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• Internet in the router but not in the local network.

  - by TheMouse

  I have a PC and a laptop (Windows 7 - both) which should connect through router to Internet. The router is Linksys wrt120. My ISP is using PPPoE. I have connected the Internet cable to the router, clone the MAC of my PC, writing the username and the password for my Internet connection. After seconds the router has acquired IP from my ISP. I have used the administration panel of Linksys and with the help of the ping and tracert commands which are built into it - I can connect to the world, outside the network. The problem is when I try to connect the PC or the laptop to the network. There's no problem here. The DHCP server of the router gives them appropriate addresses. The problem is that they couldn't connect to either Internet addresses (google.com) or IP addresses. But they can connect to the router and its control panel. I tried several times, reset the router..but there's no Internet..still.

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• Routing public IPs (each a /32) through a VPN to another server

  - by Lee S

  Hopefully the title makes sense; I have a server currently in a colo facility, with many IP addresses routed to it. They are individual IPs and not in a contiguous block. Due to vastly improved connectivity (fibre) at home I am slowly bringing my infrastructure in-house for managability and eventually, cost savings. What I would like to do though is use the IP addresses allocated to my existing server, at home. I have an IP block allocated to me on my new ISP connection, but for a couple of reasons I'd like to make use of the colo ones for now: Ease of transition - lots of domains, dns, hard-coded IPs in programs, etc. Connectivity fallback. If my primary line goes down and switches to fallback 1 (dsl) or fallback 2 (4G), I lose access to the ISP-allocated IP block of IPs that are only presented on the primary WAN interface. What I'd like to achieve is my home virtualisation server (Proxmox/Debian-based) "dials in" to the colo server in the colo facility (also Proxmox/Debian) via VPN or similar, and gets to make use of the IP addresses that currently terminate on the colo box. If the primary connection to my ISP goes down and one of the fallback routes kicks in, the VPN tunnel will just time out and then be re-established on the backup connection instead. I'm sure this is doable, but I have no idea how. I'm not afraid to get my hands dirty, I just don't really know where to start?

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• Is there a limit to how many sites can be hosted on a single IP address when using HTTP Host Headers on Windows 2008?

  - by Kev

  For reasons that are lost in the mists of time, our older Windows (2000, 2003) servers have been configured with a "Administrative" IP address and three further "Hosting" IP addresses. There are also additional IP's for sites with SSL certificates. The "Administrative" IP address is where all our internal provisioning, monitoring and other such apps are bound to. We lock this down and don't permit access to it from the outside world (other than over our VPN). The three "Hosting" IP addresses are used for IIS website hosting (in conjunction with host headers). Historically, new site IP address allocations have been rotated through these three IP addresses. I'm not really sure why. I'm building a new batch of servers and I'm considering just having a single hosting IP address. Our servers can host up to 1200 sites on a single machine. Is there a technical limit to the number of IIS sites that can bind to a single IP address? Our Linux platform seems to do just fine with just a single shared IP + host headers. I initially thought this might be an SEO thing, but given that IPv4 address space conservation is paramount I hardly think Google or other search engines could reasonably penalise site rankings just because hundreds of sites hang off the same IP.

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• few basic questions on webhosting (namservers & dns records)

  - by claws

  I bought a domain name on name.com & I want to use free webhosting on 110mb.com By default name.com integrates services of Google apps. Name server entries are ns1.name.com ns2.name.com ns3.name.com ns4.name.com When I registered on 110mb.com it gave me two addresses ns1.110mb.com ns2.110mb.com This is where I'm lost. The concept is that "Domain name should point to an address of the server where the website is hosted" right? Then why are these 4 entires by default. How exactly is it working? should I remove these 4 and then add 110mb.com servers or just append 110mb.com server addresses to name.com ones. I would like to use google apps. If I change these name server addresses would that remove google apps? I especially want to use email service of google. And I really don't understand what is CNAME, MX, or something something. I want to learn about these stuff & how it exactly works. When I search for webhost tutorial. I'm unable to find any fruitful results.

