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• jQuery UI + Gmaps = Problems (for me at least) HELP!!

  - by Luis

  Hi there! I started using jQuery as soon as I found out about it, it is very powerfull but I started struggling when I tried to load Gmaps api into the tabs jQuery UI brings. Strangly enough in IE 6,7,8 it works fine, but in Firefox, Safari (I'm using mac but tested it in windows and they both give the same problems) the map doesn't load entirely. When I click on the tab where the map loads in, only part of the map is fully operational, the rest is grey and not clickable. Please take a look at the link below and click the third tab in firefox/safari and IE and you will see the problem. http://movewithusoverseas.com/index-new.php?z=product-info.html&pid=1 I don't know if it is a bug in the jQuery UI code or I'm doing something wrong. If I load the map out of the tabs the map is shown OK. I'm fighting with this problem for a week and a half... any help will be much appreciated. Thanks in advance. Luis

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• How to do cleanup reliably in python?

  - by Cheery

  I have some ctypes bindings, and for each body.New I should call body.Free. The library I'm binding doesn't have allocation routines insulated out from the rest of the code (they can be called about anywhere there), and to use couple of useful features I need to make cyclic references. I think It'd solve if I'd find a reliable way to hook destructor to an object. (weakrefs would help if they'd give me the callback just before the data is dropped. So obviously this code megafails when I put in velocity_func: class Body(object): def __init__(self, mass, inertia): self._body = body.New(mass, inertia) def __del__(self): print '__del__ %r' % self if body: body.Free(self._body) ... def set_velocity_func(self, func): self._body.contents.velocity_func = ctypes_wrapping(func) I also tried to solve it through weakrefs, with those the things seem getting just worse, just only largely more unpredictable. Even if I don't put in the velocity_func, there will appear cycles at least then when I do this: class Toy(object): def __init__(self, body): self.body.owner = self ... def collision(a, b, contacts): whatever(a.body.owner) So how to make sure Structures will get garbage collected, even if they are allocated/freed by the shared library? There's repository if you are interested about more details: http://bitbucket.org/cheery/ctypes-chipmunk/

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• Did the Unity Team fix that "generics handling" bug back in 2008?

  - by rasx

  At my level of experience with Unity it might be faster to ask whether the "generics handling" bug acknowledged by ctavares back in 2008 was fixed in a public release. Here was the problem (which might be my problem today): Hi, I get an exception when using .... container.RegisterType(typeof(IDictionary<,), typeof(Dictionary<,)); The exception is... "Resolution of the dependency failed, type = \"IDictionary2\", name = \"\". Exception message is: The current build operation (build key Build Key[System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary2[System.String,System.String], null]) failed: The current build operation (build key Build Key[System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary2[System.String,System.String], null]) failed: The type Dictionary2 has multiple constructors of length 2. Unable to disambiguate. When I attempt... IDictionary myExampleDictionary = container.Resolve(); Here was the moderated response: There are no books that'll help, Unity is a little too new for publishers to have caught up yet. Unfortunately, you've run into a bug in our generics handling. This is currently fixed in our internal version, but it'll be a little while before we can get the bits out. In the meantime, as a workaround you could do something like this instead: public class WorkaroundDictionary : Dictionary { public WorkaroundDictionary() { } } container.RegisterType(typeof(IDictionary<,),typeof(WorkaroundDictionary<,)); The WorkaroundDictionary only has the default constructor so it'll inject no problem. Since the rest of your app is written in terms of IDictionary, when we get the fixed version done you can just replace the registration with the real Dictionary class, throw out the workaround, and everything will still just work. Sorry about the bug, it'll be fixed soon!

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• Directly call distutils' or setuptools' setup() function with command name/options, without parsing

