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  • Want to Receive dynamic length data from a message queue in IPC?

    - by user1089679
    Here I have to send and receive dynamic data using a SysV message queue. so in structure filed i have dynamic memory allocation char * because its size may be varies. so how can i receive this type of message at receiver side. Please let me know how can i send dynamic length of data with message queue. I am getting problem in this i posted my code below. send.c /*filename : send.c *To compile : gcc send.c -o send */ #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <errno.h> #include <string.h> #include <sys/types.h> #include <sys/ipc.h> #include <sys/msg.h> struct my_msgbuf { long mtype; char *mtext; }; int main(void) { struct my_msgbuf buf; int msqid; key_t key; static int count = 0; char temp[5]; int run = 1; if ((key = ftok("send.c", 'B')) == -1) { perror("ftok"); exit(1); } printf("send.c Key is = %d\n",key); if ((msqid = msgget(key, 0644 | IPC_CREAT)) == -1) { perror("msgget"); exit(1); } printf("Enter lines of text, ^D to quit:\n"); buf.mtype = 1; /* we don't really care in this case */ int ret = -1; while(run) { count++; buf.mtext = malloc(50); strcpy(buf.mtext,"Hi hello test message here"); snprintf(temp, sizeof (temp), "%d",count); strcat(buf.mtext,temp); int len = strlen(buf.mtext); /* ditch newline at end, if it exists */ if (buf.mtext[len-1] == '\n') buf.mtext[len-1] = '\0'; if (msgsnd(msqid, &buf, len+1, IPC_NOWAIT) == -1) /* +1 for '\0' */ perror("msgsnd"); if(count == 100) run = 0; usleep(1000000); } if (msgctl(msqid, IPC_RMID, NULL) == -1) { perror("msgctl"); exit(1); } return 0; } receive.c /* filename : receive.c * To compile : gcc receive.c -o receive */ #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <errno.h> #include <sys/types.h> #include <sys/ipc.h> #include <sys/msg.h> struct my_msgbuf { long mtype; char *mtext; }; int main(void) { struct my_msgbuf buf; int msqid; key_t key; if ((key = ftok("send.c", 'B')) == -1) { /* same key as send.c */ perror("ftok"); exit(1); } if ((msqid = msgget(key, 0644)) == -1) { /* connect to the queue */ perror("msgget"); exit(1); } printf("test: ready to receive messages, captain.\n"); for(;;) { /* receive never quits! */ buf.mtext = malloc(50); if (msgrcv(msqid, &buf, 50, 0, 0) == -1) { perror("msgrcv"); exit(1); } printf("test: \"%s\"\n", buf.mtext); } return 0; }

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  • Having problem with a crawl service in .net: Server not responding to IP ping. Is it bandwidth or ht

    - by Hamid
    Hi to all I develop web crawling service (windows service / multi-thread) . its work fine, but sometimes my server network not response. and i can't ping server IP (from internet), but can ping by other network card (local ip) that not access to internet. after i open server with remote desktop and stop crawling service. i could ping. What's my problem? Bandwidth limit or max connection limit exceed or ??? how to prevent this issue? Note: when this problem occur, i open browser for browse web site, but can't open any website!!! Could you please help me. Thanks in advanced

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  • Twisted: how-to bind a server to a specified IP address? (solved)

    - by daccle
    I want to have a twisted service (started via twistd) which listens to TCP/POST request on a specified port on a specified IP address. By now I have a twisted application which listens to port 8040 on localhost. It is running fine, but I want it to only listen to a certain IP address, say 10.0.0.78. How-to manage that? This is a snippet of my code: application = service.Application('SMS_Inbound') smsInbound = resource.Resource() smsInbound.putChild('75sms_inbound',ReceiveSMS(application)) smsInboundServer = internet.TCPServer(8001, webserver.Site(smsInbound)) smsInboundServer.setName("SMS Handling") smsInboundServer.setServiceParent(application)

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  • Adventures in MVVM &ndash; My ViewModel Base

