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  • How to migrate primary key generation from "increment" to "hi-lo"?

    - by Bevan
    I'm working with a moderate sized SQL Server 2008 database (around 120 tables, backups are around 4GB compressed) where all the table primary keys are declared as simple int columns. At present, primary key values are generated by NHibernate with the increment identity generator, which has worked well thus far, but precludes moving to a multiprocessing environment. Load on the system is growing, so I'm evaluating the work required to allow the use of multiple servers accessing a common database backend. Transitioning to the hi-lo generator seems to be the best way forward, but I can't find a lot of detail about how such a migration would work. Will NHibernate automatically create rows in the hi-lo table for me, or do I need to script these manually? If NHibernate does insert rows automatically, does it properly take account of existing key values? If NHibernate does take care of thing automatically, that's great. If not, are there any tools to help? Update NHibernate's increment identifier generator works entirely in-memory. It's seeded by selecting the maximum value of used identifiers from the table, but from that point on allocates new values by a simple increment, without reference back to the underlying database table. If any other process adds rows to the table, you end up with primary key collisions. You can run multiple threads within the one process just fine, but you can't run multiple processes. For comparison, the NHibernate identity generator works by configuring the database tables with identity columns, putting control over primary key generation in the hands of the database. This works well, but compromises the unit of work pattern. The hi-lo algorithm sits inbetween these - generation of primary keys is coordinated through the database, allowing for multiprocessing, but actual allocation can occur entirely in memory, avoiding problems with the unit of work pattern.

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  • Oracle command hangs when using view for "WHILE x IN..." subquery

    - by Calvin Fisher
    I'm working on a web service that fetches data from an oracle data source in chunks and passes it back to an indexing/search tool in XML format. I'm the C#/.NET guy, and am kind of fuzzy on parts of Oracle. Our Oracle team gave us the following script to run, and it works well: SELECT ROWID, [columns] FROM [table] WHERE ROWID IN ( SELECT ROWID FROM ( SELECT ROWID FROM [table] WHERE ROWID > '[previous_batch_last_rowid]' ORDER BY ROWID ) WHERE ROWNUM <= 10000 ) ORDER BY ROWID 10,000 rows is an arbitrary but reasonable chunk size and ROWID is sufficiently unique for our purposes to use as a UID since each indexing run hits only one table at a time. Bracketed values are filled in programmatically by the web service. Now we're going to start adding views to the indexing, each of which will union a few separate tables. Since ROWID would no longer function as a unique identifier, they added a column to the views (VIEW_UNIQUE_ID) that concatenates the ROWIDs from the component tables to construct a UID for each union. But this script does not work, even though it follows the same form as the previous one: SELECT VIEW_UNIQUE_ID, [columns] FROM [view] WHERE VIEW_UNIQUE_ID IN ( SELECT VIEW_UNIQUE_ID FROM ( SELECT VIEW_UNIQUE_ID FROM [view] WHERE ROWID > '[previous_batch_last_view_unique_id]' ORDER BY VIEW_UNIQUE_ID ) WHERE ROWNUM <= 10000 ) ORDER BY VIEW_UNIQUE_ID It hangs indefinitely with no response from the Oracle server. I've waited 20+ minutes and the SQLTools dialog box indicating a running query remains the same, with no progress or updates. I've tested each subquery independently and each works fine and takes a very short amount of time (<= 1 second), so the view itself is sound. But as soon as the inner two SELECT queries are added with "WHERE VIEW_UNIQUE_ID IN...", it hangs. Why doesn't this query work for views? In what important way are they not interchangeable here?

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  • How to delete sentences starting with a lower case letter?