  - by Ryan B. Lynch

  I'd like to call Python's distutils' or setuptools' setup() function in a slightly unconventional way, but I'm not sure whether distutils is meant for this kind of usage. As an example, let's say I currently have a 'setup.py' file, which looks like this (lifted verbatim from the distutils docs--the setuptools usage is almost identical): from distutils.core import setup setup(name='Distutils', version='1.0', description='Python Distribution Utilities', author='Greg Ward', author_email='[email protected]', url='http://www.python.org/sigs/distutils-sig/', packages=['distutils', 'distutils.command'], ) Normally, to build just the .spec file for an RPM of this module, I could run python setup.py bdist_rpm --spec-only, which parses the command line and calls the 'bdist_rpm' code to handle the RPM-specific stuff. The .spec file ends up in './dist'. How can I change my setup() invocation so that it runs the 'bdist_rpm' command with the '--spec-only' option, WITHOUT parsing command-line parameters? Can I pass the command name and options as parameters to setup()? Or can I manually construct a command line, and pass that as a parameter, instead? NOTE: I already know that I could call the script in a separate process, with an actual command line, using os.system() or the subprocess module or something similar. I'm trying to avoid using any kind of external command invocations. I'm looking specifically for a solution that runs setup() in the current interpreter. For background, I'm converting some release-management shell scripts into a single Python program. One of the tasks is running 'setup.py' to generate a .spec file for further pre-release testing. Running 'setup.py' as an external command, with its own command line options, seems like an awkward method, and it complicates the rest of the program. I feel like there may be a more Pythonic way.

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• NSOperation for animation loop causes strange scrolling behaviour

  - by Tricky

  Hi, I've created an animation loop which I run as an operation in order to keep the rest of my interface responsive. Whilst almost there, there is still one remaining issue. My UIScrollViews don't seem to be reliably picking up when a user touch ends. What this means is, for example, if a user drags down on a scroll view, when they lift their fingers the scrollview doesn't bounce back into place and the scrollbar remains visible. As if the finger hasn't left the screen. It takes another tap on the scrollview for it to snap to its correct position and the scrollbar to fade away... Here's the loop I created in a subclassed NSOperation: (void)main { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; NSRunLoop *runLoop = [NSRunLoop currentRunLoop]; _displayLink = [[CADisplayLink displayLinkWithTarget: self selector: @selector(animationLoop:)] retain]; [_displayLink setFrameInterval: 1.0f]; [_displayLink addToRunLoop:[NSRunLoop currentRunLoop] forMode: NSRunLoopCommonModes]; while (![self isCancelled]) { NSAutoreleasePool *loopPool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; [runLoop runMode:NSDefaultRunLoopMode beforeDate:[NSDate distantFuture]]; [loopPool drain]; } [_displayLink invalidate]; [pool release]; } DOes anyone have any idea what might be going on here, and even better how to fix it... Thanks!

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• How to structure applications as multiple projects an name the packages in Java

  - by lostiniceland

  Hello Everyone I would like to know how you set up your projects in Java For example, in my current work-project, a six year old J2EE app with approximately 2 million LoC, we only have one project in Eclipse. The package structure is split into tiers and then domains, so it follows guidelines from Sun/Oracle. A huge ant-script is building different jars out of this one source-folder Personally I think it would be better to have multiple projects, at least for each tier. Recently I was playing around with a projects-structure like this: Domainproject (contains only annotated pojos, needed by all other projects) Datalayer (only persistence) Businesslogic (services) Presenter View This way, it should be easier to exchange components and when using a build tool like Maven I can have everything in a repository so when only working on the frontend I can get the rest as a dependecy in my classpath. Does this makes sense to you? Do you use different approaches and how do they look like? Furthermore I am struggeling how to name my packages/projects correctly. Right now, the above project-structure reflects in the names of the packages, eg. de.myapp.view and it continues with some technical subfolders like internal or interfaces. What I am missing here, and I dont know how to do this properly, is the distinction to a certain domain. When the project gets bigger it would be nice to recognise a particular domain but also the technical details to navigate more easily within the project. This leads to my second question: how do you name your projects and packages?

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• Standard Android Button with a different color

  - by Mike

  I'd like to change the color of a standard Android button slightly in order to better match a client's branding. For example, see the "Find a Table" button for the OpenTable application: The best way I've found to do this so far is to change the Button's drawable to the following drawable located in res/drawable/red_button.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <selector xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android"> <item android:state_pressed="true" android:drawable="@drawable/red_button_pressed" /> <item android:state_focused="true" android:drawable="@drawable/red_button_focus" /> <item android:drawable="@drawable/red_button_rest" /> </selector> But doing that requires that I actually create three different drawables for each button I want to customize (one for the button at rest, one when focused, and one when pressed). That seems more complicated and non-DRY than I need. All I really want to do is apply some sort of color transform to the button. Is there an easier way to go about changing a button's color than I'm doing?