    - by Brian Genisio's House Of Bilz
    More Adventures in MVVM First, I’d like to say: THIS IS NOT A NEW MVVM FRAMEWORK. I tend to believe that MVVM support code should be specific to the system you are building and the developers working on it.  I have yet to find an MVVM framework that does everything I want it to without doing too much.  Don’t get me wrong… there are some good frameworks out there.  I just like to pick and choose things that make sense for me.  I’d also like to add that some of these features only work in WPF.  As of Silveright 4, they don’t support binding to dynamic properties, so some of the capabilities are lost. That being said, I want to share my ViewModel base class with the world.  I have had several conversations with people about the problems I have solved using this ViewModel base.  A while back, I posted an article about some experiments with a “Rails Inspired ViewModel”.  What followed from those ideas was a ViewModel base class that I take with me and use in my projects.  It has a lot of features, all designed to reduce the friction in writing view models. I have put the code out on Codeplex under the project: ViewModelSupport. Finally, this article focuses on the ViewModel and only glosses over the View and the Model.  Without all three, you don’t have MVVM.  But this base class is for the ViewModel, so that is what I am focusing on. Features: Automatic Command Plumbing Property Change Notification Strongly Typed Property Getter/Setters Dynamic Properties Default Property values Derived Properties Automatic Method Execution Command CanExecute Change Notification Design-Time Detection What about Silverlight? Automatic Command Plumbing This feature takes the plumbing out of creating commands.  The common pattern for commands in a ViewModel is to have an Execute method as well as an optional CanExecute method.  To plumb that together, you create an ICommand Property, and set it in the constructor like so: Before public class AutomaticCommandViewModel { public AutomaticCommandViewModel() { MyCommand = new DelegateCommand(Execute_MyCommand, CanExecute_MyCommand); } public void Execute_MyCommand() { // Do something } public bool CanExecute_MyCommand() { // Are we in a state to do something? return true; } public DelegateCommand MyCommand { get; private set; } } With the base class, this plumbing is automatic and the property (MyCommand of type ICommand) is created for you.  The base class uses the convention that methods be prefixed with Execute_ and CanExecute_ in order to be plumbed into commands with the property name after the prefix.  You are left to be expressive with your behavior without the plumbing.  If you are wondering how CanExecuteChanged is raised, see the later section “Command CanExecute Change Notification”. After public class AutomaticCommandViewModel : ViewModelBase { public void Execute_MyCommand() { // Do something } public bool CanExecute_MyCommand() { // Are we in a state to do something? return true; } }   Property Change Notification One thing that always kills me when implementing ViewModels is how to make properties that notify when they change (via the INotifyPropertyChanged interface).  There have been many attempts to make this more automatic.  My base class includes one option.  There are others, but I feel like this works best for me. The common pattern (without my base class) is to create a private backing store for the variable and specify a getter that returns the private field.  The setter will set the private field and fire an event that notifies the change, only if the value has changed. Before public class PropertyHelpersViewModel : INotifyPropertyChanged { private string text; public string Text { get { return text; } set { if(text != value) { text = value; RaisePropertyChanged("Text"); } } } protected void RaisePropertyChanged(string propertyName) { var handlers = PropertyChanged; if(handlers != null) handlers(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; } This way of defining properties is error-prone and tedious.  Too much plumbing.  My base class eliminates much of that plumbing with the same functionality: After public class PropertyHelpersViewModel : ViewModelBase { public string Text { get { return Get<string>("Text"); } set { Set("Text", value);} } }   Strongly Typed Property Getters/Setters It turns out that we can do better than that.  We are using a strongly typed language where the use of “Magic Strings” is often frowned upon.  Lets make the names in the getters and setters strongly typed: A refinement public class PropertyHelpersViewModel : ViewModelBase { public string Text { get { return Get(() => Text); } set { Set(() => Text, value); } } }   Dynamic Properties In C# 4.0, we have the ability to program statically OR dynamically.  This base class lets us leverage the powerful dynamic capabilities in our ecosystem. (This is how the automatic commands are implemented, BTW)  By calling Set(“Foo”, 1), you have now created a dynamic property called Foo.  It can be bound against like any static property.  The opportunities are endless.  One great way to exploit this behavior is if you have a customizable view engine with templates that bind to properties defined by the user.  The base class just needs to create the dynamic properties at runtime from information in the model, and the custom template can bind even though the static properties do not exist. All dynamic properties still benefit from the notifiable capabilities that static properties do. For any nay-sayers out there that don’t like using the dynamic features of C#, just remember this: the act of binding the View to a ViewModel is dynamic already.  Why not exploit it?  Get over it :) Just declare the property dynamically public class DynamicPropertyViewModel : ViewModelBase { public DynamicPropertyViewModel() { Set("Foo", "Bar"); } } Then reference it normally <TextBlock Text="{Binding Foo}" />   Default Property Values The Get() method also allows for default properties to be set.  Don’t set them in the constructor.  Set them in the property and keep the related code together: public string Text { get { return Get(() => Text, "This is the default value"); } set { Set(() => Text, value);} }   Derived Properties This is something I blogged about a while back in more detail.  This feature came from the chaining of property notifications when one property affects the results of another, like this: Before public class DependantPropertiesViewModel : ViewModelBase { public double Score { get { return Get(() => Score); } set { Set(() => Score, value); RaisePropertyChanged("Percentage"); RaisePropertyChanged("Output"); } } public int Percentage { get { return (int)(100 * Score); } } public string Output { get { return "You scored " + Percentage + "%."; } } } The problem is: The setter for Score has to be responsible for notifying the world that Percentage and Output have also changed.  This, to me, is backwards.    It certainly violates the “Single Responsibility Principle.” I have been bitten in the rear more than once by problems created from code like this.  What we really want to do is invert the dependency.  Let the Percentage property declare that it changes when the Score Property changes. After public class DependantPropertiesViewModel : ViewModelBase { public double Score { get { return Get(() => Score); } set { Set(() => Score, value); } } [DependsUpon("Score")] public int Percentage { get { return (int)(100 * Score); } } [DependsUpon("Percentage")] public string Output { get { return "You scored " + Percentage + "%."; } } }   Automatic Method Execution This one is extremely similar to the previous, but it deals with method execution as opposed to property.  When you want to execute a method triggered by property changes, let the method declare the dependency instead of the other way around. Before public class DependantMethodsViewModel : ViewModelBase { public double Score { get { return Get(() => Score); } set { Set(() => Score, value); WhenScoreChanges(); } } public void WhenScoreChanges() { // Handle this case } } After public class DependantMethodsViewModel : ViewModelBase { public double Score { get { return Get(() => Score); } set { Set(() => Score, value); } } [DependsUpon("Score")] public void WhenScoreChanges() { // Handle this case } }   Command CanExecute Change Notification Back to Commands.  One of the responsibilities of commands that implement ICommand – it must fire an event declaring that CanExecute() needs to be re-evaluated.  I wanted to wait until we got past a few concepts before explaining this behavior.  You can use the same mechanism here to fire off the change.  In the CanExecute_ method, declare the property that it depends upon.  When that property changes, the command will fire a CanExecuteChanged event, telling the View to re-evaluate the state of the command.  The View will make appropriate adjustments, like disabling the button. DependsUpon works on CanExecute methods as well public class CanExecuteViewModel : ViewModelBase { public void Execute_MakeLower() { Output = Input.ToLower(); } [DependsUpon("Input")] public bool CanExecute_MakeLower() { return !string.IsNullOrWhiteSpace(Input); } public string Input { get { return Get(() => Input); } set { Set(() => Input, value);} } public string Output { get { return Get(() => Output); } set { Set(() => Output, value); } } }   Design-Time Detection If you want to add design-time data to your ViewModel, the base class has a property that lets you ask if you are in the designer.  You can then set some default values that let your designer see what things might look like in runtime. Use the IsInDesignMode property public DependantPropertiesViewModel() { if(IsInDesignMode) { Score = .5; } }   What About Silverlight? Some of the features in this base class only work in WPF.  As of version 4, Silverlight does not support binding to dynamic properties.  This, in my opinion, is a HUGE limitation.  Not only does it keep you from using many of the features in this ViewModel, it also keeps you from binding to ViewModels designed in IronRuby.  Does this mean that the base class will not work in Silverlight?  No.  Many of the features outlined in this article WILL work.  All of the property abstractions are functional, as long as you refer to them statically in the View.  This, of course, means that the automatic command hook-up doesn’t work in Silverlight.  You need to plumb it to a static property in order for the Silverlight View to bind to it.  Can I has a dynamic property in SL5?     Good to go? So, that concludes the feature explanation of my ViewModel base class.  Feel free to take it, fork it, whatever.  It is hosted on CodePlex.  When I find other useful additions, I will add them to the public repository.  I use this base class every day.  It is mature, and well tested.  If, however, you find any problems with it, please let me know!  Also, feel free to suggest patches to me via the CodePlex site.  :)

