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  • Java Best Practice for type resolution at runtime.

    - by Brian
    I'm trying to define a class (or set of classes which implement the same interface) that will behave as a loosely typed object (like JavaScript). They can hold any sort of data and operations on them depend on the underlying type. I have it working in three different ways but none seem ideal. These test versions only allow strings and integers and the only operation is add. Adding integers results in the sum of the integer values, adding strings concatenates the strings and adding an integer to a string converts the integer to a string and concatenates it with the string. The final version will have more types (Doubles, Arrays, JavaScript-like objects where new properties can be added dynamically) and more operations. Way 1: public interface DynObject1 { @Override public String toString(); public DynObject1 add(DynObject1 d); public DynObject1 addTo(DynInteger1 d); public DynObject1 addTo(DynString1 d); } public class DynInteger1 implements DynObject1 { private int value; public DynInteger1(int v) { value = v; } @Override public String toString() { return Integer.toString(value); } public DynObject1 add(DynObject1 d) { return d.addTo(this); } public DynObject1 addTo(DynInteger1 d) { return new DynInteger1(d.value + value); } public DynObject1 addTo(DynString1 d) { return new DynString1(d.toString()+Integer.toString(value)); } } ...and similar for DynString1 Way 2: public interface DynObject2 { @Override public String toString(); public DynObject2 add(DynObject2 d); } public class DynInteger2 implements DynObject2 { private int value; public DynInteger2(int v) { value = v; } @Override public String toString() { return Integer.toString(value); } public DynObject2 add(DynObject2 d) { Class c = d.getClass(); if(c==DynInteger2.class) { return new DynInteger2(value + ((DynInteger2)d).value); } else { return new DynString2(toString() + d.toString()); } } } ...and similar for DynString2 Way 3: public class DynObject3 { private enum ObjectType { Integer, String }; Object value; ObjectType type; public DynObject3(Integer v) { value = v; type = ObjectType.Integer; } public DynObject3(String v) { value = v; type = ObjectType.String; } @Override public String toString() { return value.toString(); } public DynObject3 add(DynObject3 d) { if(type==ObjectType.Integer && d.type==ObjectType.Integer) { return new DynObject3(Integer.valueOf(((Integer)value).intValue()+((Integer)value).intValue())); } else { return new DynObject3(value.toString()+d.value.toString()); } } } With the if-else logic I could use value.getClass()==Integer.class instead of storing the type but with more types I'd change this to use a switch statement and Java doesn't allow switch to use Classes. Anyway... My question is what is the best way to go about something thike this?

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  • Solving a cyclical dependency in Ninject (Compact Framework)

    - by Alex
    I'm trying to use Ninject for dependency injection in my MVP application. However, I have a problem because I have two types that depend on each other, thus creating a cyclic dependency. At first, I understand that it was a problem, because I had both types require each other in their constructors. Therefore, I moved one of the dependencies to a property injection instead, but I'm still getting the error message. What am I doing wrong? This is the presenter: public class LoginPresenter : Presenter<ILoginView>, ILoginPresenter { public LoginPresenter( ILoginView view ) : base( view ) { } } and this is the view: public partial class LoginForm : Form, ILoginView { [Inject] public ILoginPresenter Presenter { private get; set; } public LoginForm() { InitializeComponent(); } } And here's the code that causes the exception: static class Program { /// <summary> /// The main entry point for the application. /// </summary> [MTAThread] static void Main() { // Show the login form Views.LoginForm loginForm = Kernel.Get<Views.Interfaces.ILoginView>() as Views.LoginForm; Application.Run( loginForm ); } } The exception happens on the line with the Kernel.Get<>() call. Here it is: Error activating ILoginPresenter using binding from ILoginPresenter to LoginPresenter A cyclical dependency was detected between the constructors of two services. Activation path: 4) Injection of dependency ILoginPresenter into property Presenter of type LoginForm 3) Injection of dependency ILoginView into parameter view of constructor of type LoginPresenter 2) Injection of dependency ILoginPresenter into property Presenter of type LoginForm 1) Request for ILoginView Suggestions: 1) Ensure that you have not declared a dependency for ILoginPresenter on any implementations of the service. 2) Consider combining the services into a single one to remove the cycle. 3) Use property injection instead of constructor injection, and implement IInitializable if you need initialization logic to be run after property values have been injected. Why doesn't Ninject understand that since one is constructor injection and the other is property injection, this can work just fine? I even read somewhere looking for the solution to this problem that Ninject supposedly gets this right as long as the cyclic dependency isn't both in the constructors. Apparently not, though. Any help resolving this would be much appreciated.

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  • RadioButton checkedchanged event firing multiple times

    - by kash3
    Hi, I am trying to add multiple radiobutton columns to my gridview dynamically in the code and i want to implement some logic which involves database fetch in the checkedchanged event of radiobuttons but some how the checked changed event is being fired multiple times for each row. Following is the code: aspx: <asp:GridView ID="GridView1" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="False" BackColor="White" BorderColor="#CC9966" BorderStyle="None" EnableViewState="true" BorderWidth="1px" CellPadding="4" Font-Names="Verdana"> <FooterStyle BackColor="#FFFFCC" ForeColor="#330099" /> <Columns> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Select One"> <ItemTemplate> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Select Two"> <ItemTemplate> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="lblval" runat="server" Text="!" ForeColor="Red" Visible="false"/> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> **code behind** void GridView1_RowDataBound(object sender, GridViewRowEventArgs e) { if (e.Row.DataItem != null) { DataRowView dvRowview = (DataRowView)e.Row.DataItem; int currentRow = GridView1.Rows.Count; RadioButton rdoSelect1 = new RadioButton(); rdoSelect1.GroupName = "Select" + currentRow; rdoSelect1.ID = string.Concat("rdoSelect1", currentRow); rdoSelect1.AutoPostBack = true; rdoSelect1.CheckedChanged += new EventHandler(rdoSelect_CheckedChanged); e.Row.Cells[0].Controls.Add(rdoSelect1); RadioButton rdoSelect2 = new RadioButton(); rdoSelect2.GroupName = "Select" + currentRow; rdoSelect2.ID = string.Concat("rdoSelect2", currentRow); rdoSelect2.AutoPostBack = true; rdoSelect2.CheckedChanged += new EventHandler(rdoSelect_CheckedChanged); e.Row.Cells[1].Controls.Add(rdoSelect2); if (!IsPostBack) { e.Row.Cells[e.Row.Cells.Count - 1].Controls[1].Visible = false; if (e.Row.Cells[0] != null && Convert.ToBoolean(dvRowview["Select1"]) == true) rdoSelect1.Checked = true; else rdoSelect1.Checked = false; if (e.Row.Cells[0] != null && Convert.ToBoolean(dvRowview["Select2"]) == true) rdoSelect2.Checked = true; else rdoSelect2.Checked = false; } } } void rdoSelect_CheckedChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { RadioButton rdoSelectedOption = (RadioButton)sender; GridViewRow selRow = rdoSelectedOption.NamingContainer as GridViewRow; if (rdoSelectedOption.Checked) selRow.Cells[selRow.Cells.Count - 1].Controls[1].Visible = true; else selRow.Cells[selRow.Cells.Count - 1].Controls[1].Visible = false; } i want the checkedchanged event to fire only once for a group name and row.