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• document.onclick settimeout function javascript help

  - by Jamex

  Hi, I have a document.onclick function that I would like to have a delay. I can't seem to get the syntax right. my original code is <script type="text/javascript"> document.onclick=check; function check(e){do something} I tried the below, but that code is incorrect, the function did not execute and nothing happened. <script type="text/javascript"> document.onclick=setTimeout("check", 1000); function check(e){do something} I tried the next set, the function got executed, but no delay. <script type="text/javascript"> setTimeout(document.onclick=check, 1000); function check(e){do something} what is the correct syntax for this code. TIA Edit: The solutions were all good, my problem was that I use the function check to obtain the id of the element being clicked on. But after the delay, there is no "memory" of what was being clicked on, so the rest of the function does not get executed. Jimr wrote the short code to preserve clicked event. The code that is working is // Delay execution of event handler function "f" by "time" ms. document.onclick = makeDelayedHandler(check, 250); function makeDelayedHandler( f, time) { return function( e ) {setTimeout(function() {f( e );}, time ); }; } function check(e){ var click = (e && e.target) || (event && event.srcElement); . . . Thank you all.

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• Is it possible to add JPA annotation to superclass instance variables?

  - by Kristofer Borgstrom

  Hi, I am creating entities that are the same for two different tables. In order do table mappings etc. different for the two entities but only have the rest of the code in one place - an abstract superclass. The best thing would be to be able to annotate generic stuff such as column names (since the will be identical) in the super class but that does not work because JPA annotations are not inherited by child classes. Here is an example: public abstract class MyAbstractEntity { @Column(name="PROPERTY") //This will not be inherited and is therefore useless here protected String property; public String getProperty() { return this.property; } //setters, hashCode, equals etc. methods } Which I would like to inherit and only specify the child-specific stuff, like annotations: @Entity @Table(name="MY_ENTITY_TABLE") public class MyEntity extends MyAbstractEntity { //This will not work since this field does not override the super class field, thus the setters and getters break. @Column(name="PROPERTY") protected String property; } Any ideas or will I have to create fields, getters and setters in the child classes? Thanks, Kris

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• How to create custom omniauth provider (how to return data)

  - by user2803917

  I searched all around the net, how to create a custom provider for omniauth.. and i succedded partly.. I created a gem, and it worked perfectly, except the part, that i cant understand how to return the gathered data to sessions controller, like other providers do.. here is the code in auth gem: require 'multi_json' require 'digest/md5' require 'rest-client' module OmniAuth module Strategies class Providername < OmniAuth::Strategies::OAuth attr_accessor :app_id, :api_key, :auth def initialize(app, app_id = nil, api_key = nil, options = {}) super(app, :providername) @app_id = app_id @api_key = api_key end protected def request_phase redirect "http://valid_url" end def callback_phase if request.params['code'] && request.params['status'] == 'ok' response = RestClient.get("http://valid_url2/?code=#{request.params['auth_code']}") auth = MultiJson.decode(response.to_s) unless auth['error'] @auth_data = auth if @auth_data @return_data = OmniAuth::Utils.deep_merge(super, { 'uid' => @auth_data['uid'], 'nickname' => @auth_data['nick'], 'user_info' => { 'first_name' => @auth_data['name'], 'last_name' => @auth_data['surname'], 'location' => @auth_data['place'], }, 'credentials' => { 'apikey' => @auth_data['apikey'] }, 'extra' => {'user_hash' => @auth_data} }) end end else fail!(:invalid_request) end rescue Exception => e fail!(:invalid_response, e) end end end end and here i call it in my initializers: Rails.application.config.middleware.use OmniAuth::Builder do provider "providername", Settings.providers.providername.app_id, Settings.providers.providername.app_secret end in this code, everything works fine so far, the provider gets called, i get the info from provider, i create a hash (@auth_data) with info, but how do i return it

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• Problem with WHERE columnName = Data in MySQL query in C#