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• Proxmox: VMs and different public IPs

  - by Raj

  I have a server which has two NICs and both are directly connected to internet. I have five different public IP addresses available for the VMs. The host machine (Proxmox) doesn't need to use any (it'll use a private IP and that's all) but will have internet connection. I've gone through the Proxmox documentation and I'm not able to understand the big picture to set up the right network configuration for my needs. In short, what I have is: One server (Proxmox, host machine) On that server, 5 VMs are created 5 public IP addresses available (one for each VM), let's say: 80.123.21.1, 80.123.21.2, 80.123.21.3, 80.123.21.4, 80.123.21.5 What I have now for the host is the following: auto lo iface lo inet loopback auto eth0 iface eth0 inet manual auto eth1 iface eth1 inet manual auto vmbr0 iface vmbr0 inet static address 192.168.1.101 netmask 255.255.255.0 bridge_ports eth0 bridge_stp off bridge_fd 0 auto vmbr1 iface vmbr1 inet manual It can be reached from the internal network, so that's OK. It has internet connection, which is also OK. vmbr1 is going to be used by the VMs. Each VM will have its own IP on his network interfaces configuration file. For some reason, VMs will not have internet and they won't be able to have public IP address. If I use NAT, it will work correctly, but they will not use the public allocated IP addresses for them. Am I missing something?

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• Assigning IPs to OpenVZ containers

  - by Vojtech

  I have recently bought myself a physical server and I am trying to create containers which would have their IPs. The physical machine has both IPv4 and IPv6 addresses. I have accessible another IPv4 and some other IPv6 addresses which I would like to assign to the container. I managed to assign the addresses as follows: # vzctl set 101 --ipadd 144.76.195.252 --save I can ping to the machine from the physical machine, but not from the outside world. This also applies to the IPv6 I assigned as well. This is ifconfig of the physical machine: eth0 Link encap:Ethernet HWaddr d4:3d:7e:ec:e0:04 inet addr:144.76.195.232 Bcast:144.76.195.255 Mask:255.255.255.224 inet6 addr: 2a01:4f8:200:71e7::2/64 Scope:Global inet6 addr: fe80::d63d:7eff:feec:e004/64 Scope:Link UP BROADCAST RUNNING MULTICAST MTU:1500 Metric:1 RX packets:217895 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:16779 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:1000 RX bytes:322481419 (307.5 MiB) TX bytes:1672628 (1.5 MiB) venet0 Link encap:UNSPEC HWaddr 00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00 inet6 addr: fe80::1/128 Scope:Link UP BROADCAST POINTOPOINT RUNNING NOARP MTU:1500 Metric:1 RX packets:12 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:12 errors:0 dropped:3 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:0 RX bytes:1108 (1.0 KiB) TX bytes:1108 (1.0 KiB) This is ifconfig of the OpenVZ container: # ifconfig venet0 Link encap:UNSPEC HWaddr 00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00 inet addr:127.0.0.2 P-t-P:127.0.0.2 Bcast:0.0.0.0 Mask:255.255.255.255 inet6 addr: 2a01:4f8:200:71e7::3/64 Scope:Global UP BROADCAST POINTOPOINT RUNNING NOARP MTU:1500 Metric:1 RX packets:12 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:12 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:0 RX bytes:1108 (1.0 KiB) TX bytes:1108 (1.0 KiB) venet0:0 Link encap:UNSPEC HWaddr 00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00 inet addr:144.76.195.252 P-t-P:144.76.195.252 Bcast:144.76.195.252 Mask:255.255.255.255 UP BROADCAST POINTOPOINT RUNNING NOARP MTU:1500 Metric:1 What do I need to do to have the container accessible from the outside world? What could I have forgotten? Thanks.

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• Basic connectivity issues between Win 7 and XP mixed wired/wireless network.

  - by Pulse

  Setup: Windows 7 x64 Ultimate desktop hard wired to Asus WL500gp router (WL500gpv2-1.9.2.7-d-r1445 firmware) Several Bridged VirtualBox VM's running XP, 7, ubuntu server 10.04, Mint 9 and SuSE 11.2 Win XP Pro SP3 notebook with D-Link Airplus wireless network card. No firewall or other security software currently running on either platform (at least for the duration of the test) Situation: Router is acting DHCP server Clients are receiving correct addresses and additional parameters Internet connectivity is available from all clients Windows 7 sharing is set to Network type = work (not home group) NetBT is disabled on all clients using smb over TCP What I can do: I can ping the router and internet addresses from the wireless XP notebook I can ping the Win 7 desktop and any VM from the XP wireless notebook I can ping all devices from the router All VM's and 7 can ping each other and the router as well as Internet addresses What I can't do: I cannot ping the XP wireless notebook from either The Win 7 desktop or the VM's it alwats returns a destination host unreachable. Tracert resolves the name or the XP notebook but also returns a destination host unreachable. From the above it would seem that something is blocking connectivity in a single direction (from the Win 7 box to the Win XP notebook) only but the router can ping the XP notebook. Some fresh input would be most welcome, as this is beginning to drive me batty. Thanks

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• Seeing traffic destined for other people's servers in wireshark