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  • drupal (CMS) or codeigniter (MVC) for creating a new web application?

    - by ajsie
    im going to create a new web application that is very customized. it will contain images, that are fully searchable - in a very, very customized way. when you click on the pictures you can add comments and so on. it requires users to be registered, but the registration/login process will be highly customized too. at the moment im using CodeIgniter for this. But i've read a lot of posts about CMS like Drupal and it sounds like i could let it handle basic stuff, maybe design and other front end work. i have no experience with CMS, in fact, i just started to use a MVC framework like CI and was impressed of how much easier it gets to start developing. so i wonder, if i'm going to create this kind of application, could i use drupal and then add the usual stuff, as i was going to do with CodeIgniter, like controllers, views, models, config files, my own libraries and so on? how does it work on a system like Drupal. how do you code PHP with it as with any MVC framework. it sounds like it has a lot of modules, i just wonder, if i can use it as a MVC framework but have the benefit of having all these basic stuff and design ready to use? cause then it sounds like the best "library" to provide for a web application from scratch. or is it difficult to create a customized app with it? i guess it has modules like images and users, but then how could i customize these so that every image has tags on it and country information, or have every user subscribing to changes to an image, that email will be sent to users and so on? cause i guess its easy to install a module. the question is, how do i customize it. maybe i don't need all that table columns. maybe i want to add/remove business logic. what are the pros and cons with using Drupal for this? is it even the right way to go? can you make a Stackoverflow with Drupal? Facebook? Twitter? Youtube? assuming that you know php of course. share your thoughts cause im totally new on creating a web application! thanks

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  • Retain a list of objects and pass it to the create/edit view when validation fails in ASP.NET MVC 2

    - by brainnovative
    I am binding a Foreign key property in my model. I am passing a list of possible values for that property in my model. The model looks something like this: public class UserModel { public bool Email { get; set; } public bool Name { get; set; } public RoleModel Role { get; set; } public IList<RoleModel> Roles { get; set; } } public class RoleModel { public string RoleName { get; set; } } This is what I have in the controller: public ActionResult Create() { IList<RoleModel> roles = RoleModel.FromArray(_userService.GetAllRoles()); UserModel model = new UserModel() { Roles = roles }; return View(model); } In the view I have: <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.Role) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.DropDownListFor(model => model.Role, new SelectList(Model.Roles, "RoleName", "RoleName", Model.Role))%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Role)%> </div> What do I need to do to get the list of roles back to my controller to pass it again to the view when validation fails. This is what I need: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Create(UserModel model) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { // insert logic here } //the validation fails so I pass the model again to the view for user to update data but model.Roles is null :( return View(model); } As written in the comments above I need to pass the model with the list of roles again to my view but model.Roles is null. Currently I ask the service again for the roles (model.Roles = RoleModel.FromArray(_userService.GetAllRoles());) but I don't want to add an extra overhead of getting the list from DB when I have already done that.. Anyone knows how to do it?

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  • Deleting a node in a family tree

    - by user559142
    Hi, I'm trying to calclulate the best way to delete a node in a family tree. First, a little description of how the app works. My app makes the following assumption: Any node can only have one partner. That means that any child a single node has, it will also be the partner nodes child too. Therefore, step relations, divorces etc aren't compensated for. A node always has two parents - A mother and father cannot be added seperately. If the user doesn't know the details - the nodes attributes are set to a default value. Also any node can add parents, siblings, children to itself. Therefore in law relationships can be added. I have the following classes: FamilyMember String fName; String lName; String dob; String gender; FamilyMember mother, father, partner; ArrayListchildren; int index; int generation; void linkParents(); void linkPartner(); void addChild(); //gets & sets for fields Family ArrayListfamily; void addMember(); void removeMember(); FamilyMember getFamilyMember(index); ArrayListgetFamilyMembers(); FamilyTree Family family; void removeMember(); //need help void displayFamilyMembers(); void addFamilyMember(); void enterDetails(); void displayAncestors(); void displayDescendants(); void printDescendants(); FamilyMember findRootNode(); void sortGenerations(); void getRootGeneration(); I am having trouble with identifying the logic for removing a member. All other functions work fine. Has anyone developed a family tree app before who knows how to deal with removing various different nodes in the family "tree"? e.g. removing a leaf removing a leaf with partner (what if partner has parents etc) removing a parent It seems to be another recursive property but my head is swelling from over thought.

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  • How do I 'globally' catch exceptions thrown in object instances.