  - by Ryan Sullivan

  I have a C# webservice on a Windows Server that I am interfacing with on a linux server with PHP. The PHP grabs information from the database and then the page offers a "more information" button which then calls the webservice and passes in the name field of the record as a parameter. So i am using a WHERE statement in my query so I only pull the extra fields for that record. I am getting the error: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException:Invalid column name '42' Where 42 is the value from the name field from the database. my query is string selectStr = "SELECT name, castNotes, triviaNotes FROM tableName WHERE name =\"" + show + "\""; I do not know if it is a problem with my query or something is wrong with the database, but here is the rest of my code for reference. NOTE: this all works perfectly when I grab all of the records, but I only want to grab the record that I ask my webservice for. public class ktvService : System.Web.Services.WebService { [WebMethod] public string moreInfo(string show) { string connectionStr = "MyConnectionString"; string selectStr = "SELECT name, castNotes, triviaNotes FROM tableName WHERE name =\"" + show + "\""; SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(connectionStr); SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter(selectStr, conn); DataSet ds = new DataSet(); da.Fill(ds, "tableName"); DataTable dt = ds.Tables["tableName"]; DataRow theShow = dt.Rows[0]; string response = "Name: " + theShow["name"].ToString() + "Cast: " + theShow["castNotes"].ToString() + " Trivia: " + theShow["triviaNotes"].ToString(); return response; } }

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• MSBuild script fails but produces no errors

  - by Kate

  I have a MSBuild script that I am executing through TeamCity. One of the tasks that is runs is from Xheo DeploxLX CodeVeil which obfuscates some DLLs. The task I am using is called VeilProject. I have run the CodeVeil Project through the interface manually and it works correctly, so I think I can safely assume that the actual obfuscate process is ok. This task used to take around 40 minutes and the rest of the MSBuild file executed perfectly and finished without errors. For some reason this task is now taking 1hr 20 minutes or so to execute. Once the VeilProject task is finished the output from the task says it completely successfully, however the MSBuild script fails at this point. I have a task directly after the VeilProject task and it does not get outputted. Using diagnostic output from MSBUild I can see the following: My questions are: Would it be possible that the MSBuild script has timed out? Once the task has completed it is after a certain timeout period so it just fails? Why would the build fail with no errors and no warnings? [05:39:06]: [Target "Obfuscate"] Finished. [05:39:06]: [Target "Obfuscate"] Saving exception map [05:49:21]: [Target "Obfuscate"] Ended at 11/05/2010 05:49:21, ~1 hour, 48 minutes, 6 seconds [05:49:22]: [Target "Obfuscate"] Done. [05:49:51]: MSBuild output: Ended at 11/05/2010 05:49:21, ~1 hour, 48 minutes, 6 seconds (TaskId:8) Done. (TaskId:8) Done executing task "VeilProject" -- FAILED. (TaskId:8) Done building target "Obfuscate" in project "AMK_Release.proj.teamcity.patch.tcprojx" -- FAILED.: (TargetId:12) Done Building Project "C:\Builds\Scripts\AMK_Release.proj.teamcity.patch.tcprojx" (All target(s)) -- FAILED. Project Performance Summary: 6535484 ms C:\Builds\Scripts\AMK_Release.proj.teamcity.patch.tcprojx 1 calls 6535484 ms All 1 calls Target Performance Summary: 156 ms PreClean 1 calls 266 ms SetBuildVersionNumber 1 calls 2406 ms CopyFiles 1 calls 6532391 ms Obfuscate 1 calls Task Performance Summary: 16 ms MakeDir 2 calls 31 ms TeamCitySetBuildNumber 1 calls 31 ms Message 1 calls 62 ms RemoveDir 2 calls 234 ms GetAssemblyIdentity 1 calls 2406 ms Copy 1 calls 6528047 ms VeilProject 1 calls Build FAILED. 0 Warning(s) 0 Error(s) Time Elapsed 01:48:57.46 [05:49:52]: Process exit code: 1 [05:49:55]: Build finished

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• CATransaction: Layer Changes But Does Not Animate

  - by macinjosh

  I'm trying to animate part of UI in an iPad app when the user taps a button. I have this code in my action method. It works in the sense that the UI changes how I expect but it does not animate the changes. It simply immediately changes. I must be missing something: - (IBAction)someAction:(id)sender { UIViewController *aViewController = <# Get an existing UIViewController #>; UIView *viewToAnimate = aViewController.view; CALayer *layerToAnimate = viewToAnimate.layer; [CATransaction begin]; [CATransaction setAnimationDuration:1.0f]; CATransform3D rotateTransform = CATransform3DMakeRotation(0.3, 0, 0, 1); CATransform3D scaleTransform = CATransform3DMakeScale(0.10, 0.10, 0.10); CATransform3D positionTransform = CATransform3DMakeTranslation(24, 423, 0); CATransform3D combinedTransform = CATransform3DConcat(rotateTransform, scaleTransform); combinedTransform = CATransform3DConcat(combinedTransform, positionTransform); layerToAnimate.transform = combinedTransform; [CATransaction commit]; // rest of method... } I've tried simplifying the animation to just change the opacity (for example) and it still will not animate. The opacity just changes instantly. That leads me to believe something is not setup properly. Any clues would be helpful!