    - by Ron
    Hello: In the example below the following regex (".*?") was used to remove all dialogue first. The next step is to remove all remaining sentences starting with a lower case letter. Only sentences starting with an upper case letter should remain. Example: exclaimed Wade. Indeed, below them were villages, of crude huts made of timber and stone and mud. Rubble work walls, for they needed little shelter here, and the people were but savages. asked Arcot, his voice a bit unsteady with suppressed excitement. replied Morey without turning from his station at the window. Below them now, less than half a mile down on the patchwork of the Nile valley, men were standing, staring up, collecting in little groups, gesticulating toward the strange thing that had materialized in the air above them. In the example above the following should be deleted only: exclaimed Wade. asked Arcot, his voice a bit unsteady with suppressed excitement. replied Morey without turning from his station at the window. A useful regex or simple Perl or python code is appreciated. I'm using version 7 of Textpipe. Thanks.

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  • Exec problem in SQL Server 2005

    - by IordanTanev
    Hi, I have the situation where i have two databases with same structure. The first have some data in its data tables. I need to create a script that will transfer the data from the first database to the second. I have created this script. DECLARE @table_name nvarchar(MAX), @query nvarchar(MAX) DECLARE @table_cursor CURSOR SET @table_cursor = CURSOR FAST_FORWARD FOR SELECT TABLE_NAME FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.TABLES OPEN @table_cursor FETCH NEXT FROM @table_cursor INTO @table_name WHILE @@FETCH_STATUS = 0 BEGIN SET @query = 'INSERT INTO ' + @table_name + ' SELECT * FROM MyDataBase.dbo.' + @table_name print @query exec @query FETCH NEXT FROM @table_cursor INTO @table_name END CLOSE @table_cursor DEALLOCATE @table_cursor The problem is that when I run the script the "print @query" statement prints statement like this INSERT INTO table SELECT * FROM MyDataBase.dbo.table When I copy this and run it from Management studio it works fine. But when the script tries to run it with exec I get this error Msg 911, Level 16, State 1, Line 21 Could not locate entry in sysdatabases for database 'INSERT INTO table SELECT * FROM MPDEV090314'. No entry found with that name. Make sure that the name is entered correctly. Hope someone can tell me whot is wront with this. Best Regards, Iordan Tanev

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  • SQL Server database change workflow best practices

    - by kubi
    The Background My group has 4 SQL Server Databases: Production UAT Test Dev I work in the Dev environment. When the time comes to promote the objects I've been working on (tables, views, functions, stored procs) I make a request of my manager, who promotes to Test. After testing, she submits a request to an Admin who promotes to UAT. After successful user testing, the same Admin promotes to Production. The Problem The entire process is awkward for a few reasons. Each person must manually track their changes. If I update, add, remove any objects I need to track them so that my promotion request contains everything I've done. In theory, if I miss something testing or UAT should catch it, but this isn't certain and it's a waste of the tester's time, anyway. Lots of changes I make are iterative and done in a GUI, which means there's no record of what changes I made, only the end result (at least as far as I know). We're in the fairly early stages of building out a data mart, so the majority of the changes made, at least count-wise, are minor things: changing the data type for a column, altering the names of tables as we crystallize what they'll be used for, tweaking functions and stored procs, etc. The Question People have been doing this kind of work for decades, so I imagine there have got to be a much better way to manage the process. What I would love is if I could run a diff between two databases to see how the structure was different, use that diff to generate a change script, use that change script as my promotion request. Is this possible? If not, are there any other ways to organize this process? For the record, we're a 100% Microsoft shop, just now updating everything to SQL Server 2008, so any tools available in that package would be fair game.

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  • Modeling objects with multiple table relationships in Zend Framework

    - by andybaird
    I'm toying with Zend Framework and trying to use the "QuickStart" guide against a website I'm making just to see how the process would work. Forgive me if this answer is obvious, hopefully someone experienced can shed some light on this. I have three database tables: CREATE TABLE `users` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL auto_increment, `email` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `username` varchar(255) NOT NULL default '', `first` varchar(128) NOT NULL default '', `last` varchar(128) NOT NULL default '', `gender` enum('M','F') default NULL, `birthyear` year(4) default NULL, `postal` varchar(16) default NULL, `auth_method` enum('Default','OpenID','Facebook','Disabled') NOT NULL default 'Default', PRIMARY KEY (`id`), UNIQUE KEY `email` (`email`), UNIQUE KEY `username` (`username`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 CREATE TABLE `user_password` ( `user_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `password` varchar(16) NOT NULL default '', PRIMARY KEY (`user_id`), UNIQUE KEY `user_id` (`user_id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 CREATE TABLE `user_metadata` ( `user_id` int(11) NOT NULL default '0', `signup_date` datetime default NULL, `signup_ip` varchar(15) default NULL, `last_login_date` datetime default NULL, `last_login_ip` varchar(15) default NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`user_id`), UNIQUE KEY `user_id` (`user_id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 I want to create a User model that uses all three tables in certain situations. E.g., the metadata table is accessed if/when the meta data is needed. The user_password table is accessed only if the 'Default' auth_method is set. I'll likely be adding a profile table later on that I would like to be able to access from the user model. What is the best way to do this with ZF and why?