    - by SleepyBobos
    I am currently writing a winforms application (C#). I am making use of the Enterprise Library Exception Handling Block, following a fairly standard approach from what I can see. IE : In the Main method of Program.cs I have wired up event handler to Application.ThreadException event etc. This approach works well and handles the applications exceptional circumstances. In one of my business objects I throw various exceptions in the Set accessor of one of the objects properties set { if (value > MaximumTrim) throw new CustomExceptions.InvalidTrimValue("The value of the minimum trim..."); if (!availableSubMasterWidthSatisfiesAllPatterns(value)) throw new CustomExceptions.InvalidTrimValue("Another message..."); _minimumTrim = value; } My logic for this approach (without turning this into a 'when to throw exceptions' discussion) is simply that the business objects are responsible for checking business rule constraints and throwing an exception that can bubble up and be caught as required. It should be noted that in the UI of my application I do explictly check the values that the public property is being set to (and take action there displaying friendly dialog etc) but with throwing the exception I am also covering the situation where my business object may not be used by a UI eg : the Property is being set by another business object for example. Anyway I think you all get the idea. My issue is that these exceptions are not being caught by the handler wired up to Application.ThreadException and I don't understand why. From other reading I have done the Application.ThreadException event and it handler "... catches any exception that occurs on the main GUI thread". Are the exceptions being raised in my business object not in this thread? I have not created any new threads. I can get the approach to work if I update the code as follows, explicity calling the event handler that is wired to Application.ThreadException. This is the approach outlined in Enterprise Library samples. However this approach requires me to wrap any exceptions thrown in a try catch, something I was trying to avoid by using a 'global' handler to start with. try { if (value > MaximumTrim) throw new CustomExceptions.InvalidTrimValue("The value of the minimum..."); if (!availableSubMasterWidthSatisfiesAllPatterns(value)) throw new CustomExceptions.InvalidTrimValue("Another message"); _minimumTrim = value; } catch (Exception ex) { Program.ThreadExceptionHandler.ProcessUnhandledException(ex); } I have also investigated using wiring a handler up to AppDomain.UnhandledException event but this does not catch the exceptions either. I would be good if someone could explain to me why my exceptions are not being caught by my global exception handler in the first code sample. Is there another approach I am missing or am I stuck with wrapping code in try catch, shown above, as required?

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  • How to pass operators as parameters

    - by Rodion Ingles
    I have to load an array of doubles from a file, multiply each element by a value in a table (different values for different elements), do some work on it, invert the multiplication (that is, divide) and then save the data back to file. Currently I implement the multiplication and division process in two separate methods. Now there is some extra work behind the scenes but apart from the specific statements where the multiplication/division occurs, the rest of the code is identical. As you can imagine, with this approach you have to be very careful making any changes. The surrounding code is not trivial, so its either a case of manually editing each method or copying changes from one method to the other and remembering to change the * and / operators. After too many close calls I am fed up of this and would like to make a common function which implements the common logic and two wrapper functions which pass which operator to use as a parameter. My initial approach was to use function pointers: MultiplyData(double data) { TransformData(data, &(operator *)); } DivideData(double data) { TransformData(data, &(operator /)); } TransformData(double data, double (*func)(double op1, double op2)) { /* Do stuff here... */ } However, I can't pass the operators as pointers (is this because it is an operator on a native type?), so I tried to use function objects. Initially I thought that multiplies and divides functors in <functional> would be ideal: MultiplyData(double data) { std::multiplies<double> multFunct; TransformData(data, &multFunct); } DivideData(double data) { std::divides<double> divFunct; TransformData(data, &divFunct); } TransformData(double data, std::binary_function<double, double, double> *funct) { /* Do stuff here... */ } As you can see I was trying to use a base class pointer to pass the functor polymorphically. The problem is that std::binary_function does not declare an operator() member for the child classes to implement. Is there something I am missing, or is the solution to implement my own functor heirarchy (which really seems more trouble than it is worth)?

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  • .NET XmlSerializer fails with List<T>

    - by Redshirt
    I'm using a singleton class to save all my settings info. It's first utilized by calling Settings.ValidateSettings(@"C:\MyApp"). The problem I'm having is that 'List Contacts' is causing the xmlserializer to fail to write the settings file, or to load said settings. If I comment out the List<T> then I have no problems saving/loading the xml file. What am I doing wrong? // The actual settings to save public class MyAppSettings { public bool FirstLoad { get; set; } public string VehicleFolderName { get; set; } public string ContactFolderName { get; set; } public List<ContactInfo> Contacts { get { if (contacts == null) contacts = new List<ContactInfo>(); return contacts; } set { contacts = value; } } private List<ContactInfo> contacts; } // The class in which the settings are manipulated public static class Settings { public static string SettingPath; private static MyAppSettings instance; public static MyAppSettings Instance { get { if (instance == null) instance = new MyAppSettings(); return instance; } set { instance = value; } } public static void InitializeSettings(string path) { SettingPath = Path.GetFullPath(path + "\\MyApp.xml"); if (File.Exists(SettingPath)) { LoadSettings(); } else { Instance.FirstLoad = true; Instance.VehicleFolderName = "Cars"; Instance.ContactFolderName = "Contacts"; SaveSettingsFile(); } } // load the settings from the xml file private static void LoadSettings() { XmlSerializer ser = new XmlSerializer(typeof(MyAppSettings)); TextReader reader = new StreamReader(SettingPath); Instance = (MyAppSettings)ser.Deserialize(reader); reader.Close(); } // Save the settings to the xml file public static void SaveSettingsFile() { XmlSerializer ser = new XmlSerializer(typeof(MyAppSettings)); TextWriter writer = new StreamWriter(SettingPath); ser.Serialize(writer, Settings.Instance); writer.Close(); } public static bool ValidateSettings(string initialFolder) { try { Settings.InitializeSettings(initialFolder); } catch (Exception e) { return false; } // Do some validation logic here return true; } } // A utility class to contain each contact detail public class ContactInfo { public string ContactID; public string Name; public string PhoneNumber; public string Details; public bool Active; public int SortOrder; }

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  • Remove Item From Object SubList (LINQ)