  - by user350325

  I rent a dedicated server from a hosting provider. I ran wireshark on my server so that I could see incoming HTTP traffic that was destined to my server. Once I ran wireshark and filtered for HTTP I noticed a load of traffic, but most of it was not for stuff that was hosted on my server and had a destination IP address that was not mine, there were various source IP addresses. My immediate reaction was to think that somebody was tunnelling their HTTP traffic through my server somehow. However when I looked closer I noticed that all of this traffic was going to hosts on the same subnet and all of these IP addresses belonged to the same hosting provider that I was using. So it appears that wireshark was intercepting traffic destined for other customers who's servers are attached to the same part of the network as mine. Now I always assumed that on a switch based network that this should not happen as the switch will only send data to the required host and not to every box attached. I assume in this case that other customers would also be able to see data going to my server. As well as potential privacy concerns, this would surely make ARP poising easy and allow others to steal IP addresses (and therefor domains and websites)? It would seem odd that a network provider would configure the network in such a way. Is there a more rational explanation here?

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• Separate Certificate by Subdomain (With multiple IPs)

  - by Brian

  Note: Yes, I realize this problem is easier to solve by just using 1 multi-domain or wildcard certificate. I wish to have an ASP.NET site running on IIS with 2 SSL domains sharing 1 web application but using separate certificates. Assuming I have 2 certificates, this can be solved on IIS7 as follows: Web Application1: Binding 1: http, 80, IP Address *, Host Name * Binding 2: https, 443, IPADDRESS1, using CERTDOMAIN1 (DOMAIN1 resolves to IPADDRESS1) Binding 3: https, 443, IPADDRESS2, using CERTDOMAIN2 (DOMAIN2 resolves to IPADDRESS2) That is to say, 2 certificates and 2 ip addresses, but both mapped to the same web application. In IIS6, the closest I have been able to come to this configuration is: Web Application1: Binding 1: http, 80, IPADDRESS1 Binding 2: https, 443, IPADDRESS1, using CERTDOMAIN1 (DOMAIN1 resolves to IPADDRESS1) Web Application2: Binding 1: http, 80, IPADDRESS2 Binding 2: https, 443, IPADDRESS2, using CERTDOMAIN2 (DOMAIN2 resolves to IPADDRESS2) That is to say, 2 certificates and 2 IP addresses, 2 web applications, both mapped to the same file location. The IIS6 solution is not optimal. Even if sharing an application pool, there are still costs associated with running the same site as two applications. Is upgrading from IIS6 to IIS7 a legitimate way to resolve this problem? Is there an IIS6 way to map 2 IP addresses within the same web application to different certificates?

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• Basic connectivity issues between Win 7 and XP mixed wired/wireless network. [Solved]

  - by Pulse

  Setup: Windows 7 x64 Ultimate desktop hard wired to Asus WL500gp router (WL500gpv2-1.9.2.7-d-r1445 firmware) Several Bridged VirtualBox VM's running XP, 7, ubuntu server 10.04, Mint 9 and SuSE 11.2 Win XP Pro SP3 notebook with D-Link Airplus wireless network card. No firewall or other security software currently running on either platform (at least for the duration of the test) Situation: Router is acting DHCP server Clients are receiving correct addresses and additional parameters Internet connectivity is available from all clients Windows 7 sharing is set to Network type = work (not home group) NetBT is disabled on all clients using smb over TCP What I can do: I can ping the router and internet addresses from the wireless XP notebook I can ping the Win 7 desktop and any VM from the XP wireless notebook I can ping all devices from the router All VM's and 7 can ping each other and the router as well as Internet addresses What I can't do: I cannot ping the XP wireless notebook from either the Win 7 desktop or the VM's; it always returns a destination host unreachable error. Tracert resolves the name or the XP notebook but also returns a destination host unreachable. From the above it would seem that something is blocking connectivity in a single direction (from the Win 7 box to the Win XP notebook) only but the router can ping the XP notebook. Some fresh input would be most welcome, as this is beginning to drive me batty. Thanks

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• Identifying test machines in analytics logs