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  • Qmail Patching Makes me Nervous

    - by JM4
    We have a system running CentOS 5 with Plesk 8.6 and Qmail running. Our primary domain is hosted through Media Temple. When Plesk and Qmail are hosted on a single Dedicated Virtual server, it reads the primary server IP and domain and reports that when sending emails from the system. Our pages are written in PHP so we are using the mail() function. While our email goes out to everybody, several enterprise email domains reject our email because it shows a different originating IP (our primary server IP and domain) than the domain we list in the 'from' address. This is not modifiable. Every domain we own of course does have its own IP as well underneath our primary server IP. I have seen several places online that provide a patch, specifically - which allows Domain Binding: "DomainBindings -- For servers that host multiple domains or have multiple IP addresses assigned to them, it is sometimes useful (or important) to have qmail use a specific IP address for its outgoing mail. By default, qmail uses whatever address the OS chooses for all outbound connections. With this patch, you can specify which address to use. It uses a control file similar to smtproutes to specify the outbound IP address to use, based on the sender's domain (local copy) (pyropus.ca)" Qmail Link First off I do not have netqmail installed so I'll need to find another source, but also I am completely unfamiliar with applying patches to qmail. Will I lose email services if I patch? Is it a simple apply and use process? Will my existing email accounts and data be restored after the patch? I am very, very new to unix/linux so this does make me a bit nervous but I am the only person who can make the change and it is one our company "HAS" to have. Any ideas?

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  • Trouble with local id / remote id configuration of VPN

    - by Lynn Owens
    I have a NetGear UTM firewall and a Windows machine running NetGear's VPN client. The Windows machine I can put on the UTM network and take off of it. When I am cabled into the local (internal) the following configuration works: UTM: Local Id: Local Wan IP: (The UTM's WAN IP address) Remote Id: User FQDN: utm_remote1.com Client: Local Id: DNS: utm_remote1.com Remote Id: (The UTM's WAN IP address) Gateway authentication: preshared key Policy remote endpoint: FQDN: utm_remote1.com But when I'm off the UTM's internal local network and simply coming in from the internet, this does not work. It simply repeats SEND phase 1 before giving up. Since I know that the UTM WAN IP is accessible from both inside and outside the network, I figured the problem was with the Client local id. So, I tried the following: UTM: Local Id: Local Wan IP: (The UTM's WAN IP address) Remote Id: (A DN of a self-signed certificate I created for the client and uploaded into the UTM certificates) Client: Local Id: (The DN of the aforementioned self signed cert) Remote Id: (The UTM's WAN IP address) Gateway authentication: (the aforementioned self signed cert) Policy remote end point: ... er, ... my choices are IP and FQDN.... Not sure what to put here No matter what I've tried, it just keeps repeating the SEND phase 1. Any ideas?