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  • How to disable other touch gestures after adding another tap gesture to the view?

    - by Hudson Duan
    I have a view with some tables and buttons on it, and then I want to add a tap gesture to the entire view, but I only want that gesture recognizer to recognize taps. Ideally, I want to do something when the added gesture recognizer is tapped, then remove that gesture recognizer after so the other buttons and tables can be accessed. Basically a tap to dismiss functionality that replicates something like the facebook notifications window, tap outside to dismiss, but not interfere with the buttons outside of the notifications view. Can anybody help? My current code is: NotificationsWindow *customView = [[[NSBundle mainBundle]loadNibNamed:@"NotificationsWindow" owner:self options:nil]objectAtIndex:0]; customView.frame= CGRectMake(12, 12, customView.frame.size.width, customView.frame.size.height); UITapGestureRecognizer *recognizerForSubView = [[UITapGestureRecognizer alloc] initWithTarget:self action:@selector(handleTapBehindAgain:)]; [recognizerForSubView setNumberOfTapsRequired:1]; recognizerForSubView.cancelsTouchesInView = NO; //So the user can still interact with controls in the modal view [customView addGestureRecognizer:recognizerForSubView]; [self.view addSubview:customView]; UITapGestureRecognizer *recognizerForSuperView = [[UITapGestureRecognizer alloc] initWithTarget:self action:@selector(handleTapBehind:)]; [recognizerForSuperView setNumberOfTapsRequired:1]; recognizerForSuperView.cancelsTouchesInView = NO; //So the user can still interact with controls in the modal view [customView.superview addGestureRecognizer:recognizerForSuperView]; (void)handleTapBehind:(UITapGestureRecognizer *)sender { NSLog(@"tapped"); [[self.view.subviews lastObject] removeFromSuperview]; [self.view removeGestureRecognizer:sender]; } I want to make it so that the recognizer for the super view dismisses the subview, but not to interfere with the other taps on the super view.

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  • Avoiding secondary selects or joins with Hibernate Criteria or HQL query

    - by Ben Benson
    I am having trouble optimizing Hibernate queries to avoid performing joins or secondary selects. When a Hibernate query is performed (criteria or hql), such as the following: return getSession().createQuery(("from GiftCard as card where card.recipientNotificationRequested=1").list(); ... and the where clause examines properties that do not require any joins with other tables... but Hibernate still performs a full join with other tables (or secondary selects depending on how I set the fetchMode). The object in question (GiftCard) has a couple ManyToOne associations that I would prefer to be lazily loaded in this case (but not necessarily all cases). I want a solution that I can control what is lazily loaded when I perform the query. Here's what the GiftCard Entity looks like: @Entity @Table(name = "giftCards") public class GiftCard implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; private String id_; private User buyer_; private boolean isRecipientNotificationRequested_; @Id public String getId() { return this.id_; } public void setId(String id) { this.id_ = id; } @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name = "buyerUserId") @NotFound(action = NotFoundAction.IGNORE) public User getBuyer() { return this.buyer_; } public void setBuyer(User buyer) { this.buyer_ = buyer; } @Column(name="isRecipientNotificationRequested", nullable=false, columnDefinition="tinyint") public boolean isRecipientNotificationRequested() { return this.isRecipientNotificationRequested_; } public void setRecipientNotificationRequested(boolean isRecipientNotificationRequested) { this.isRecipientNotificationRequested_ = isRecipientNotificationRequested; } }