    - by X3074861X
    I have an object that looks like this : public class Consortium { public string Id { get; set; } [JsonConverter(typeof(EnumDescriptionConverter))] public SourceType Type { get; set; } public List<UserLibrary> Branches { get; set; } } Each Consortium has a list of UserLibrary's associated with it, and that class looks like this : public class UserLibrary { public string LibraryId { get; set; } public string RetailerId {get; set;} public string UserId { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public DateTime CreatedAt { get; set; } } I have a method which will allow the user to remove a library from one of their consortium (note: There may be many branches associated to the consortium). However, I'm only being supplied a LibraryId, so I'm forced to traverse their list of Consortium, find which one contains the given id, then iterate over the branches and remove the one that matches the id. Here is how I'm currently accomplishing this : // Get the current list of consortiums var user = _mediator.Send(new GetUserProfileCommand { UserProfileId = _principle.UserProfileId }); var userConsortia = user.SavedConsortia; // the consortium to remove the library from var branchToRemove = _libraryService.GetLibrary(id); var consortRemove = new UserConsortium(); foreach (var userConsortium in userConsortia) { if (userConsortium.Branches.FirstOrDefault(c => string.Equals(c.LibraryId, id, StringComparison.OrdinalIgnoreCase)) != null) { consortRemove = userConsortium; } } // if the consortium id is null, something is f* if (consortRemove.Id == null) { return new JsonDotNetResult(HttpStatusCode.BadRequest); } // first remove the consortia userConsortia.Remove(consortRemove); // remove the branch from the consortium consortRemove.Branches.RemoveAll(ul => string.Equals(ul.LibraryId, id, StringComparison.OrdinalIgnoreCase)); // add it back in without the branch userConsortia.Add(consortRemove); Question : Is there a LINQ expression I'm missing here that can help me consolidate this logic, or is there a better way of doing this?

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  • remove data layer and put into it's own domain

    - by user334768
    I have a SL4 application that uses EF4 & RIA Services. DB is SQL 2008. All is working well. Now I want to put the Database and web services on one domain (A.com) with the web service exposing the same methods available in my working project. (one listed at top of message) Then put a Silverlight application (same one as above) on domain(B.com) and call the web services on A.com. I thought I had a fair understanding of RIA Services. Enough to get the above application working. Now when I say "working" I do mean on my local dev machine. I have yet to deployed as SL4 & .NET 4 application to my hosting site. But I don't think I understand it well enough. I normally create a new business app, add EF then create the RIA DomainService. Add any [Includes] I need, modify my linq queries and run application. And it works. Now I need to break off my data layer and put it on another hosting site (A.com) And put my UI and business logic on another hosting site (B.com) I think I need to do the following : On the Database & web service site: domain(A.com) create application, create EF4, create RIA Services and deploy. At this time, are the methods exposed available as a "WEB SERVICE" to other applications calling by http:// a.com/serviceName.svc address? I think I need to do the following : On the application site : domain(B.com) create a business application (later will need authentication and navigation). How can I create an EF when I don't have access to the database? (I know I do have access but I want know what happens here when I do not have access to the database, but only data provided by a web service) If I can not create an EF how do I create my RIA Service? I hope any one who takes time to help me understands what I'm asking. Sorry so long.

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  • ANSI C as core of a C# project? Is this possible?

    - by Nektarios
    I'm writing a NON-GUI app which I want to be cross platform between OS X and Windows. I'm looking at the following architecture, but I don't know if it will work on the windows side: (Platform specific entry point) - ANSI C main loop = ANSI C model code doing data processing / logic = (Platform specific helpers) So the core stuff I'm planning to write in regular ANSI C, because A) it should be platform independent, B) I'm extremely comfortable with C, C) It can do the job and do it well (Platform specific entry point) can be written in whatever necessary to get the job done, this is a small amount of code, doesn't matter to me. (Platform specific helpers) is the sticky thing. This is stuff like parsing XML, accessing databases, graphics toolkit stuff, whatever. Things that aren't easy in C. Things that modern languages/frameworks will give for free. On OS X this code will be written in Objective-C interfacing with Cocoa. On Windows I'm thinking my best bet is to use C# So on Windows my architecture (simplified) looks like (C# or C?) - ANSI C - C# Is this possible? Some thoughts/suggestions so far.. 1) Compile my C core as a .dll -- this is fine, but seems there's no way to call my C# helpers unless I can somehow get function pointers and pass them to my core, but that seems unlikely 2) Compile a C .exe and a C# .exe and have them talk via shared memory or some kind of IPC. I'm not entirely opposed to this but it obviously introduces a lot of complexity so it doesn't seem ideal 3) Instead of C# use C++, it gets me some nice data management stuff and nice helper code. And I can mix it pretty easily. And the work I do could probably easily port to Linux. But I really don't like C++, and I don't want this to turn in to a 3rd-party-library-fest. Not that it's a huge deal, but it's 2010.. anything for basic data management should be built in. And targetting Linux is really not a priority. Note that no "total" alternatives are OK as suggested in other similar questions on SO I've seen; java, RealBasic, mono.. this is an extremely performance intensive application doing soft realtime for game/simulation purposes, I need C & friends here to do it right (maybe you don't, but I do)

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  • How to design service that can provide interface as JAX-WS web service, or via JMS, or as local meth

    - by kevinegham
    Using a typical JEE framework, how do I develop and deploy a service that can be called as a web service (with a WSDL interface), be invoked via JMS messages, or called directly from another service in the same container? Here's some more context: Currently I am responsible for a service (let's call it Service X) with the following properties: Interface definition is a human readable document kept up-to-date manually. Accepts HTTP form-encoded requests to a single URL. Sends plain old XML responses (no schema). Uses Apache to accept requests + a proprietary application server (not servlet or EJB based) containing all logic which runs in a seperate tier. Makes heavy use of a relational database. Called both by internal applications written in a variety of languages and also by a small number of third-parties. I want to (or at least, have been told to!): Switch to a well-known (pref. open source) JEE stack such as JBoss, Glassfish, etc. Split Service X into Service A and Service B so that we can take Service B down for maintenance without affecting Service A. Note that Service B will depend on (i.e. need to make requests to) Service A. Make both services easier for third parties to integrate with by providing at least a WS-I style interface (WSDL + SOAP + XML + HTTP) and probably a JMS interface too. In future we might consider a more lightweight API too (REST + JSON? Google Protocol Buffers?) but that's a nice to have. Additional consideration are: On a smaller deployment, Service A and Service B will likely to running on the same machine and it would seem rather silly for them to use HTTP or a message bus to communicate; better if they could run in the same container and make method calls to each other. Backwards compatibility with the existing ad-hoc Service X interface is not required, and we're not planning on re-using too much of the existing code for the new services. I'm happy with either contract-first (WSDL I guess) or (annotated) code-first development. Apologies if my terminology is a bit hazy - I'm pretty experienced with Java and web programming in general, but am finding it quite hard to get up to speed with all this enterprise / SOA stuff - it seems I have a lot to learn! I'm also not very used to using a framework rather than simply writing code that calls some packages to do things. I've got as far as downloading Glassfish, knocking up a simple WSDL file and using wsimport + a little dummy code to turn that into a WAR file which I've deployed.