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• What is the right pattern for a async data fetching method in .net async/await

  - by s093294

  Given a class with a method GetData. A few other clients call GetData, and instead of it fetching data each time, i would like to create a pattern where the first call starts the task to get the data, and the rest of the calls wait for the task to complete. private Task<string> _data; private async Task<string> _getdata() { return "my random data from the net"; //get_data_from_net() } public string GetData() { if(_data==null) _data=_getdata(); _data.wait(); //are there not a problem here. cant wait a task that is already completed ? if(_data.status != rantocompletion) _data.wait() is not any better, it might complete between the check and the _data.wait? return _data.Result; } How would i do the pattern correctly? (Solution) private static object _servertime_lock = new object(); private static Task<string> _servertime; private static async Task<string> servertime() { try { var thetvdb = new HttpClient(); thetvdb.Timeout = TimeSpan.FromSeconds(5); // var st = await thetvdb.GetStreamAsync("http://www.thetvdb.com/api/Updates.php?type=none"); var response = await thetvdb.GetAsync("http://www.thetvdb.com/api/Updates.php?type=none"); response.EnsureSuccessStatusCode(); Stream stream = await response.Content.ReadAsStreamAsync(); XDocument xdoc = XDocument.Load(stream); return xdoc.Descendants("Time").First().Value; } catch { return null; } } public static async Task<string> GetServerTime() { lock (_servertime_lock) { if (_servertime == null) _servertime = servertime(); } var time = await _servertime; if (time == null) _servertime = null; return time; }

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• Detecting Connection Speed / Bandwidth in .net/WCF

  - by Mystagogue

  I'm writing both client and server code using WCF, where I need to know the "perceived" bandwidth of traffic between the client and server. I could use ping statistics to gather this information separately, but I wonder if there is a way to configure the channel stack in WCF so that the same statistics can be gathered simultaneously while performing my web service invocations. This would be particularly useful in cases where ICMP is disabled (e.g. ping won't work). In short, while making my regular business-related web service calls (REST calls to be precise), is there a way to collect connection speed data implicitly? Certainly I could time the web service round trip, compared to the size of data used in the round-trip, to give me an idea of throughput - but I won't know how much of that perceived bandwidth was network related, or simply due to server-processing latency. I could perhaps solve that by having the server send back a time delta, representing server latency, so that the client can compute the actual network traffic time. If a more sophisticated approach is not available, that might be my answer...

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• Multiple Unpacking Assignment in Python when you don't know the sequence length

  - by doug

  The textbook examples of multiple unpacking assignment are something like: import numpy as NP M = NP.arange(5) a, b, c, d, e = M # so of course, a = 0, b = 1, etc. M = NP.arange(20).reshape(5, 4) # numpy 5x4 array a, b, c, d, e = M # here, a = M[0,:], b = M[1,:], etc. (ie, a single row of M is assigned each to a through e) (My Q is not numpy specfic; indeed, i would prefer a pure python solution.) W/r/t the piece of code i'm looking at now, i see two complications on that straightforward scenario: i usually won't know the shape of M; and i want to unpack a certain number of items (definitely less than all items) and i want to put the remainder into a single container so back to the 5x4 array above, what i would very much like to be able to do is, for instance, assign the first three rows of M to a, b, and c respectively (exactly as above) and the rest of the rows (i have no idea how many there will be, just some positive integer) to a single container, all_the_rest = []. I'm not sure if i have explained this clearly; in any event, if i get feedback i'll promptly edit my Question.

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• Undefined method `add' on a cucumber step that usually works.

