [Apache Camel] Generating multiple files based on DB query in a nice way

    - by chantingwolf
    Dear all, I have a following question. I have to generate many files based on sql query. Let's say for example, I have get from database a list of orders made today and genarate file for each order and later store each file on ftp. Ideally I would like to get follewing. Not quite sure how to get it. from(MyBean).to(Ftp) The problem and main question is how to generate multiple messages by custom bean (for example). I am not sure if splitter EIP is ok in this case because in my case I have not just one message to split, but I just have to generate and send many messages. http://camel.apache.org/splitter.html I hope, someone meet this problem before. If the task will be to generate just one file - everything is quite simple - you need just fill Exchange.OutMessage (or something like this). But what about multiple files - I really can't get, how to manage this situation. P.S. Sorry if this question is stupid. I am novice in Camel (working with it just for coupe weeks). It's a great tool. Actually, that's why I want to use in in the best way. Thanks a lot.

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  • Why does my IMultiBindingConverter get an array of strings when used to set TextBox.Text?

    - by mcohen75
    Hi- I'm trying to use a MultiBinding with a converter where the child elements also have a converter. The XAML looks like so: <TextBlock> <TextBlock.Text> <MultiBinding Converter="{StaticResource localizedMessageConverter}" ConverterParameter="{x:Static res:Resources.RecordsFound}" > <Binding Converter="{StaticResource localizedMessageParameterConverter}" ConverterParameter="ALIAS" Path="Alias" Mode="OneWay" /> <Binding Converter="{StaticResource localizedMessageParameterConverter}" ConverterParameter="COUNT" Path="Count" Mode="OneWay" /> </MultiBinding> </TextBlock.Text> The problem I'm facing here is, whenever this is used with a TextBlock to specify the Text property, my IMultiValueConverter implementation gets an object collection of strings instead of the class returned by the IValueConverter. It seems that the ToString() method is called on the result of the inner converter and passed to the IMultiValueConverter. If used to specify the Content property of Label, all is well. It seems to me that the framework is assuming that the return type will be string, but why? I can see this for the MultiBinding since it should yield a result that is compatible with TextBlock.Text, but why would this also be the case for the Bindings inside a MultiBinding? If I remove the converter from the inner Binding elements, the native types are returned. In my case string and int.

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  • How to properly logout of facebook

    - by Gublooo
    hey guys This is a repeated question and I have followed both the suggestions provided in these links: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1386557/how-to-log-out-users-using-facebook-connect-in-php-and-zend/1386749#1386749 http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1546277/trouble-logging-out-of-a-facebook-connect-site-and-destroying-sessions The issue is - the code works 90% of the time. Thats the weird part. Out of the 100 times I've logged in and out - I've experienced this problem 5-6 times and 2 of my beta test users have reported the same issue. So when it works- if u click the logout link - u get the facebook popup saying - you being logged out - when it does'nt work - absolutely nothing happens - the page does not refresh - it just sits on that page doing nothing. This is the javascript code that gets called on clicking logout function logout() { FB.Connect.get_status().waitUntilReady(function(status) { switch(status) { case FB.ConnectState.connected: FB.Connect.logoutAndRedirect("http://www.example.com/login/logout"); break; case FB.ConnectState.userNotLoggedIn: window.location = "http://www.example.com/login/logout"; break; } }); return false; } This is the php code: $this-_auth-clearIdentity(); $face = Zend_Registry::get('facebook'); $fb = new Facebook($face['appapikey'], $face['appsecret']); //$fb-clear_cookie_state(); $fb-expire_session(); Anyone experienced such sporadic issues. Thanks

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  • xCode: iPhone Swipe Gesture crash