  - by RTigger

  We're just beginning to add analytics to our SaaS application, to begin (among other things) billing clients based on usage. The problem we're running into is there's a few circumstances where our support team will simulate a log in into production to try to reproduce reported issues with a client's configuration. When they log in, an entry will be made into our analytics logs that their specific account has logged in, which we use to calculate billing. A few ideas we had to solve this: 1) We log IP addresses as well as machine keys for each PC that logs in - we could filter out known IP addresses and/or machine keys belonging to support. The drawback is we have to maintain a list of keys / addresses manually. 2) If support (or anyone else internal) runs our application in debug mode (as opposed to release), it will not report analytics. This is fine, as long as support / anyone else remembers to switch to debug mode. 3) Include some sort of reg key / similar setting required to be set when configuring a production system in order to send analytics. Again, fine, as long as our infrastructure team remembers to set the reg key or setting. All of these approaches require some sort of human involvement, which we all know can be iffy at best. Has anyone run into a similar situation? Is there an automated approach to this problem? (PS Of course, we shouldn't be testing in production, but there are a few one-off instances with customer set up that we can't reproduce without logging in as them in production. This is the only time we do so, and this is the case I'm talking about in this question.)

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• Will the removal of NAT (with the use of IPv6) be bad for consumers? [closed]

  - by Jonathan.

  Possible Duplicate: How will IPv6 impact everyday users? (World IPv6 Day) As I understand when we have finally made the switch to IPv6 not only will NAT be unnecessary but it is incompatible with IPv6? Will that mean that ISPs will have to serve multiple IP addresses per customer? Will they provide a range of addresses for each customer or as each device connects will they get an IP address that isn't necessarily near that of the other devices in their house? But overall will this be bad for the Internet users? as surely it will allow ISPs to see exactly how many devices are being used, and so allow them to charge for the use of additional IP addresses? And then if that happens, what happens when you try to connect an extra device to your network? Will it simply not get an IP address? In my home we have about 15-20 devices connected at once, but for places where there are hundreds of devices, it seems like the perfect opportunity for ISPs to charge more? I think I may have it completely wrong, so is there somewhere where there is an explanation of who things will work when IPv6 becomes the norm?

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• Model validation with enumerable properties in Asp.net MVC2 RTM

  - by Robert Koritnik

  I'm using DataAnnotations attributes to validate my model objects. My model class looks similar to this: public class MyModel { [Required] public string Title { get; set; } [Required] public List<User> Editors { get; set; } } public class User { public int Id { get; set; } [Required] public string FullName { get; set; } [Required] [DataType(DataType.Email)] public string Email { get; set; } } My controller action looks like: public ActionResult NewItem(MyModel data) { //... } User is presented with a view that has a form with: a text box with dummy name where users enter user's names. For each user they enter, there's a client script coupled with ajax that creates an <input type="hidden" name="data.Editors[0].Id" value="userId" /> for each user entered (enumeration index is therefore not always 0 as written here), so default model binder is able to consume and bind the form without any problems. a text box where users enter the title Since I'm using Asp.net MVC 2 RTM which does model validation instead of input validation I don't know how to avoid validation errors. The thing is I have to use BindAttribute on my controller action. I would have to either provide a white or a black list of properties. It's always a better practice to provide a white list. It's also more future proof. The problem My form works fine, but I get validation errors about user's FullName and Email properties since they are not provided. I also shouldn't feed them to the client (via ajax when user enters user data), because email is personal contact data and is not shared between users. If there was just a single user reference on MyModel I would write [Bind(Include = "Title, Editor.Id")] But I have an enumeration of them. How do I provide Bind white list to work with my model?

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• Richfaces: rich:datatable rowspan using rich:subtable

  - by Markos Fragkakis

  Hi, I use Richfaces, Seam and JSF, and I want something like the following: and I have managed it to a degree using a rich:subtable like this: <rich:dataTable value="#{backingBean.companyList}" rows="100" var="company"> <f:facet name="header"> <rich:columnGroup> <rich:column>Company Name</rich:column> <rich:column>Company Email</rich:column> <rich:column>Product Name</rich:column> <rich:column>Product Email</rich:column> </rich:columnGroup> </f:facet> <rich:subTable value="#{company.products}" var="product" rowKeyVar="rowKey"> <rich:column rowspan="#{company.products.size()}" rendered="#{rowKey eq 0}"> #{company.name} </rich:column> <rich:column rowspan="#{company.products.size()}" rendered="#{rowKey eq 0}"> #{company.email} </rich:column> <rich:column> #{product.name} </rich:column> <rich:column> #{product.email} </rich:column> </rich:subTable> the problem is that companies that have NO products, do not get rendered at all. What I want would be for them to be rendered, and the remaining row (the product-specific columns) to be empty. Is there a way to do this? Note: I have also tried nested rich:datatables, but the internal columns do not overlap with the outer columns containing the header. With rich:subtable the inner columns overlap with the outer columns and show nice.

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• How to scrape a _private_ google group?