  - by Josiah Kiehl

  I have a path defined: when /the admin home\s?page/ "/admin/" I have scenario that is passing: Scenario: Let admins see the admin homepage Given "pojo" is logged in And "pojo" is an "admin" And I am on the admin home page Then I should see "Hi there." And I have a scenario that is failing: Scenario: Review flagged photo Given "pojo" is logged in And "pojo" is an "admin" ...bunch of steps that create stuff in the database... And I am on the admin home page Then ... the rest of the steps The step that fails in the second one is "And I am on the admin home page" which passes just fine in the first scenario. Here's the error I get: And I am on the admin home page # features/step_definitions/web_steps.rb:18 undefined method `add' for {}:Hash (NoMethodError) ./app/controllers/admin_controller.rb:13:in `index' ./app/controllers/admin_controller.rb:11:in `each' ./app/controllers/admin_controller.rb:11:in `index' /usr/lib/ruby/1.8/benchmark.rb:308:in `realtime' ./features/step_definitions/web_steps.rb:19:in `/^(?:|I )am on (.+)$/' features/admin.feature:52:in `And I am on the admin home page' This is very odd... why would it be fine in the first case, and not in the second where the only difference are a bunch of steps that create records in the db? [edit] Here's the add stuff to database step: Given /^there is a "([^\"]*)" with the following:$/ do |model, table| model.constantize.create!(table.rows_hash) end

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• White space problem while using php proxy

  - by KCC

  Hi, I'm using a php web proxy with my URL already encoded and keep having getting a malformed request error once I have any text after a %20. Any idea why this would be happening? The web proxy code I'm using is just a sample that I took from yahoo services: <?php // PHP Proxy example for Yahoo! Web services. // Responds to both HTTP GET and POST requests // // Author: Jason Levitt // December 7th, 2005 // // Allowed hostname (api.local and api.travel are also possible here) define ('HOSTNAME', 'http://search.yahooapis.com/'); // Get the REST call path from the AJAX application // Is it a POST or a GET? $path = ($_POST['yws_path']) ? $_POST['yws_path'] : $_GET['yws_path']; $url = HOSTNAME.$path; // Open the Curl session $session = curl_init($url); // If it's a POST, put the POST data in the body if ($_POST['yws_path']) { $postvars = ''; while ($element = current($_POST)) { $postvars .= urlencode(key($_POST)).'='.urlencode($element).'&'; next($_POST); } curl_setopt ($session, CURLOPT_POST, true); curl_setopt ($session, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $postvars); } // Don't return HTTP headers. Do return the contents of the call curl_setopt($session, CURLOPT_HEADER, false); curl_setopt($session, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); // Make the call $xml = curl_exec($session); // The web service returns XML. Set the Content-Type appropriately //header("Content-Type: text/xml"); echo $xml; curl_close($session); ?>

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• Looking for a specific featured content slider script - PHP (and jQuery, I think)

  - by Sootah

  I was looking around a few days ago for a new script to replace the featured content area on my website's current implementation. Randomly, I can across a gorgeous one that I have not been able to find again because, like an idiot, I didn't bookmark the page. It's difficult to explain what the slider looked like, so I'll try to make a crude ASCII image of it: When you would hover your mouse over one of the "title" areas that were visible, the rest of the tags would slide to the right and show the one you were hovering on. You could also hover the mouse over a tab on the right and the tabs would collapse left for the same effect. I don't know if this particular effect has a specific name to it, but for the life of me I cannot find this script again, or anything even like it. It was gorgeous. I've resorted to combing through my browser history, but there is sooooo much of it, and I cannot remember what day I saw it. So, if any of you know either what the name of this effect is, or even BETTER, what script I'm talking about, I would REAAAAALLLLYYY appreciate a link! Thanks as always! -Sootah

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• Is it safe to use random Unicode for complex delimiter sequences in strings?

  - by ccomet

  Question: In terms of program stability and ensuring that the system will actually operate, how safe is it to use chars like ¦, § or ‡ for complex delimiter sequences in strings? Can I reliable believe that I won't run into any issues in a program reading these incorrectly? I am working in a system, using C# code, in which I have to store a fairly complex set of information within a single string. The readability of this string is only necessary on the computer side, end-users should only ever see the information after it has been parsed by the appropriate methods. Because some of the data in these strings will be collections of variable size, I use different delimiters to identify what parts of the string correspond to a certain tier of organization. There are enough cases that the standard sets of ;, |, and similar ilk have been exhausted. I considered two-char delimiters, like ;# or ;|, but I felt that it would be very inefficient. There probably isn't that large of a performance difference in storing with one char versus two chars, but when I have the option of picking the smaller option, it just feels wrong to pick the larger one. So finally, I considered using the set of characters like the double dagger and section. They only take up one char, and they are definitely not going to show up in the actual text that I'll be storing, so they won't be confused for anything. But character encoding is finicky. While the visibility to the end user is meaningless (since they, in fact, won't see it), I became recently concerned about how the programs in the system will read it. The string is stored in one database, while a separate program is responsible for both encoding and decoding the string into different object types for the rest of the application to work with. And if something is expected to be written one way, is possibly written another, then maybe the whole system will fail and I can't really let that happen. So is it safe to use these kind of chars for background delimiters?