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  • DHCP forwarding behind access list on a Cisco Catalyst

    - by Ásgeir Bjarnason
    I'm having some trouble with forwarding DHCP from a subnet behind an access list on a Cisco Catalyst 4500 switch. I'm hoping somebody can see the mistake I'm making. The subnet is defined like this: (first three octets of IP addresses and vrf name anonymized) interface Vlan40 ip vrf forwarding vrf_name ip address 10.10.10.126 255.255.255.0 secondary ip address 10.10.10.254 255.255.255.0 ip access-group 100 out ip helper-address 10.10.20.36 no ip redirects I tried turning on a VMWare machine on this subnet that was configured to use DHCP, but I never got a DHCP response and the DHCP server didn't receive a request. I tried putting the following in the access-list: access-list 100 permit udp host 10.10.10.254 host 10.10.20.36 eq bootps access-list 100 permit udp host 10.10.10.254 host 10.10.20.36 eq bootpc access-list 100 permit udp host 10.10.20.36 host 10.10.10.254 eq bootps access-list 100 permit udp host 10.10.20.36 host 10.10.10.254 eq bootpc That didn't help. Can anybody see what the problem is? I know that the DHCP server works; our whole network is running off of this DHCP server I also know that the subnet works because we have active servers running on the network The DHCP scope is already defined on the DHCP server The subnet is correctly defined on the VMWare server (already servers running on the subnet on VMWare) Edit 2012-10-19: This is solved! The subnet had formerly been defined as a /25 network, but was then expanded into a /24 network. When the DHCP scope was altered after this change it was done incorrectly; the gateway was moved to .254, the leasable IP range was in the lower half of the /24 subnet but we forgot to change the CIDR prefix from /25 into /24. This happened some 2 years ago, and we didn't need to use DHCP on this server network again until this week. Thank you MDMarra and Jason Seemann for looking at the question and trying to troubleshoot. Now I'm wondering if I should mark Jason's answer as the accepted answer (I am new to the Stack Exchange network, so I don't know the etiquette of what to do if I misstated the question like in this case).

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  • Problem with TL-R480T+ and static routes

    - by Globulopolis
    Hi! I've some question about this router. Before starting, some configurations, specified by my provider. Wan1 VPN IP - 192.168.172.84 Mask - 255.255.255.0 Gateway - 192.168.172.253 DNS - 195.110.6.7 Wan2 Dynamic IP DHCP - 168.120.1.34 Mask - 255.255.255.0 Router IP 192.168.1.1 Computer IP 192.168.1.7 Routes: route -p add 192.168.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0 192.168.172.253 route -p add 195.110.6.0 mask 255.255.254.0 192.168.172.253 route -p add 88.135.112.0 mask 255.255.240.0 192.168.172.253 route -p add 178.219.160.0 mask 255.255.240.0 192.168.172.253 For first provider I need to provide a routes. 'Cause router does not support different routes for different WAN interfaces I put them in "Static routes". But when I try to save them I've got an error: Destination IP address can not be set in a same subnet with the WAN or LAN IP address. If I change IP's to local like 192.168.x.x router tell me: Gateway must be set in a same subnet with WAN or LAN IP address. Changing mask on WAN1 interface to 255.255.0.0 doesn't help. Any ideas? PS! Or maybe I'm must email to TP-Link support?

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  • New router messed up server 2003 setup...

    - by Aceth
    Hey, We were sent a new 2wire router today configured it as best we can to match the old bt voyager. We've also got X static IP's. We've manage to get our webserver on one of the new IP's public facing. then we use a hardware firewall which is in a DMZ again with a different static IP. This firewall then is our gateway for our internal LAN. with a few servers etc. The problem we're having is only our PDC (primary Domain controller which has exchange 2003 on) can't ping externally even an external IP. We've connected laptops to the 2wire router and obtain a private ip 192.168.1.X and it works fine can ping etc. our other servers with an internal ip behind the firewall can ping out fine. We've connected to the firewalls logging console and the pings from the server are allowed through so its fine there. The server in question is a Windows server 2003 R2 Enterprise SP2 + Exchange 2003 Server doesn't have firewall turned on. it has static private IP .. gateway is pointing to the right one External Static IP is routing fine inwards We've ran out of ideas .. help??