  - by John

  Hi there, I'd like to scrape the discussion list of a private google group. It's a multi-page list and I might have to this later again so scripting sounds like the way to go. Since this is a private group, I need to login in my google account first. Unfortunately I can't manage to login using wget or ruby Net::HTTP. Surprisingly google groups is not accessible with the Client Login interface, so all the code samples are useless. My ruby script is embedded at the end of the post. The response to the authentication query is a 200-OK but no cookies in the response headers and the body contains the message "Your browser's cookie functionality is turned off. Please turn it on." I got the same output with wget. See the bash script at the end of this message. I don't know how to workaround this. am I missing something? Any idea? Thanks in advance. John Here is the ruby script: # a ruby script require 'net/https' http = Net::HTTP.new('www.google.com', 443) http.use_ssl = true path = '/accounts/ServiceLoginAuth' email='[email protected]' password='topsecret' # form inputs from the login page data = "Email=#{email}&Passwd=#{password}&dsh=7379491738180116079&GALX=irvvmW0Z-zI" headers = { 'Content-Type' => 'application/x-www-form-urlencoded', 'user-agent' => "Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US) AppleWebKit/533.2 (KHTML, like Gecko) Chrome/6.0"} # Post the request and print out the response to retrieve our authentication token resp, data = http.post(path, data, headers) puts resp resp.each {|h, v| puts h+'='+v} #warning: peer certificate won't be verified in this SSL session Here is the bash script: # A bash script for wget CMD="" CMD="$CMD --keep-session-cookies --save-cookies cookies.tmp" CMD="$CMD --no-check-certificate" CMD="$CMD --post-data='[email protected]&Passwd=topsecret&dsh=-8408553335275857936&GALX=irvvmW0Z-zI'" CMD="$CMD --user-agent='Mozilla'" CMD="$CMD https://www.google.com/accounts/ServiceLoginAuth" echo $CMD wget $CMD wget --load-cookies="cookies.tmp" http://groups.google.com/group/mygroup/topics?tsc=2

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• Node.js + express.js + passport.js : stay authenticated between server restart

  - by Arnaud Rinquin

  I use passport.js to handle auth on my nodejs + express.js application. I setup a LocalStrategy to take users from mongodb My problems is that users have to re-authenticate when I restart my node server. This is a problem as I am actively developing it and don't wan't to login at every restart... (+ I use node supervisor) Here is my app setup : app.configure(function(){ app.use('/static', express.static(__dirname + '/static')); app.use(express.bodyParser()); app.use(express.methodOverride()); app.use(express.cookieParser()); app.use(express.session({secret:'something'})); app.use(passport.initialize()); app.use(passport.session()); app.use(app.router); }); And session serializing setup : passport.serializeUser(function(user, done) { done(null, user.email); }); passport.deserializeUser(function(email, done) { User.findOne({email:email}, function(err, user) { done(err, user); }); }); I tried the solution given on this blog using connect-mongodb without success app.use(express.session({ secret:'something else', cookie: {maxAge: 60000 * 60 * 24 * 30}, // 30 days store: MongoDBStore({ db: mongoose.connection.db }) }));

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• Adding a Contact with the Google Contacts .NET API

  - by Bryan

  I am using the following code to add a contact, but I get the following unhandled exception: Google.GData.Client.GDataRequestException: Execution of request failed: http://www.google.com/m8/feeds/contacts/default/full GDataCredentials myCred = new GDataCredentials("myusername", "mypassword"); RequestSettings myRequestSettings = new RequestSettings("macpapa-GoogleCodeTest3-1", myCred); ContactsRequest myContactRequest = new ContactsRequest(myRequestSettings); Contact myContact = new Contact(); myContact.Title = "Be Dazzle"; PhoneNumber myPhoneNumber = new PhoneNumber("805-453-6688"); myPhoneNumber.Rel = ContactsRelationships.IsGeneral; myPhoneNumber.Primary = true; myContact.Phonenumbers.Add(myPhoneNumber); EMail myEmail = new EMail("[email protected]", ContactsRelationships.IsHome); EMail myEmail2 = new EMail("[email protected]", ContactsRelationships.IsWork); myEmail.Primary = true; myContact.Emails.Add(myEmail); myContact.Emails.Add(myEmail2); PostalAddress postalAddress = new PostalAddress(); postalAddress.Value = "123 somewhere lane"; postalAddress.Primary = true; postalAddress.Rel = ContactsRelationships.IsHome; myContact.PostalAddresses.Add(postalAddress); Uri feedUri = new Uri(ContactsQuery.CreateContactsUri("default")); Contact createdContact = myContactRequest.Insert<Contact>(feedUri, myContact); Please offer any available suggestions. Thank you.