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• need help building a stored procedure that takes rows from one table into another.

  - by MyHeadHurts

  alright i built this stored procedure to take the columns from a stagging table and copy them into my other table, but if these four columns are duplicates it wont insert the rows, works fine. however, what i want to do is if only the tour, taskname and deptdate are the same, then i will update the rest of the information. and if all four columns are the same dont instert. INSERT INTO dashboardtasks1 SELECT [tour], [taskname], [deptdate], [tasktype], [desc], [duedate], [compdate], [comments], [agent], [compby], [graceperiod] FROM staggingtasks WHERE NOT EXISTS(SELECT * FROM dashboardtasks1 WHERE (staggingtasks.tour=dashboardtasks1.tour and staggingtasks.taskname=dashboardtasks1.taskname and staggingtasks.deptdate=dashboardtasks1.deptdate and staggingtasks.duedate=dashboardtasks1.duedate ) ) i saw something like this INSERT INTO table (a,b,c) VALUES (1,2,3) ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE c=c+1; UPDATE table SET c=c+1 WHERE a=1; but how could i do it if my stated 3 columns are the samed then update? or is there a way to do this with an if statement and use 2 different queries, but how would my if statement work would it check if the row exists in the table i am uploading to and then run the insert statement? or what if i did something like IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM dashboardtasks WHERE staggingtasks.tour=dashboardtasks.tour and staggingtasks.taskname=dashboardtasks.taskname and staggingtasks.deptdate=dashboardtasks.deptdate ) begin UPDATE [dashboardtasks] SET [tour] = staggingtasks.tour, [taskname] = staggingtasks.taskname, [deptdate] = staggingtasks.deptdate, [tasktype] = staggingtasks.tasktype, [desc] = staggingtasks.desc, [duedate] = staggingtasks.duedate, [compdate] = staggingtasks.compdate, [comments] = staggingtasks.comments, [agent] = staggingtasks.agent, [compby] = staggingtasks.compby, [graceperiod] = staggingtasks.graceperiod end else EXISTS (SELECT * FROM dashboardtasks WHERE staggingtasks.tour=dashboardtasks.tour and staggingtasks.taskname=dashboardtasks.taskname and staggingtasks.deptdate=dashboardtasks.deptdate and staggingtasks.duedate=dashboardtasks.duedate ) begin INSERT INTO dashboardtasks1 SELECT [tour], [taskname], [deptdate], [tasktype], [desc], [duedate], [compdate], [comments], [agent], [compby], [graceperiod] FROM staggingtasks WHERE NOT EXISTS(SELECT * FROM dashboardtasks1 WHERE (staggingtasks.tour=dashboardtasks1.tour and staggingtasks.taskname=dashboardtasks1.taskname and staggingtasks.deptdate=dashboardtasks1.deptdate and staggingtasks.duedate=dashboardtasks1.duedate ) ) end end

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• Silverlight Async Design Pattern Issue

  - by Mike Mengell

  I'm in the middle of a Silverlight application and I have a function which needs to call a webservice and using the result complete the rest of the function. My issue is that I would have normally done a synchronous web service call got the result and using that carried on with the function. As Silverlight doesn't support synchronous web service calls without additional custom classes to mimic it, I figure it would be best to go with the flow of async rather than fight it. So my question relates around whats the best design pattern for working with async calls in program flow. In the following example I want to use the myFunction TypeId parameter depending on the return value of the web service call. But I don't want to call the web service until this function is called. How can I alter my code design to allow for the async call? string _myPath; bool myFunction(Guid TypeId) { WS_WebService1.WS_WebService1SoapClient proxy = new WS_WebService1.WS_WebService1SoapClient(); proxy.GetPathByTypeIdCompleted += new System.EventHandler<WS_WebService1.GetPathByTypeIdCompleted>(proxy_GetPathByTypeIdCompleted); proxy.GetPathByTypeIdAsync(TypeId); // Get return value if (myPath == "\\Server1") { //Use the TypeId parameter in here } } void proxy_GetPathByTypeIdCompleted(object sender, WS_WebService1.GetPathByTypeIdCompletedEventArgs e) { string server = e.Result.Server; myPath = '\\' + server; } Thanks in advance, Mike

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• Apache RewriteRule: it is possible to 'detect' the first and second path segment?