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  • SVG via dynamic XML+XSL

    - by Daniel
    This is a bit of a vague notion which I have been running over in my head, and which I am very curious if there is an elegant method of solving. Perhaps it should be taken as a thought experiment. Imagine you have an XML schema with a corresponding XSL transform, which renders the XML as SVG in the browser. The XSL generates SVG with appropriate Javascript handlers that, ultimately, implement editing-like functionality such that properties of the objects or their locations on the SVG canvas can be edited by the user. For instance, an element can be dragged from one location to another. Now, this isn't particularly difficult - the drag/drop example is simply a matter of changing the (x,y) coordinates of the SVG object, or a resize operation would be a simple matter of changing its width or height. But is there an elegant way to have Javascript work on the DOM of the source XML document instead of the rendered SVG? Why, you ask? Well, imagine you have very complex XSL transforms, where the modification of one property results in complex changes to the SVG. You want to maintain simplicity in your Javascript code, but also a simple way to persist the modified XML back to the server. Some possibilities of how this may function: After modification of the source DOM, simply re-run the XSL transform and replace the original. Downside: brute force, potentially expensive operation. Create id/class naming conventions in the source and target XML/SVG so elements can be related back to each other, and do an XSL transform on only a subset of the new DOM. In other words, modify temporary DOM, apply XSL to it, remove changed elements from SVG, and insert the new one. Downside: May not be possible to apply XSL to temporary in-browser DOMs(?). Also, perhaps a bit convoluted or ugly to maintain. I think that it may be possible to come up with a framework that handles the second scenario, but the challenge would be making it lightweight and not heavily tied to the actual XML schema. Any ideas or other possibilities? Or is there maybe an existing method of doing this which I'm not aware of? UPDATE: To clarify, as I mentioned in a comment below, this aids in separating the draw code from the edit code. For a more concrete example of how this is useful, imagine an element which determines how it is drawn dependent on the value of a property of an adjacent element. It's better to condense that logic directly in the draw code instead of also duplicating it in the edit code.

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  • How to store array of NSManagedObjects in an NSManagedObject

    - by David Tay
    I am loading my app with a property list of data from a web site. This property list file contains an NSArray of NSDictionaries which itself contains an NSArray of NSDictionaries. Basically, I'm trying to load a tableView of restaurant menu categories each of which contains menu items. My property list file is fine. I am able to load the file and loop through the nodes structure creating NSEntityDescriptions and am able to save to Core Data. Everything works fine and expectedly except that in my menu category managed object, I have an NSArray of menu items for that category. Later on, when I fetch the categories, the pointers to the menu items in a category is lost and I get all the menu items. Am I suppose to be using predicates or does Core Data keep track of my object graph for me? Can anyone look at how I am loading Core Data and point out the flaw in my logic? I'm pretty good with either SQL and OOP by themselves, but am a little bewildered by ORM. I thought that I should just be able to use aggregation in my managed objects and that the framework would keep track of the pointers for me, but apparently not. NSError *error; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://foo.com"]; NSArray *categories = [[NSArray alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:url]; NSMutableArray *menuCategories = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; for (int i=0; i<[categories count]; i++){ MenuCategory *menuCategory = [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"MenuCategory" inManagedObjectContext:[self managedObjectContext]]; NSDictionary *category = [categories objectAtIndex:i]; menuCategory.name = [category objectForKey:@"name"]; NSArray *items = [category objectForKey:@"items"]; NSMutableArray *menuItems = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; for (int j=0; j<[items count]; j++){ MenuItem *menuItem = [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"MenuItem" inManagedObjectContext:[self managedObjectContext]]; NSDictionary *item = [items objectAtIndex:j]; menuItem.name = [item objectForKey:@"name"]; menuItem.price = [item objectForKey:@"price"]; menuItem.image = [item objectForKey:@"image"]; menuItem.details = [item objectForKey:@"details"]; [menuItems addObject:menuItem]; } [menuCategory setValue:menuItems forKey:@"menuItems"]; [menuCategories addObject:menuCategory]; [menuItems release]; } if (![[self managedObjectContext] save:&error]) { NSLog(@"An error occurred: %@", [error localizedDescription]); }

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  • Separation of domain and ui layer in a composite

    - by hansmaad
    Hi all, i'm wondering if there is a pattern how to separate the domain logic of a class from the ui responsibilities of the objects in the domain layer. Example: // Domain classes interface MachinePart { CalculateX(in, out) // Where do we put these: // Draw(Screen) ?? // ShowProperties(View) ?? // ... } class Assembly : MachinePart { CalculateX(in, out) subParts } class Pipe : MachinePart { CalculateX(in, out) length, diamater... } There is an application that calculates the value X for machines assembled from many machine parts. The assembly is loaded from a file representation and is designed as a composite. Each concrete part class stores some data to implement the CalculateX(in,out) method to simulate behaviour of the whole assembly. The application runs well but without GUI. To increase the usability a GUi should be developed on top of the existing implementation (changes to the existing code are allowed). The GUI should show a schematic graphical representation of the assembly and provide part specific dialogs to edit several parameters. To achieve these goals the application needs new functionality for each machine part to draw a schematic representation on the screen, show a property dialog and other things not related to the domain of machine simulation. I can think of some different solutions to implement a Draw(Screen) functionality for each part but i am not happy with each of them. First i could add a Draw(Screen) method to the MachinePart interface but this would mix-up domain code with ui code and i had to add a lot of functionality to each machine part class what makes my domain model hard to read and hard to understand. Another "simple" solution is to make all parts visitable and implement ui code in visitors but Visitor does not belong to my favorite patterns. I could derive UI variants from each machine part class to add the UI implementation there but i had to check if each part class is suited for inheritance and had to be careful on changes to the base classes. My currently favorite design is to create a parallel composite hierarchy where each component stores data to define a machine part, has implementation for UI methods and a factory method which creates instances of the corresponding domain classes, so that i can "convert" a UI assembly to a domain assembly. But there are problems to go back from the created domain hierarchy to the UI hierarchy for showing calculation results in the drawing for example (imagine some parts store some values during the calculation i want to show in the schematic representation after the simluation). Maybe there are some proven patterns for such problems?