    - by David DelMonte
    I have an app that I'd like the swipe gesture to flip to a second view. The app is all set up with buttons that work. The swipe gesture though causes a crash ( “EXC_BAD_ACCESS”.). The gesture code is: - (void)handleSwipe:(UISwipeGestureRecognizer *)recognizer { NSLog(@"%s", __FUNCTION__); switch (recognizer.direction) { case (UISwipeGestureRecognizerDirectionRight): [self performSelector:@selector(flipper:)]; break; case (UISwipeGestureRecognizerDirectionLeft): [self performSelector:@selector(flipper:)]; break; default: break; } } and "flipper" looks like this: - (IBAction)flipper:(id)sender { FlashCardsAppDelegate *mainDelegate = (FlashCardsAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; [mainDelegate flipToFront]; } flipToBack (and flipToFront) look like this.. - (void)flipToBack { NSLog(@"%s", __FUNCTION__); BackViewController *theBackView = [[BackViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"BackView" bundle:nil]; [self setBackViewController:theBackView]; [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:1.0]; [UIView setAnimationTransition:UIViewAnimationTransitionFlipFromLeft forView:window cache:YES]; [frontViewController.view removeFromSuperview]; [self.window addSubview:[backViewController view]]; [UIView commitAnimations]; [frontViewController release]; frontViewController = nil; [theBackView release]; // NSLog (@" FINISHED "); } Maybe I'm going about this the wrong way... All ideas are welcome...

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  • UICollectionView with one static cell and N dynamic ones from a fetchresultscontroller exception

    - by nflacco
    I'm trying to make a UITableView that shows a blog post and comments for that post. My setup is a tableview in storyboard with two dynamic prototype cells. The first cell is for the post and should never change. The second cell represents the 0 to N comments. My cellForRowAtIndexPath method shows the post cell properly, but fails to get the comment at the given index path (though if I comment out the fetch I get the appropriate number of comment cells with a green background that I set as a visual debug thing). let comment = fetchedResultController.objectAtIndexPath(indexPath) as Comment I get the following exception on this line: 2014-08-24 15:06:40.712 MessagePosting[21767:3266409] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSRangeException', reason: '*** -[__NSArrayM objectAtIndex:]: index 1 beyond bounds [0 .. 0]' *** First throw call stack: ( 0 CoreFoundation 0x0000000101aa43e5 __exceptionPreprocess + 165 1 libobjc.A.dylib 0x00000001037f9967 objc_exception_throw + 45 2 CoreFoundation 0x000000010198f4c3 -[__NSArrayM objectAtIndex:] + 227 3 CoreData 0x00000001016e4792 -[NSFetchedResultsController objectAtIndexPath:] + 162 Section and cell setup: override func tableView(tableView: UITableView!, numberOfRowsInSection section: Int) -> Int { // #warning Incomplete method implementation. // Return the number of rows in the section. switch section { case 0: return 1 default: if let realPost:Post = post { return fetchedResultController.sections[0].numberOfObjects } else { return 0 } } } override func tableView(tableView: UITableView!, cellForRowAtIndexPath indexPath: NSIndexPath!) -> UITableViewCell! { switch indexPath.section { case 0: let cell = tableView.dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier(postViewCellIdentifier, forIndexPath: indexPath) as UITableViewCell cell.backgroundColor = lightGrey if let realPost:Post = self.post { cell.textLabel.text = realPost.text } return cell default: let cell = tableView.dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier(commentCellIdentifier, forIndexPath: indexPath) as UITableViewCell cell.backgroundColor = UIColor.greenColor() let comment = fetchedResultController.objectAtIndexPath(indexPath) as Comment // <---------------------------- :( cell.textLabel.text = comment.text return cell } } FRC: func controllerDidChangeContent(controller: NSFetchedResultsController!) { tableView.reloadData() } func getFetchedResultController() -> NSFetchedResultsController { fetchedResultController = NSFetchedResultsController(fetchRequest: taskFetchRequest(), managedObjectContext: managedObjectContext, sectionNameKeyPath: nil, cacheName: nil) return fetchedResultController } func taskFetchRequest() -> NSFetchRequest { if let realPost:Post = self.post { let fetchRequest = NSFetchRequest(entityName: "Comment") let sortDescriptor = NSSortDescriptor(key: "date", ascending: false) fetchRequest.predicate = NSPredicate(format: "post = %@", realPost) fetchRequest.sortDescriptors = [sortDescriptor] return fetchRequest } else { return NSFetchRequest(entityName: "") } }

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  • Changing CSS Rules using JavaScript or jQuery