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  • OpenVPN IPV6 Tunnel Radvd

    - by Arenstar
    Hello.. I have an interesting question regarding ipv6 + openvpn.. My Version is OpenVPN 2.1.1 i have been given a native /64 ipv6 network ( for this example 2001:acb:132:acb::/64 ) The plan was/is, route this block through openvpn and into an office ( for testing purposes ) Soo to explain.. I have a Centos Box as the first linux "router" in a datacenter & a Ubuntu box as the second linux "router" in the office I have created a simple point-to-point tunnel using tun ( based off ipv4 address to start the tunnel ) I have assigned to Centos /sbin/ip addr add fed1::1/128 dev eth0 /sbin/ip addr add fed2::2/128 dev tun0 /sbin/ip route add 2001:acb:132:acb::/64 dev tun0 ## ipv6 Block down the tunnel /sbin/ip route add ::/0 dev eth0 ## Default out to Gateway I have assigned to Ubuntu /sbin/ip addr add fed1::3/128 dev tun0 /sbin/ip addr add fed1::4/128 dev eth0 /sbin/ip route add 2001:acb:132:acb::/64 dev eth0 ## ipv6 Block down to eth0 /sbin/ip route add ::/0 dev tun0 ## Default up the tunnel I have also included on both servers.. sysctl -w net.inet6.ip6.forwarding=1 Looks Good... right??? Wrong.. :( I am not able to ping fed1::1 from fed1::4 (Ubuntu) (can ping :4,:3,:2) However, i can ping fed1::1 fed1::2 from :3 ?????? ( very strange ) I am able to access the internet from any ipv6 interface on the Centos Box but clearly not from the Ubuntu box.. Further, i will eventually run radvd on the Ubuntu box eth0, and autoconf the network with ipv6 address's Anyone with some advice / tips to help me out.. ??? Cheers

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  • pfSense router on a LAN with two gateways

    - by JohnCC
    I have a LAN with an ADSL modem/router on it. We have just gained an alternative high-speed internet connection at our location, and I want to connect the LAN to it, eventually dropping the ADSL. I've chosen to use a small PFSense box to connect the LAN to the new WAN connection. Two servers on the LAN run services accessible to the outside via NAT using the single ADSL WAN IP. We have DNS records which point to this IP. I want to do the same via the new connection, using the WAN IP there. That connection permits multiple IPs, so I have configured pfSense using virtual IP's, 1:1 NAT and appropriate firewall rules. When I change the servers' default gateway settings to the pfSense box, I can access the services via the new WAN IPs without a problem. However, I can no longer access them via the old WAN IP. If I set the servers' default gateway back to the ADSL router, then the opposite is true - I can access the services via the ADSL IP, but not via the new one. In the first case, I believe this is because an incoming SYN packet arrives at the ADSL WAN IP, and is NAT'd and sent to the internal IP of the server. The server responds with a SYN/ACK which it sends via its default gateway, the pfSense box. The pfSense box sees a SYN/ACK that it saw no SYN for and drops the packet. Is there any sensible way around this? I would like the services to be accessible via both IPs for a short period at least, since once I change the DNS it will take a while before everyone picks up the new address.

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  • DNS failover in a two datacenter scenario

    - by wanson
    I'm trying to implement a low-cost solution for website high availability. I'm looking for the downsides of the following scenario: I have two servers with the same configuration, content, mysql replication (dual-master). They are in different datacenters - let's call them serverA and serverB. Users use serverA - serverB is more like a backup. Now, I want to use DNS failover, to switch users from serverA to serverB when serverA goes down. My idea is that I setup DNS servers (bind/powerdns) on serverA and serverB - let's call them ns1.website.com and ns2.website.com (assuming I own website.com). Then I configure my domain to use them as its nameservers. Both DNS servers will return serverA IP as my website's IP. If serverA goes down I can (either manually or automatically from serverB) change configuration of serverB's DNS, to return IP of serverB as website's IP. Of course the TTL will be low, as it's supposed to be in DNS failovers. I know that it may take some time to switch to serverB (DNS ttl, time to detect serverA failure, serverB DNS reconfiguration etc), and that some small part of users won't use serverB anyway. And I'm OK with that. But what are other downsides of such an approach? An alternative scenario is that ns1.website.com will return serverA IP as website's IP, and ns2.website.com will return serverB IP as website's IP. But AFAIK clients not always use primary nameserver and sometimes would use secondary one. So some small part of users would use serverB instead of serverA which is not quite what I'd like. Can you confirm that DNS clients behave like that and can you tell what percentage of clients would possibly use serverB instead of serverA (statistically)? This one also has the downside that when serverA goes back up, it will be automatically used as website's primary server, which is also a bad situation (cold cache, mysql replication could fail in the meantime etc). So I'm adding it only as a theoretical alternative. I was thinking about using some professional DNS failover companies but they charge for the number of DNS requests and the fees are very high (why?)