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  • Objective-C memory management issue

    - by Toby Wilson
    I've created a graphing application that calls a web service. The user can zoom & move around the graph, and the program occasionally makes a decision to call the web service for more data accordingly. This is achieved by the following process: The graph has a render loop which constantly renders the graph, and some decision logic which adds web service call information to a stack. A seperate thread takes the most recent web service call information from the stack, and uses it to make the web service call. The other objects on the stack get binned. The idea of this is to reduce the number of web service calls to only those appropriate, and only one at a time. Right, with the long story out of the way (for which I apologise), here is my memory management problem: The graph has persistant (and suitably locked) NSDate* objects for the currently displayed start & end times of the graph. These are passed into the initialisers for my web service request objects. The web service call objects then retain the dates. After the web service calls have been made (or binned if they were out of date), they release the NSDate*. The graph itself releases and reallocates new NSDates* on the 'touches ended' event. If there is only one web service call object on the stack when removeAllObjects is called, EXC_BAD_ACCESS occurs in the web service call object's deallocation method when it attempts to release the date objects (even though they appear to exist and are in scope in the debugger). If, however, I comment out the release messages from the destructor, no memory leak occurs for one object on the stack being released, but memory leaks occur if there are more than one object on the stack. I have absolutely no idea what is going wrong. It doesn't make a difference what storage symantics I use for the web service call objects dates as they are assigned in the initialiser and then only read (so for correctness' sake are set to readonly). It also doesn't seem to make a difference if I retain or copy the dates in the initialiser (though anything else obviously falls out of scope or is unwantedly released elsewhere and causes a crash). I'm sorry this explanation is long winded, I hope it's sufficiently clear but I'm not gambling on that either I'm afraid. Major big thanks to anyone that can help, even suggest anything I may have missed?

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  • Writing a mini-language with haskell, trouble with "while" statements and blocks { }

    - by Nibirue
    EDIT: problem partially solved, skip to the bottom for update. I'm writing a small language using haskell, and I've made a lot of progress, but I am having trouble implementing statements that use blocks, like "{ ... }". I've implemented support for If statements like so in my parser file: stmt = skip +++ ifstmt +++ assignment +++ whilestmt ifstmt = symbol "if" >> parens expr >>= \c -> stmt >>= \t -> symbol "else" >> stmt >>= \e -> return $ If c t e whilestmt = symbol "while" >> parens expr >>= \c -> symbol "\n" >> symbol "{" >> stmt >>= \t -> symbol "}" >> return $ While c t expr = composite +++ atomic And in the Syntax file: class PP a where pp :: Int -> a -> String instance PP Stmt where pp ind (If c t e) = indent ind ++ "if (" ++ show c ++ ") \n" ++ pp (ind + 2) t ++ indent ind ++ "else\n" ++ pp (ind + 2) e pp ind (While c t) = indent ind ++ "while (" ++ show c ++") \n" ++ "{" ++ pp (ind + 2) t ++ "}" ++ indent ind Something is wrong with the while statement, and I don't understand what. The logic seems correct, but when I run the code I get the following error: EDIT: Fixed the first problem based on the first reply, now it is not recognizing my while statment which I assume comes from this: exec :: Env -> Stmt -> Env exec env (If c t e) = exec env ( if eval env c == BoolLit True then t else e ) exec env (While c t) = exec env ( if eval env c == BoolLit True then t ) The file being read from looks like this: x = 1; c = 0; if (x < 2) c = c + 1; else ; -- SEPARATE FILES FOR EACH x = 1; c = 1; while (x < 10) { c = c * x; x = x + 1; } c I've tried to understand the error report but nothing I've tried solves the problem.

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  • Boxy Submit Form

    - by jornbjorndalen
    I am using the boxy jQuery plugin in my page to display a form on a clickEvent for the fullCalendar plugin. It is working all right , the only problem I have is that the form in boxy brings up the confirmation dialog the first time the dialog is opened and when the user clicks "Ok" it submits the form a second time which generates 2 events on my calendar and 2 entries in my database. My code looks like this inside fullCalendar: dayClick: function(date, allDay, jsEvent, view) { var day=""+date.getDate(); if(day.length==1){ day="0"+day; } var year=date.getFullYear(); var month=date.getMonth()+1; var month=""+month; if(month.length==1){ month="0"+month; } var defaultdate=""+year+"-"+month+"-"+day+" 00:00:00"; var ele = document.getElementById("myform"); new Boxy(ele,{title: "Add Task", modal: true}); document.getElementById("title").value=""; document.getElementById("description").value=""; document.getElementById("startdate").value=""+defaultdate; document.getElementById("enddate").value=""+defaultdate; } I also use validators on the forms fields: $.validator.addMethod( "datetime", function(value, element) { // put your own logic here, this is just a (crappy) example return value.match(/^([0-9]{4})-([0-1][0-9])-([0-3][0-9])\s([0-1][0-9]|[2][0-3]):([0-5][0-9]):([0-5][0-9])$/); }, "Please enter a date in the format YYYY-mm-dd hh:MM:ss" ); var validator=$("#myform").validate({ onsubmit:true, rules: { title: { required: true }, startdate: { required: true, datetime: true }, enddate: { required: true, datetime: true } }, submitHandler: function(form) { //this function renders a new event and makes a call to a php script that inserts it into the db addTask(form); } }); And the form looks like this: <form id ='myform'> <table border='1' width='100%'> <tr><td align='right'>Title:</td><td align='left'><input id='title' name='title' size='30'/></td></tr> <tr><td align='right'>Description:</td><td align='left'><textarea id='description' name='description' rows='4' cols='30'></textarea></td></tr> <tr><td align='right'>Start Date:</td><td align='left'><input id='startdate' name='startdate' size='30'/></td></tr> <tr><td align='right'>End Date:</td><td align='left'><input id='enddate' name='enddate' size='30' /></td></tr> <tr><td colspan='2' align='right'><input type='submit' value='Add' /></td></tr> </table> </form>

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  • Visual studio 2010 colourizers, intellisense and the rest. Where to start!!