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• Django queryset not returning the same values as the generated sql

  - by HRCerqueira

  Hello guys, I have the following queryset: subscribers = User.objects.values('email', 'username').filter( Q(subscription_settings__new_question='i') | Q(subscription_settings__new_question_watched_tags='i', marked_tags__id__in=question.tags.values('id'), tag_selections__reason='good') ).exclude(id=question.author.id) The problem is that when I evaluate the query I get only the values that are filtered by the first Q object (even if I reverse the order of the objects). So lets say that I was expecting the user A, B, C and D, where A and B are filtered by the first Q object and C and D by the second. But the queryset only returns A and B. I used the django debug toolbar to see the query that was actually being executed (and then I used a direct print statement like "print subscriber.query.as_sql()" just to be sure) and then evaluated the query directly using psql (I'm using postgres by the way), and I get the results I expect. Here's the query btw: SELECT "auth_user"."email", "auth_user"."username" FROM "auth_user" LEFT OUTER JOIN "forum_markedtag" ON ("auth_user"."id" = "forum_markedtag"."user_id") INNER JOIN "forum_defaultsubscriptionsetting" ON ("auth_user"."id" = "forum_defaultsubscriptionsetting"."user_id") WHERE ((("forum_markedtag"."reason" = E'good' AND "forum_defaultsubscriptionsetting"."new_question_watched_tags" = E'i' AND "forum_markedtag"."tag_id" IN (SELECT U0."id" FROM "tag" U0 INNER JOIN "question_tags" U1 ON (U0."id" = U1."tag_id") WHERE U1."question_id" = 64 )) OR "forum_defaultsubscriptionsetting"."new_question" = E'i' ) AND NOT ("auth_user"."id" = 10 )) Thanks in advance EDIT: I tried to break the queryset into two, one that uses the first Q object as the filter and another one with the second Q object, and although the second queryset produces the correct sql that returns the correct values when evaluated directly, it still doesn't return nothing when evaluated as a django queryset. heres the alternative code: subscribers = User.objects.values('email', 'username').filter( subscription_settings__new_question='i').exclude(id=question.author.id) subscribers2 = User.objects.values('email', 'username').filter( subscription_settings__new_question_watched_tags='i', marked_tags__id__in=question.tags.values('id'), tag_selections__reason='good').exclude(id=question.author.id)

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• Model validation with enumerations

  - by Robert Koritnik

  I'm using DataAnnotations attributes to validate my model objects. My model class looks similar to this: public class MyModel { [Required] public string Title { get; set; } [Required] public List<User> Editors { get; set; } } public class User { public int Id { get; set; } [Required] public string FullName { get; set; } [Required] [DataType(DataType.Email)] public string Email { get; set; } } My controller action looks like: public ActionResult NewItem(MyModel data) { //... } User is presented with a view that has a form with: a text box with dummy name where users enter user's names. For each user they enter, there's a client script coupled with ajax that creates an <input type="hidden" name="data.Editors[0].Id" value="userId" /> for each user entered (enumeration index is therefore not always 0 as written here), so default model binder is able to consume and bind the form without any problems. a text box where users enter the title Since I'm using Asp.net MVC 2 RTM which does model validation instead of input validation I don't know how to avoid validation errors. The thing is I have to use BindAttribute on my controller action. I would have to either provide a white or a black list of properties. It's always a better practice to provide a white list. It's also more future proof. The problem My form works fine, but I get validation errors about user's FullName and Email properties since they are not provided. I also shouldn't feed them to the client (via ajax when user enters user data), because email is personal contact data and is not shared between users. If there was just a single user reference on MyModel I would write [Bind(Include = "Title, Editor.Id")] But I have an enumeration of them. How do I provide Bind white list to work with my model?

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• xp_smtp_sendmail blank space added to html randomly