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  • Route all wlan0 traffic over tun0

    - by Tuinslak
    I'm looking for a way to route all wlan0 traffic (tcp and udp) over tun0 (openvpn). However, all other traffic originating from the device itself should not be routed through tun0. I'm guessing this could be realized using iptables or route, but none of my options seem to work. # route add -net 0.0.0.0 gw 172.27.0.1 dev wlan0 SIOCADDRT: No such process Info: This is because the VPN server is not redundant, and wlan users are not really important. However, all services running on the device are fairly important and having a VPN virtual machine with no SLA on it is just a bad idea. Trying to minimize the odds of something going wrong. So setting the VPN server as default gateway is not really an option. I also want all wlan0 user to use the VPN server's IP address as external IP. Edit with the script provided: root@ft-genesi-xxx ~ # route -n Kernel IP routing table Destination Gateway Genmask Flags Metric Ref Use Iface 172.27.0.17 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 UH 0 0 0 tun0 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 U 0 0 0 eth0 10.13.37.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 U 0 0 0 wlan0 172.27.0.0 172.27.0.17 255.255.192.0 UG 0 0 0 tun0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 UG 0 0 0 eth0 root@ft-genesi-xxx ~ # ./test.sh RTNETLINK answers: No such process root@ft-genesi-xxx ~ # cat test.sh #!/bin/sh IP=/sbin/ip # replace with the range of your wlan network, or use fwmark instead ${IP} rule add from 10.13.37.0/24 table from-wlan ${IP} route add default dev tun0 via 127.72.0.1 table from-wlan ${IP} route add 10.13.37.0/24 dev wlan0 table from-wlan

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  • DD-WRT Acces Point as a Router

    - by Dzh
    Following suggestion to this question asked on Network Engineering, I am asking the question here. this is an extension to my previous question (I think it was deleted), where I was claiming that DDWRT was disabling it's DHCP server once connected to the network. I was wrong, as it now seems that it is bridging itself with another parallel connected wireless router. I have two Draytek 2820 and one Netgear WG602v3 with latest DDWRT. Lets call one wired-Draytek and it has wireless disabled. The other one, let's call it wireless-Draytek, is connected to wired-Draytek and has wireless with MAC filtering enabled. Once I connect Netgear to the wired-Draytek, the client that connects to Netgear, will be assigned with IP address from the wireless-Draytek. If the MAC address is not on the wireles-Draytek, the client is unable to obtain IP address and has no connectivity at all, even with manually assigned static IP configuration. To illustrate further, this is how network is set up: wired-Draytek ---------- wireless-Draytek \_________ Netgear What I wish to have, is that Netgear issues IP addresses from it's own IP pool and ignores the MAC filtering rules from wireless-Draytek. This is kind of puzzling how this they are bridging (if they are) themselves automatically. Thanks. UPDATE: It's not a home network. I gave you a bit simplified set-up. If there is a better site on Stack Exchange to ask this, please let me know. The Drayteks are running stock firmware, it's only Netgear that I've flashed to get more stability. In addition to these routers, I have also three 3COM Baseline switch 2824, and another Draytek router with Prosafe FS752TP PoE switch dedicated for VoIP phones. Wired-Draytek has IP 10.0.0.1, DHCP disabled as there is AD DC which is issuing IP addresses. Wireless-Draytek has IP 1.1.1.1 and DHCP enabled. Netgear has default - 192.168.1.1. As per suggestion, the specific question is - how do I isolate these two wireless routers?

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  • How to troubleshoot Linksys E4200 Remote Management

    - by Jordan
    My Linksys E4200 is configured for Remote Management, but the router is not accepting the connections. Here's the configuration under Administration Management Remote Management Access: Remote Management: Enabled Access via: HTTP Remote Upgrade: Disabled Allowed Remote IP Address: Any IP Address Remote Management Port: 8080 The router is setup to use 192.168.10.41 as its static Internet IP address, and 192.168.35.1 as its LAN IP address. I can access the router just fine via its LAN IP address, but I can't make a connection using http://192.168.10.41:8080. I've tried variations of the settings above (enabled HTTPS, enabled Remote Upgrade, set an IP range of 192.168.10.1-254) but nothing has worked yet. Hoping someone can at least point me in the right direction. Thanks. Update: To clarify, I have a wired router that connects straight to the T1 modem. It's configured to use 192.168.10.1-254 as its internal LAN range. The E4200 wireless router in question is on that LAN using 192.168.10.41 as its WAN IP address. The E4200's internal LAN range is 192.168.35.1-254. I'm not trying to access the E4200 from the Internet, I'm just trying to access it from its WAN IP address. Thanks.

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  • Nginx Multiple If Statements Cause Memory Usage to Jump

    - by Justin Kulesza
    We need to block a large number of requests by IP address with nginx. The requests are proxied by a CDN, and so we cannot block with the actual client IP address (it would be the IP address of the CDN, not the actual client). So, we have $http_x_forwarded_for which contains the IP which we need to block for a given request. Similarly, we cannot use IP tables, as blocking the IP address of the proxied client will have no effect. We need to use nginx to block the requested based on the value of $http_x_forwarded_for. Initially, we tried multiple, simple if statements: http://pastie.org/5110910 However, this caused our nginx memory usage to jump considerably. We went from somewhere around a 40MB resident size to over a 200MB resident size. If we changed things up, and created one large regex that matched the necessary IP addresses, memory usage was fairly normal: http://pastie.org/5110923 Keep in mind that we're trying to block many more than 3 or 4 IP addresses... more like 50 to 100, which may be included in several (20+) nginx server configuration blocks. Thoughts? Suggestions? I'm interested both in why memory usage would spike so greatly using multiple if blocks, and also if there are any better ways to achieve our goal.