    - by Owen
    Ok, before I begin I realize that there is a lot of documentation on this subject but I have thus far failed to get even basic colourization working for VS2010. My goal is to simply get to a point where I can open a document and everything is coloured red, from here I can implement the relevant parsing logic. Here's what I have tried/found: 1) Downloaded all the relevent SDK's and such- Found the ook sample (http://code.msdn.microsoft.com/ookLanguage) - didn't build, didn't work. 2) Knowing almost nothing about MEF read through "Implementing a Language Service By Using the Managed Package Framework" - http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb166533(v=VS.100).aspx This was pretty much a copy and paste of all the basic stuff here, and also updating some references which were out of date with the sample see: http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/vsx/thread/a310fe67-afd2-4592-b295-3fc86fec7996 Now, I have got to a point where when running the package MEF appears to have hooked up correctly (I know this because with the debugger open I can see that the packages initialize and FDoIdle methods are being hit). When I open a file of the extension I have registered with the ProvideLanguageExtensionAttribute everything dies as if in an endless loop, yet no debug symbols hit (though they are loaded). Looking at the ook sample and the MEF examples they seem to be totally different approaches to the same problem. In the ook sample there are notions of Clasifications and Completion controllers which aren't mentioned in the MEF example. Also, they don't seem to create a Package or Language service, so I have no idea how it should work? With the MEF example, my assumption is that I need to hook into the "IScanner.ScanTokenAndProvideInfoAboutIt" to provide syntax highlighting? Which would be fine if I could ever hit this method. So my first question I guess is which approach should I be taking here? Or do they both somehow tie together? My second questions is, where can I find a basic fully working project that implements bog standard basic syntax highlighting and intellisense or VS2010? Thirdly, in the MEF example when I created a Package there were a bunch of test projects created for me. I appears that the integration tests launch the VS2010 test rig somehow, but the test fails. It would be good to write my service with tests but I have no idea what/how I can test each interaction so any references to testing Language services would be helpful. Finally, please throw any resource/book links my way that I may find useful. Cheers, Chris. N.B. Sorry I realize this is part question part rant, but I have never been so confused.

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  • Twisted + SQLAlchemy and the best way to do it.

    - by Khorkrak
    So I'm writing yet another Twisted based daemon. It'll have an xmlrpc interface as usual so I can easily communicate with it and have other processes interchange data with it as needed. This daemon needs to access a database. We've been using SQL Alchemy in place of hard coding SQL strings for our latest projects - those mostly done for web apps in Pylons. We'd like to do the same for this app and re-use library code that makes use of SQL Alchemy. So what to do? Well of course since that library was written for use in a Pylons app it's all the straight-forward blocking style code that everyone is accustomed to and all of the non-blocking is magically handled by Pylons via threading, thread locals, scoped sessions and so on. So now for Twisted I guess I'm a bit stuck. I could: Just write the sql I need directly if it's minimal and use the dbapi pool in twisted to do runInteractions etc when I need to hit the db. Use the objects and inherently blocking methods in our library and block now and then in my Twisted daemon. Bah. Use sAsync which was last updated in 2008 and kind of reuse the models we have defined already but not really and it does address code that needs to work in Pylons either. Does that even work with the latest version SQL Alchemy? Who knows. That project looked great though - why was it apparently abandoned? Spawn a separate subprocess and have it deal with the library code and all it's blocking, the results being returned back to my daemon when ready as objects marshalled via YAML over xmlrpc. Use deferToThread and then expunge the objects returned having made sure to do eager loads so that I have all my stuff that I might need. Seems kind of ugha to me. I'm also stuck using Python 2.5.4 atm so no 2.6 yet and I don't think I can just do an import from future to get access to the cool new multiprocessing module stuff in there. That's OK though I guess as we've got dealing with interprocess communication down pretty well. So I'm leaning towards option 4 mostly as that would avoid the mortal sin of logic duplication with option 1 while also staying the heck away from threads. Any better ideas?

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  • Where do you put your unit test?

    - by soulmerge
    I have found several conventions to housekeeping unit tests in a project and I'm not sure which approach would be suitable for our next PHP project. I am trying to find the best convention to encourage easy development and accessibility of the tests when reviewing the source code. I would be very interested in your experience/opinion regarding each: One folder for productive code, another for unit tests: This separates unit tests from the logic files of the project. This separation of concerns is as much a nuisance as it is an advantage: Someone looking into the source code of the project will - so I suppose - either browse the implementation or the unit tests (or more commonly: the implementation only). The advantage of unit tests being another viewpoint to your classes is lost - those two viewpoints are just too far apart IMO. Annotated test methods: Any modern unit testing framework I know allows developers to create dedicated test methods, annotating them (@test) and embedding them in the project code. The big drawback I see here is that the project files get cluttered. Even if these methods are separated using a comment header (like UNIT TESTS below this line) it just bloats the class unnecessarily. Test files within the same folders as the implementation files: Our file naming convention dictates that PHP files containing classes (one class per file) should end with .class.php. I could imagine that putting unit tests regarding a class file into another one ending on .test.php would render the tests much more present to other developers without tainting the class. Although it bloats the project folders, instead of the implementation files, this is my favorite so far, but I have my doubts: I would think others have come up with this already, and discarded this option for some reason (i.e. I have not seen a java project with the files Foo.java and FooTest.java within the same folder.) Maybe it's because java developers make heavier use of IDEs that allow them easier access to the tests, whereas in PHP no big editors have emerged (like eclipse for java) - many devs I know use vim/emacs or similar editors with little support for PHP development per se. What is your experience with any of these unit test placements? Do you have another convention I haven't listed here? Or am I just overrating unit test accessibility to reviewers?