    - by Praveen Kumar
    Initial Research I am aware of using .css() to get and set the CSS rules of a particular element. I have seen a website with this CSS: body, table td, select { font-family: Arial Unicode MS, Arial, sans-serif; font-size: small; } I never liked Arial Unicode as a font. Well, that was my personal feel. So, I would use Chrome's Style Inspector to edit the Arial Unicode MS to Segoe UI or something which I like. Is there anyway, other than using the following to achieve the same? Case I $("body, table td, select").css("font-family", "Segoe UI"); Recursive, performance intensive. Doesn't work when things are loaded on the fly. Case II $('<style>body, table td, select {font-famnily: "Segoe UI";}</style>') .appendTo("head"); Any other better method than this? Creates a lot of <style> tags!

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  • Multiple Table Inheritance vs. Single Table Inheritance in Ruby on Rails

    - by Tony
    I have been struggling for the past few hours thinking about which route I should go. I have a Notification model. Up until now I have used a notification_type column to manage the types but I think it will be better to create separate classes for the types of notifications as they behave differently. Right now, there are 3 ways notifications can get sent out: SMS, Twitter, Email Each notification would have: id subject message valediction sent_people_count deliver_by geotarget event_id list_id processed_at deleted_at created_at updated_at Seems like STI is a good candidate right? Of course Twitter/SMS won't have a subject and Twitter won't have a sent_people_count, valediction. I would say in this case they share most of their fields. However what if I add a "reply_to" field for twitter and a boolean for DM? My point here is that right now STI makes sense but is this a case where I may be kicking myself in the future for not just starting with MTI? To further complicate things, I want a Newsletter model which is sort of a notification but the difference is that it won't use event_id or deliver_by. I could see all subclasses of notification using about 2/3 of the notification base class fields. Is STI a no-brainer, or should I use MTI? Thanks!

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  • what exactly is the danger of an uninitialized pointer in C

    - by akh2103
    I am trying get a handle on C as I work my way thru Jim Trevor's "Cyclone: A safe dialect of C" for a PL class. Trevor and his co-authors are trying to make a safe version of C, so they eliminate uninitialized pointers in their language. Googling around a bit on uninitialized pointers, it seems like un-initialized pointers point to random locations in memory. It seems like this alone makes them unsafe. If you reference an un-itilialized pointer, you jump to an unsafe part of memory. Period. But the way Trevor talks about them seems to imply that it is more complex. He cites the following code, and explains that when the function FrmGetObjectIndex dereferences f, it isn’t accessing a valid pointer, but rather an unpredictable address — whatever was on the stack when the space for f was allocated. What does Trevor mean by "whatever was on the stack when the space for f was allocated"? Are "un-initialized" pointers initialized to random locations in memory by default? Or does their "random" behavior have to do with the memory allocated for these pointers getting filled with strange values (that are then referenced) because of unexpected behavior on the stack. Form *f; switch (event->eType) { case frmOpenEvent: f = FrmGetActiveForm(); ... case ctlSelectEvent: i = FrmGetObjectIndex(f, field); ... }

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  • how to show news without marquee tag

    - by shamim
    Without use of marquee tag I want to show news like below code.I want to use JavaScript instead of marquee tag. How to use JavaScript to do this? <marquee style="width: 292px; border-bottom: 1px solid rgb(221, 221, 221);" align="top" behavior="scroll" direction="up" onmouseout="this.start();" onmouseover="this.stop();" scrollamount="1" scrolldelay="25" truespeed="" id="mSpeed" bgcolor="#f1f2ec" height="500"> <div style="padding: 5px; height: 153px;" class="workshopDesc bottomHorzLine "> <div class="workshopTitle" align="left">Financial Management Training</div> <div class="workshopDate"><font color="#ff0000" size="1"><strong>Date: Friday, May 28, 2010</strong></font></div> <div class="workshopRPName"><strong>Resource Person: Saif Rahman<br>Independent Consultant in Business Case Development and Financial Management</strong></div> <div class="workshopDesc">Mr. Saif Rahman is an Independent Consultant in Business Case Development and Financial Management with rich experience of corporate sectors of both North America and South-East Asia.... <div style="float: right; width: 150px;" align="right"><img src="images/icons_more.gif" align="absmiddle" width="12" height="12" hspace="5"><a href="http://BdjobsTraining.com/workshop_formate.asp?TID=518" class="workshopLink" target="_blank">Click here for detail</a></div> </div> </div> </marquee>