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  • Domino HTTP Server: Error - Unable to Bind 1.2.3.4, port 80, port in use or Bind To Host configuration specifies a duplicate IP address/host

    - by pdewaard
    We have a Domino 9.0.1 Server hosted on Ubuntu 14.04 Server, which hosts several other http based Tasks, (Nginx, Couchdb, Confluence on Tomcat). The Ubuntu Server has multiple IPs, all bind correctly to the different Tasks. The Domino SMTP task binds correctly and is working well. All http tasks (other than Domino) are proxied behind Nginx version 1.6x and all are working well, netstat shows no 0.0.0.0 bindings, no one is listening on 1.2.3.4:80 . when I try to load http on the (Domino) server console it failes with HTTP Server: Error - Unable to Bind 1.2.3.4, port 80, port in use or Bind To Host configuration specifies a duplicate IP address/host a couple of times, may be 4 or 5 times then it loads without failure! And: when it comes up, I see http is listening on 80 AND 443, but SSL Connections are not working, nor any error log! It must be a kind of bad magic :-( thanks in advance Pitt

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  • How to set a management IP on a Dell powerconnect 5524/5548 switch?

    - by John Little
    When you first power on a 5524, connected via the serial console, you are offered a setup wizard where you can enter the management IP/Net/Gateway and enter the admin password. HOWEVER, if you dont do this in 60 seconds, the wizard dissapears, and there seems to be no way to run it again - even if you reboot the box. No commands work in the CLI, it just gives you this prompt: If you type say enable, or login, it gives: >login Unknown parameter May be one from the following list: debug help So no commands seem to work. The CLI reference guide does not seem to have any way to run the wizard, or to set the management port or admin passwords. So by not responding in 60 secons after boot, the unit is bricked. Any ideas?

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  • Cisco ASA 5510 ASDM: Setting up multiple public static ip addresses on a single interface and route

    - by ssjaken
    HI, i have a cisco ASA 5510 using ASDM version 6.3 We have a webserver that is been written very specifically and i was given super direct "DO NOT DEVIATE" directions. This server has to get traffic from 3 different PUBLIC ip's that we own. (our isp gave use a block of 12 static addresses) on 4 different ports. there are the directions i was given externalIP1:22 - 172.17.5.50:22 - SSH externalIP1:443 - 172.17.5.50:23040 - SIT externalIP2:443 - 172.17.5.50:33040 - STAGE externalIP3:443 - 172.17.5.50:43040 - PROD My first question is, using ASDM (my contract employer demands i use ASDM over CLI) how do i get three public addresses to work on one interface. We are authenticating on PPPoE. I know create a virtual interface with the static address but when i do i cannot ping the address from another offsite machine. secondly, where would i put the traffic redirect in. would i go ahead and create ACL's or just make NAT routes. Thanks.

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  • IP addresses for Windows Azure servers seem to be from the US, when the servers are supposed to be located in Europe

    - by paradroid
    I have a couple of test servers on Windows Azure. One is in the North Europe location and the other is in West Europe. I yet to get around to testing which location offers better connection speeds from where I am (London, UK). The Northern Europe Azure datacentre is apparently in Ireland and the West Europe datacentre is in the Netherlands, which is weird in itself I think. But what I am confused about are the IP addresses are both 168.63.xxx.xxx. GeoIP lookup says that they are both located in the US, and traceroute from London to the addresses get to the US before failing to respond pings. What's going on?

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  • if I put accept all 0.0.0.0/0 means this server is totally open for any ip ?