  - by Igor Timofeyev

  I have a proc where I generate small html doc with a link and send it out via xp_smtp_sendmail proc. Link is generated based on query results and is long. This works in most cases. However, sometimes the link gets broken due to spaces being inserted into querystring variable names, i.e. &Na me=John. This might vary between email clients(same link works in Gmail, but might not work in comcast due to spaces. The space seems to be randomly inserted, so in each broken email link space might break other querystring variables. When I do PRINT from proc the link is clean, no spaces. Here's my sample of the mail proc being executed within main proc(that gets query results and generates html for @Message). The space seems to be inserted regardless of whether I encode the url or not. Thank you in advance for your help. I can send a cleaner version of the code if it's not displayed properly here. ....query results above SET @Message = NULL SET @Message = @Message + + '<br/>Dear ' + @FirstName + ' ' + @LastName + ',' + '<br/><br/>Recently you took "' + @Title + '". ' + 'In response to the question "What is it?" ' + 'you responded "' + @Response + '".' + '<br/><br/>Following up on previous mailing' + '<br/><br/>Please click on the link below' + '<br/><br/><a href="' + @Link + '">Please click here</a>' + '<br/><br/>plain text' + '<br/><br/>plain text,' + '<br/><br/>plain text<br/> plain text<br/> plain text<br/> plain text<br/> plain text<br/> plain text EXEC @rc = master.dbo.xp_smtp_sendmail @FROM = '[email protected]', @FROM_NAME = 'Any User', @TO = @Email, @priority = N'NORMAL', @subject = N'My email', @message = @Message, @messagefile = N'', @type = N'text/html', @attachment = N'', @attachments = N'', @codepage = 0, @server = 'smtp.server.any'

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• Having Uploadify e-mail a link to download the file

  - by kwek-kwek

  Uploadify is a jQuery plugin that allows the easy integration of a multiple (or single) file uploads on your website. It requires Flash and any backend development language. An array of options allow for full customization for advanced users, but basic implementation is so easy that even coding novices can do it. I wanted to ask if It is possible to sends out a link of a file that has just been uploaded wioth the e-mail notification of Uploadify. Here is the code for uploadify.php : <?php if (!empty($_FILES)) { $tempFile = $_FILES['Filedata']['tmp_name']; $targetPath = $_SERVER['DOCUMENT_ROOT'] . $_REQUEST['folder'] . '/'; $targetFile = str_replace('//','/',$targetPath) . $_FILES['Filedata']['name']; // $fileTypes = str_replace('*.','',$_REQUEST['fileext']); // $fileTypes = str_replace(';','|',$fileTypes); // $typesArray = split('\|',$fileTypes); // $fileParts = pathinfo($_FILES['Filedata']['name']); // if (in_array($fileParts['extension'],$typesArray)) { // Uncomment the following line if you want to make the directory if it doesn't exist // mkdir(str_replace('//','/',$targetPath), 0755, true); move_uploaded_file($tempFile,$targetFile); echo "1"; // } else { // echo 'Invalid file type.'; // } } //define the receiver of the email $to = '[email protected]'; //define the subject of the email $subject = 'Test email'; //define the message to be sent. Each line should be separated with \n $message = "Hello World!\n\nThis is my first mail."; //define the headers we want passed. Note that they are separated with \r\n $headers = "From: [email protected]\r\nReply-To: [email protected]"; //send the email $mail_sent = @mail( $to, $subject, $message, $headers ); //if the message is sent successfully print "Mail sent". Otherwise print "Mail failed" echo $mail_sent ? "Mail sent" : "Mail failed"; ?>

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• ASP.NET MVC OutputCache with POST Controller Actions

  - by Maxim Z.

  I'm fairly new to using the OutputCache attribute in ASP.NET MVC. Static Pages I've enabled it on static pages on my site with code such as the following: [OutputCache(Duration = 7200, VaryByParam = "None")] public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { //... If I understand correctly, I made the whole controller cache for 7200 seconds (2 hours). Dynamic Pages However, how does it work with dynamic pages? By dynamic, I mean where the user has to submit a form. As an example, I have a page with an email form. Here's what that code looks like: public class ContactController : Controller { // // GET: /Contact/ public ActionResult Index() { return RedirectToAction("SubmitEmail"); } public ActionResult SubmitEmail() { //In view for CAPTCHA: <%= Html.GenerateCaptcha() %> return View(); } [CaptchaValidator] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult SubmitEmail(FormCollection formValues, bool captchaValid) { //Validate form fields, send email if everything's good... if (isError) { return View(); } else { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } } public void SendEmail(string title, string name, string email, string message) { //Send an email... } } What would happen if I applied OutputCache to the whole controller here? Would the HTTP POST form submission work? Also, my form has a CAPTCHA; would that change anything in the equation? In other words, what's the best way to approach caching with dynamic pages? Thanks in advance.