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  • Copying a directory that is version controlled

    - by ibz
    I am curious whether it is OK to copy a directory that is under version control and start working on both copies. I know it can be different from one VCS to another, but I intentionally don't specify any VCS since I am curious about different cases. I was talking to a coworker recently about doing it in SVN. I think it should be OK, but I am still not 100% sure, since I don't know what exactly SVN is storing in the working copy. However, if we talk about the DVCS world, things might be even more unclear, since every working copy is a repository by itself. Being faced with doing this in bzr now, I decided to ask the question. Later edit: Some people asked why I would want to do that. Here is the whole story: In the case of SVN it was because being out of the office, the connection to the SVN server was really slow, so me and my coworker decided to check out the sources only once and make a local copy. That's what we did and it worked OK, but I am still wondering whether it is guaranteed to work, or it just happened. In the bzr case, I am planning to move the "main" repo to another server. So I was thinking to just copy it there and start considering that the main repo. I guess the safest is to make a clone though.

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  • Test multiple domains using ASP.NET development server

    - by Pete Lunenfeld
    I am developing a single web application that will dynamically change its content depending on which domain name is used to reach the site. Multiple domains will point to the same application. I wish to use the following code (or something close) to detect the domain name and perform the customizations: string theDomainName = Request.Url.Host; switch (theDomainName) { case "www.clientone.com": // do stuff break; case "www.clienttwo.com": // do other stuff break; } I would like to test the functionality of the above using the ASP.NET development server. I created mappings in the local HOSTS file to map www.clientone.com to 127.0.0.1, and www.clienttwo.com to 127.0.0.1. I then browse to the application with the browser using www.clinetone.com (etc). When I try to test this code using the ASP.net development server the URL always says localhost. It does NOT capture the host entered in the browser, only localhost. Is there a way to test the URL detection functionality using the development server? Thanks.

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  • How do I process the configure file when cross-compiling with mingw?

    - by vy32
    I have a small open source program that builds with an autoconf configure script. I ran configure I tried to compile with: make CC="/opt/local/bin/i386-mingw32-g++" That didn't work because the configure script found include files that were not available to the mingw system. So then I tried: ./configure CC="/opt/local/bin/i386-mingw32-g++" But that didn't work; the configure script gives me this error: ./configure: line 5209: syntax error near unexpected token `newline' ./configure: line 5209: ` *_cv_*' Because of this code: # The following way of writing the cache mishandles newlines in values, # but we know of no workaround that is simple, portable, and efficient. # So, we kill variables containing newlines. # Ultrix sh set writes to stderr and can't be redirected directly, # and sets the high bit in the cache file unless we assign to the vars. ( for ac_var in `(set) 2>&1 | sed -n 's/^\(a-zA-Z_a-zA-Z0-9_*\)=.*/\1/p'`; do eval ac_val=\$$ac_var case $ac_val in #( *${as_nl}*) case $ac_var in #( *_cv_* fi Which is generated then the AC_OUTPUT is called. Any thoughts? Is there a correct way to do this?

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  • Getting a connection from a Sybase datasource in WAS 6.1 fails with message "User name property miss

    - by Abel Morelos
    I have a standalone application that needs to connect to a Sybase database via a datasource, I'm trying to connect using getConnection() and get the connection from this Sybase datasource which is hosted in WAS 6.1, sadly I'm getting an error JZ004 - Sybase(R) jConnect for JDBC(TM) Programmer's Reference: SQL Exception and Warning Messages JZ004 error message is: User name property missing in DriverManager.getConnection(..., Properties) Action: Provide the required user property. As you can see, this is not a connectivity (so we can discard JNDI or lookup problems), but rather a configuration problem. For my Sybase datasource in WAS 6.1 I have set up the proper authentication alias (Component-managed Authentication Alias), and I know the credentials are alright, "Test Connection" is successful for this datasource. Somebody had a similar problem and was because of the authentication alias- http://forum.springsource.org/showthread.php?t=39915 Next, I tried calling getConnection() but now I provided the credentials like getConnection(user, password)... and this time it worked!!! So I suspect that somehow WAS 6.1 is not picking or taking the authentication info I set in the datasource as mentioned before. If you think that maybe getConnection(user, password) should be OK for my case, well, that's not the case since I have a requirement to keep the credentials in the server, the standalone application only needs to know the JNDI information to lookup the datasource. Please let me know if have faced a similar problem, or what would you suggest me to do. Thanks.