    - by davyzhang
    ACCEPT all -- 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 is this means allow all ip from all port? but I still can not visit the server except I go through the allowed ip address and if I put this line in any line, did I make this server totally open for any connection? the full iptable list is below Chain INPUT (policy ACCEPT) target prot opt source destination ACCEPT all -- 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 ACCEPT all -- 116.211.25.89 0.0.0.0/0 ACCEPT all -- 222.215.136.8 0.0.0.0/0 ACCEPT all -- 125.82.87.21 0.0.0.0/0 ACCEPT all -- 127.0.0.1 127.0.0.1 ACCEPT tcp -- 61.172.251.109 0.0.0.0/0 tcp spt:8080 ACCEPT tcp -- 61.172.254.123 0.0.0.0/0 tcp spt:8080 ACCEPT tcp -- 61.129.44.191 0.0.0.0/0 ACCEPT tcp -- 61.129.44.128 0.0.0.0/0 ACCEPT tcp -- 61.172.251.109 0.0.0.0/0 tcp spt:8080 ACCEPT tcp -- 61.172.254.123 0.0.0.0/0 tcp spt:8080 ACCEPT icmp -- 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 icmp type 0 ACCEPT icmp -- 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 icmp type 8 ACCEPT tcp -- 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 tcp spt:53 ACCEPT udp -- 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 udp spt:53 ACCEPT udp -- 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 udp spt:123 ACCEPT udp -- 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 udp dpt:123 ACCEPT tcp -- 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 tcp spt:20 ACCEPT tcp -- 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 tcp spt:21 ACCEPT tcp -- 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 tcp spt:80 ACCEPT tcp -- 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 tcp spt:88 ACCEPT tcp -- 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 tcp spt:8000 ACCEPT tcp -- 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 tcp spt:8080 ACCEPT tcp -- 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 tcp spt:8888 ACCEPT tcp -- 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 tcp spt:873 ACCEPT tcp -- 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 tcp spt:6969 ACCEPT tcp -- 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 tcp spt:6900 ACCEPT tcp -- 61.172.241.98 0.0.0.0/0 ACCEPT tcp -- 61.172.247.98 0.0.0.0/0 ACCEPT tcp -- 61.172.247.100 0.0.0.0/0 ACCEPT tcp -- 61.152.122.33 0.0.0.0/0 ACCEPT tcp -- 61.152.110.130 0.0.0.0/0 ACCEPT tcp -- 210.51.28.220 0.0.0.0/0 ACCEPT tcp -- 210.51.28.120 0.0.0.0/0 ACCEPT tcp -- 61.172.241.120 0.0.0.0/0 ACCEPT tcp -- 211.147.0.85 0.0.0.0/0 ACCEPT tcp -- 211.147.0.114 0.0.0.0/0 ACCEPT tcp -- 222.73.61.249 0.0.0.0/0 ACCEPT tcp -- 222.73.61.250 0.0.0.0/0 ACCEPT tcp -- 222.73.61.251 0.0.0.0/0 ACCEPT tcp -- 210.51.31.11 0.0.0.0/0 tcp dpt:38422 ACCEPT tcp -- 210.51.31.12 0.0.0.0/0 tcp dpt:38422 ACCEPT tcp -- 61.172.254.123 0.0.0.0/0 tcp spt:8080 ACCEPT tcp -- 61.172.251.109 0.0.0.0/0 tcp spt:8080 ACCEPT tcp -- 61.172.247.85 0.0.0.0/0 ACCEPT tcp -- 222.73.12.248 0.0.0.0/0 ACCEPT tcp -- 61.172.254.184 0.0.0.0/0 ACCEPT tcp -- 61.172.254.78 0.0.0.0/0 ACCEPT tcp -- 61.172.254.243 0.0.0.0/0 ACCEPT tcp -- 61.152.97.115 0.0.0.0/0 ACCEPT tcp -- 221.231.128.206 0.0.0.0/0 ACCEPT tcp -- 221.231.130.199 0.0.0.0/0 ACCEPT udp -- 172.0.0.0/8 0.0.0.0/0 udp dpt:161 ACCEPT udp -- 10.0.0.0/8 0.0.0.0/0 udp dpt:161 ACCEPT udp -- 192.168.0.0/16 0.0.0.0/0 udp dpt:161 ACCEPT udp -- 61.172.252.58 0.0.0.0/0 udp dpt:161 ACCEPT udp -- 61.183.13.201 0.0.0.0/0 udp dpt:161 ACCEPT udp -- 222.73.2.11 0.0.0.0/0 udp dpt:161 ACCEPT udp -- 221.208.157.158 0.0.0.0/0 udp dpt:161 ACCEPT udp -- 218.30.74.250 0.0.0.0/0 udp dpt:161 ACCEPT udp -- 202.102.54.234 0.0.0.0/0 udp dpt:161 ACCEPT udp -- 125.64.2.115 0.0.0.0/0 udp dpt:161 ACCEPT udp -- 222.73.23.23 0.0.0.0/0 udp dpt:161 ACCEPT udp -- 210.51.33.97 0.0.0.0/0 udp dpt:161 ACCEPT udp -- 210.51.33.98 0.0.0.0/0 udp dpt:161 ACCEPT udp -- 222.73.11.112 0.0.0.0/0 udp dpt:161 ACCEPT udp -- 222.73.11.111 0.0.0.0/0 udp dpt:161 ACCEPT udp -- 222.73.11.89 0.0.0.0/0 udp spt:38514 DROP tcp -- 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 tcp dpt:38423 REJECT tcp -- 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 reject-with tcp-reset DROP all -- 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 Chain FORWARD (policy ACCEPT) target prot opt source destination DROP all -- 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 Chain OUTPUT (policy ACCEPT) target prot opt source destination ACCEPT udp -- 0.0.0.0/0 222.73.11.89 udp dpt:38514

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  • How to add authentication to ssh dynamic port forwarding?

    - by Aalex Gabi
    I am using ssh as a SOCKS server by running this command on the server: ssh -f2qTnND *:1080 root@localhost There is one problem: anybody can connect to the server and use it's internet connection. Options: To use iptables to filter access to the server, but I connect to the server from various non-statically allocated IP addresses so I would have to edit very frequently those filters which can be annoying. To install a SOCKS server on the remote. Ultimately this is the last option if there is no other simpler way to do it. (I am very lazy) Launching the same command on clients machines. The problem here is that some clients don't run on Linux and it is awkward to set up the tunnel (Windows + Putty). Is there a way to add authentication to a SOCKS server made using ssh? Bonus question: How to add encryption between the client and the server (made using ssh)?

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