  - by DaNieL

  Im really really a newbie in regexp and I can’t figure out how to do that. My goal is to have the RewriteRule to 'slice' the request URL path in 3 parts: example.com/foo #should return: index.php?a=foo&b=&c= example.com/foo/bar #should return: index.php?a=foo&b=bar&c= example.com/foo/bar/baz #should return: index.php?a=foo&b=bar&c=baz example.com/foo/bar/baz/bee #should return: index.php?a=foo&b=bar&c=baz/bee example.com/foo/bar/baz/bee/apple #should return: index.php?a=foo&b=bar&c=baz/bee/apple example.com/foo/bar/baz/bee/apple/and/whatever/else/no/limit/in/those/extra/parameters #should return: index.php?a=foo&b=bar&c=baz/bee/apple/and/whatever/else/no/limit/in/those/extra/parameters In short, the first segment in the URL path (foo) should be given to a, the second segment (bar) to b, and the rest of the string in c I wroted this one <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !=/favicon.ico RewriteRule ^(([a-z0-9/]))?(([a-z0-9/]+))?(([a-z0-9]+))(.*)$ index.php?a=$1&b=$2&c=$3 [L,QSA] </IfModule> But obviously doesn’t work, and I don’t even know if what I want is possible. Any suggestion? EDIT: After playing with coach manager, I got this one working too: RewriteRule ^([^/]*)?/?([^/]*)?/?(.*)?$ index.php?a=$1&b=$2&c=$3 [L,QSA]

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• how to Compute the average probe length for success and failure - Linear probe (Hash Tables)

  - by fang_dejavu

  hi everyone, I'm doing an assignment for my Data Structures class. we were asked to to study linear probing with load factors of .1, .2 , .3, ...., and .9. The formula for testing is: The average probe length using linear probing is roughly Success-- ( 1 + 1/(1-L)**2)/2 or Failure-- (1+1(1-L))/2. we are required to find the theoretical using the formula above which I did(just plug the load factor in the formula), then we have to calculate the empirical (which I not quite sure how to do). here is the rest of the requirements **For each load factor, 10,000 randomly generated positive ints between 1 and 50000 (inclusive) will be inserted into a table of the "right" size, where "right" is strictly based upon the load factor you are testing. Repeats are allowed. Be sure that your formula for randomly generated ints is correct. There is a class called Random in java.util. USE it! After a table of the right (based upon L) size is loaded with 10,000 ints, do 100 searches of newly generated random ints from the range of 1 to 50000. Compute the average probe length for each of the two formulas and indicate the denominators used in each calculationSo, for example, each test for a .5 load would have a table of size approximately 20,000 (adjusted to be prime) and similarly each test for a .9 load would have a table of approximate size 10,000/.9 (again adjusted to be prime). The program should run displaying the various load factors tested, the average probe for each search (the two denominators used to compute the averages will add to 100), and the theoretical answers using the formula above. .** how do I calculate the empirical success?

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• Minimal assembler program for CP/M 3.1 (z80)

  - by Andrew J. Brehm

  I seem to be losing the battle against my stupidity. This site explains the system calls under various versions of CP/M. However, when I try to use call 2 (C_WRITE, console output), nothing much happens. I have the following code. ORG 100h LD E,'a' LD C,2 CALL 5 CALL 0 I recite this here from memory. If there are typos, rest assured they were not in the original since the file did compile and I had a COM file to start. I am thinking the lines mean the following: Make sure this gets loaded at address 100h (0h to FFh being the zero page). Load ASCII 'a' into E register for system call 2. Load integer 2 into C register for system call 2. Make system call (JMP to system call is at address 5 in zero page). End program (Exit command is at address 0 in zero page). The program starts and exits with no problems. If I remove the last command, it hangs the computer (which I guess is also expected and shows that CALL 0 works). However, it does not print the ASCII character. (But it does print an extra new line, but the system might have done that.) How can I get my CP/M program to do what the system call is supposed to do? What am I doing wrong?

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