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• SQL database problems with addressbook table design

  - by Sebastian Hoitz

  Hello! I am writing a addressbook module for my software right now. I have the database set up so far that it supports a very flexible address-book configuration. I can create n-entries for every type I want. Type means here data like 'email', 'address', 'telephone' etc. I have a table named 'contact_profiles'. This only has two columns: id Primary key date_created DATETIME And then there is a table called contact_attributes. This one is a little more complex: id PK #profile (Foreign key to contact_profiles.id) type VARCHAR describing the type of the entry (name, email, phone, fax, website, ...) I should probably change this to a SET later. value Text (containing the value for the attribute). I can now link to these profiles, for example from my user's table. But from here I run into problems. At the moment I would have to create a JOIN for each value that I want to retrieve. Is there a possibility to somehow create a View, that gives me a result with the type's as columns? So right now I would get something like #profile type value 1 email [email protected] 1 name Sebastian Hoitz 1 website domain.tld But it would be nice to get a result like this: #profile email name website 1 [email protected] Sebastian Hoitz domain.tld The reason I do not want to create the table layout like this initially is, that there might always be things to add and I want to be able to have multiple attributes of the same type. So do you know if there is any possibility to convert this dynamically? If you need a better description please let me know. Thank you!

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• Having problems with sqlDataReader

  - by Anthony

  I am using a sqlDataReader to get data and set it to session variables. The problem is it doesn't want to work with expressions. I can reference any other column in the table, but not the expressions. The SQL does work. The code is below. Thanks in advance, Anthony Using myConnectionCheck As New SqlConnection(myConnectionString) Dim myCommandCheck As New SqlCommand() myCommandCheck.Connection = myConnectionCheck myCommandCheck.CommandText = "SELECT Projects.Pro_Ver, Projects.Pro_Name, Projects.TL_Num, Projects.LP_Num, Projects.Dev_Num, Projects.Val_Num, Projects.Completed, Flow.Initiate_Date, Flow.Requirements, Flow.Req_Date, Flow.Dev_Review, Flow.Dev_Review_Date, Flow.Interface, Flow.Interface_Date, Flow.Approval, Flow.Approval_Date, Flow.Test_Plan, Flow.Test_Plan_Date, Flow.Dev_Start, Flow.Dev_Start_Date, Flow.Val_Start, Flow.Val_Start_Date, Flow.Val_Complete, Flow.Val_Complete_Date, Flow.Stage_Production, Flow.Stage_Production_Date, Flow.MKS, Flow.MKS_Date, Flow.DIET, Flow.DIET_Date, Flow.Closed, Flow.Closed_Date, Flow.Dev_End, Flow.Dev_End_Date, Users_1.Email AS Expr1, Users_2.Email AS Expr2, Users_3.Email AS Expr3, Users_4.Email AS Expr4, Users_4.FNAME, Users_3.FNAME AS Expr5, Users_2.FNAME AS Expr6, Users_1.FNAME AS Expr7 FROM Projects INNER JOIN Users AS Users_1 ON Projects.TL_Num = Users_1.PIN INNER JOIN Users AS Users_2 ON Projects.LP_Num = Users_2.PIN INNER JOIN Users AS Users_3 ON Projects.Dev_Num = Users_3.PIN INNER JOIN Users AS Users_4 ON Projects.Val_Num = Users_4.PIN INNER JOIN Flow ON Projects.id = Flow.Flow_Pro_Num WHERE id = " myCommandCheck.CommandText += QSid myConnectionCheck.Open() myCommandCheck.ExecuteNonQuery() Dim count As Int16 = myCommandCheck.ExecuteScalar If count = 1 Then Dim myDataReader As SqlDataReader myDataReader = myCommandCheck.ExecuteReader() While myDataReader.Read() Session("TL_email") = myDataReader("Expr1").ToString() Session("PE_email") = myDataReader("Expr2").ToString() Session("DEV_email") = myDataReader("Expr3").ToString() Session("VAL_email") = myDataReader("Expr4").ToString() Session("Project_Name") = myDataReader("Pro_Name").ToString() End While myDataReader.Close() End If End Using

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• How does MSN filter spam?

  - by Marius

  I am trying to create a newsletter for our business. The last few days have been spent testing, and one of things I have noticed is that MSN seemingly randomly filters out some of my test messages. This is super-frustrating. I like the PEAR Mail MIME-package, and have been using that. I may send one email from one of our servers, resulting in the message getting through, and in the next minute, the same message sent from our other server ends up in the junk folder. Then if I add an attachment to the email, and the same message passes though the filter from the server that was previously blocked. I think. What the ####? Is this like throwing a dice, without me having any control over what is trash, and what isn't? I have sent email from several servers, all of which are shared. But I am unsure this is the problem. The problem is that it is seemingly random how MSN filters email. Some emails get through, and some other don't for seemingly irrational reasons. I am running out of ideas, but I am not giving up. Therefore I am writing to you for HARDCORE technical info on how MSN filters spam.

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