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  • Representation of a DateTime as the local to remote user

    - by TwoSecondsBefore
    Hello! I was confused in the problem of time zones. I am writing a web application that will contain some news with dates of publication, and I want the client to see the date of publication of the news in the form of corresponding local time. However, I do not know in which time zone the client is located. I have three questions. I have to ask just in case: does DateTimeOffset.UtcNow always returns the correct UTC date and time, regardless of whether the server is dependent on daylight savings time? For example, if the first time I get the value of this property for two minutes before daylight savings time (or before the transition from daylight saving time back) and the second time in 2 minutes after the transfer, whether the value of properties in all cases differ by only 4 minutes? Or here require any further logic? (Question #1) Please see the following example and tell me what you think. I posted the news on the site. I assume that DateTimeOffset.UtcNow takes into account the time zone of the server and the daylight savings time, and so I immediately get the correct UTC server time when pressing the button "Submit". I write this value to a MS SQL database in the field of type datetime2(0). Then the user opens a page with news and no matter how long after publication. This may occur even after many years. I did not ask him to enter his time zone. Instead, I get the offset of his current local time from UTC using the javascript function following way: function GetUserTimezoneOffset() { var offset = new Date().getTimezoneOffset(); return offset; } Next I make the calculation of the date and time of publication, which will show the user: public static DateTime Get_Publication_Date_In_User_Local_DateTime( DateTime Publication_Utc_Date_Time_From_DataBase, int User_Time_Zone_Offset_Returned_by_Javascript) { int userTimezoneOffset = User_Time_Zone_Offset_Returned_by_Javascript; // For // example Javascript returns a value equal to -300, which means the // current user's time differs from UTC to 300 minutes. Ie offset // is UTC +6. In this case, it may be the time zone UTC +5 which // currently operates summer time or UTC +6 which currently operates the // standard time. // Right? (Question #2) DateTimeOffset utcPublicationDateTime = new DateTimeOffset(Publication_Utc_Date_Time_From_DataBase, new TimeSpan(0)); // get an instance of type DateTimeOffset for the // date and time of publication for further calculations DateTimeOffset publication_DateTime_In_User_Local_DateTime = utcPublicationDateTime.ToOffset(new TimeSpan(0, - userTimezoneOffset, 0)); return publication_DateTime_In_User_Local_DateTime.DateTime;// return to user } Is the value obtained correct? Is this the right approach to solving this problem? (Question #3)

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  • WCF App using Peer Chat app as example does not work.

    - by splate
    I converted a VB .Net 3.5 app to use peer to peer WCF using the available Microsoft example of the Chat app. I made sure that I copied the app.config file for the sample(modified the names for my app), added the appropriate references. I followed all the tutorials and added the appropriate tags and structure in my app code. Everything runs without any errors, but the clients only get messages from themselves and not from the other clients. The sample chat application does run just fine with multiple clients. The only difference I could find is that the server on the sample is targeting the framework 2.0, but I assume that is wrong and it is building it in at least 3.0 or the System.ServiceModel reference would break. Is there something that has to be registered that the sample is doing behind the scenes or is the sample a special project type? I am confused. My next step is to copy all my classes and logic from my app to the sample app, but that is likely a lot of work. Here is my Client App.config: <client><endpoint name="thldmEndPoint" address="net.p2p://thldmMesh/thldmServer" binding="netPeerTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="PeerTcpConfig" contract="THLDM_Client.IGameService"></endpoint></client> <bindings><netPeerTcpBinding> <binding name="PeerTcpConfig" port="0"> <security mode="None"></security> <resolver mode="Custom"> <custom address="net.tcp://localhost/thldmServer" binding="netTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="TcpConfig"></custom> </resolver> </binding></netPeerTcpBinding> <netTcpBinding> <binding name="TcpConfig"> <security mode="None"></security> </binding> </netTcpBinding> </bindings> Here is my server App.config: <services> <service name="System.ServiceModel.PeerResolvers.CustomPeerResolverService"> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="net.tcp://localhost/thldmServer"/> </baseAddresses> </host> <endpoint address="net.tcp://localhost/thldmServer" binding="netTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="TcpConfig" contract="System.ServiceModel.PeerResolvers.IPeerResolverContract"> </endpoint> </service> </services> <bindings> <netTcpBinding> <binding name="TcpConfig"> <security mode="None"></security> </binding> </netTcpBinding> </bindings> Thanks ahead of time.

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  • PHP Based session variable not retaining value. Works on localhost, but not on server.

    - by Foo
    I've been trying to debug this problem for many hours, but to no avail. I've been using PHP for many years, and got back into it after long hiatus, so I'm still a bit rusty. Anyways, my $_SESSION vars are not retaining their value for some reason that I can't figure out. The site worked on localhost perfectly, but uploading it to the server seemed to break it. First thing I checked was the PHP.ini server settings. Everything seems fine. In fact, my login system is session based and it works perfectly. So now that I know $_SESSIONS are working properly and retaining their value for my login, I'm presuming the server is setup and the problem is in my script. Here's a stripped version of the code that's causing a problem. $type, $order and $style are not being retained after they are set via a GET variable. The user clicks a link, which sets a variable via GET, and this variable is retained for the remainder of their session. Is there some problem with my logic that I'm not seeing? <?php require_once('includes/top.php'); //first line includes a call to session_start(); require_once('includes/db.php'); $type = filter_input(INPUT_GET, 't', FILTER_VALIDATE_INT); $order = filter_input(INPUT_GET, 'o', FILTER_VALIDATE_INT); $style = filter_input(INPUT_GET, 's', FILTER_VALIDATE_INT); /* According to documentation, filter_input returns a NULL when variables are undefined. So, if t, o, or s are not set via URL, $type, $order and $style will be NULL. */ print_r($_SESSION); /* All other sessions, such as the login session, etc. are displayed here. After the sessions are set below, they are displayed up here to... simply with no value. This leads me to believe the problem is with the code below, perhaps? */ // If $type is not null (meaning it WAS set via the get method above) // or it's false because the validation failed for some reason, // then set the session to the $type. I removed the false check for simplicity. // This code is being successfully executed, and the data is being stored... if(!is_null($type)) { $_SESSION['type'] = $type; } if(!is_null($order)) { $_SESSION['order'] = $order; } if(!is_null($style)) { $_SESSION['style'] = $style; } $smarty->display($template); ?> If anyone can point me in the right direction, I'd greatly appreciate it. Thanks.

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