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  • SQL Server Index cost

    - by yellowstar
    I have read that one of the tradeoffs for adding table indexes in SQL Server is the increased cost of insert/update/delete queries to benefit the performance of select queries. I can conceptually understand what happens in the case of an insert because SQL Server has to write entries into each index matching the new rows, but update and delete are a little more murky to me because I can't quite wrap my head around what the database engine has to do. Let's take DELETE as an example and assume I have the following schema (pardon the pseudo-SQL) TABLE Foo col1 int ,col2 int ,col3 int ,col4 int PRIMARY KEY (col1,col2) INDEX IX_1 col3 INCLUDE col4 Now, if I issue the statement DELETE FROM Foo WHERE col1=12 AND col2 > 34 I understand what the engine must do to update the table (or clustered index if you prefer). The index is set up to make it easy to find the range of rows to be removed and do so. However, at this point it also needs to update IX_1 and the query that I gave it gives no obvious efficient way for the database engine to find the rows to update. Is it forced to do a full index scan at this point? Does the engine read the rows from the clustered index first and generate a smarter internal delete against the index? It might help me to wrap my head around this if I understood better what is going on under the hood, but I guess my real question is this. I have a database that is spending a significant amount of time in delete and I'm trying to figure out what I can do about it. When I display the execution plan for the deletion, it just shows an entry for "Clustered Index Delete" on table Foo which lists in the details section the other indices that need to be updated but I don't get any indication of the relative cost of these other indices. Are they all equal in this case? Is there some way that I can estimate the impact of removing one or more of these indices without having to actually try it?

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  • Delphi 6 OleServer.pas Invoke memory leak

    - by Mike Davis
    There's a bug in delphi 6 which you can find some reference online for when you import a tlb the order of the parameters in an event invocation is reversed. It is reversed once in the imported header and once in TServerEventDIspatch.Invoke. you can find more information about it here: http://cc.embarcadero.com/Item/16496 somewhat related to this issue there appears to be a memory leak in TServerEventDispatch.Invoke with a parameter of a Variant of type Var_Array (maybe others, but this is the more obvious one i could see). The invoke code copies the args into a VarArray to be passed to the event handler and then copies the VarArray back to the args after the call, relevant code pasted below: // Set our array to appropriate length SetLength(VarArray, ParamCount); // Copy over data for I := Low(VarArray) to High(VarArray) do VarArray[I] := OleVariant(TDispParams(Params).rgvarg^[I]); // Invoke Server proxy class if FServer <> nil then FServer.InvokeEvent(DispID, VarArray); // Copy data back for I := Low(VarArray) to High(VarArray) do OleVariant(TDispParams(Params).rgvarg^[I]) := VarArray[I]; // Clean array SetLength(VarArray, 0); There are some obvious work-arounds in my case: if i skip the copying back in case of a VarArray parameter it fixes the leak. to not change the functionality i thought i should copy the data in the array instead of the variant back to the params but that can get complicated since it can hold other variants and seems to me that would need to be done recursively. Since a change in OleServer will have a ripple effect i want to make sure my change here is strictly correct. can anyone shed some light on exactly why memory is being leaked here? I can't seem to look up the callstack any lower than TServerEventDIspatch.Invoke (why is that?) I imagine that in the process of copying the Variant holding the VarArray back to the param list it added a reference to the array thus not allowing it to be release as normal but that's just a rough guess and i can't track down the code to back it up. Maybe someone with a better understanding of all this could shed some light?

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