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  • The best way to implement drawing features like Keynote

    - by Shamseddine
    Hi all, I'm trying to make a little iPad tool's for drawing simple geometrical objects (rect, rounded rect, ellipse, star, ...). My goal is to make something very close to Keynote (drawing feature), i.e. let the user add a rect (for instance), resizing it and moving it. I want too the user can select many objects and move them together. I've thought about at least 3 differents ways to do that : Extends UIView for each object type, a class for Rect, another for Ellipse, ... With custom drawing method. Then add this view as subview of the global view. Extends CALayer for each object type, a class for Rect, another for Ellipse, ... With custom drawing method. Then add this layer as sublayer of the global view layer's. Extends NSObject for each object type, a class for Rect, another for Ellipse, ... With just a drawing method which will get as argument a CGContext and a Rect and draw directly the form in it. Those methods will be called by the drawing method of the global view. I'm aware that the two first ways come with functions to detect touch on each object, to add easily shadows,... but I'm afraid that they are a little too heavy ? That's why I thought about the last way, which it seems to be straight forward. Which way will be the more efficient ??? Or maybe I didn't thought another way ? Any help will be appreciated ;-) Thanks.

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  • rest and client rights integration, and backbone.js

    - by Francois
    I started to be more and more interested in the REST architecture style and client side development and I was thinking of using backbone.js on the client and a REST API (using ASP.NET Web API) for a little meeting management application. One of my requirements is that users with admin rights can edit meetings and other user can only see them. I was then wondering how to integrate the current user rights in the response for a given resource? My problem is beyond knowing if a user is authenticated or not, I want to know if I need to render the little 'edit' button next to the meeting (let's say I'm listing the current meetings in a grid) or not. Let's say I'm GETing /api/meetings and this is returning a list of meetings with their respective individual URI. How can I add if the user is able to edit this resource or not? This is an interesting passage from one of Roy's blog posts: A REST API should be entered with no prior knowledge beyond the initial URI (bookmark) and set of standardized media types that are appropriate for the intended audience (i.e., expected to be understood by any client that might use the API). From that point on, all application state transitions must be driven by client selection of server-provided choices that are present in the received representations or implied by the user’s manipulation of those representations It states that all transitions must be driven by the choices that are present in the representation. Does that mean that I can add an 'editURI' and a 'deleteURI' to each of the meeting i'm returning? if this information is there I can render the 'edit' button and if it's not there I just don't? What's the best practices on how to integrate the user's rights in the entity's representation? Or is this a super bad idea and another round trip is needed to fetch that information?

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  • Passing NSArray Pointer Rather Than A Pointer To a Specific Type

    - by mattmccomb
    I've just written a piece of code to display a UIActionSheet within my app. Whilst looking at the code to initialise my UIActionSheet something struck me as a little strange. The initialisation function has the following signature... initWithTitle:(NSString *)title delegate:(id UIActionSheetDelegate)delegate cancelButtonTitle:(NSString *)cancelButtonTitle destructiveButtonTitle:(NSString *)destructiveButtonTitle otherButtonTitles:(NSString *)otherButtonTitles As you can see the otherButtonTitles parameter is a pointer to a String. In my code I set it as follows... otherButtonTitles: @"Title", @"Date", nil Although this compiles fine I don't really understand how it works. My reading of the statement is that I have created an inline array containing two elements (Title and Date). How come this then compiles? I'm passing a NSArray* in place of a NSString*. I know from a little of understanding of C++ that an array is really a pointer to the first element. So is this inline array that I'm creating a C array as opposed to a NSArray? What I'm hoping to achieve is to be able to pass a static NSArray* used elsewhere in my class to the otherButtonTitles parameter. But passing the NSArray* object directly doesn't work.

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  • How to reuse results with a schema for end of day stock-data

    - by Vishalrix
    I am creating a database schema to be used for technical analysis like top-volume gainers, top-price gainers etc.I have checked answers to questions here, like the design question. Having taken the hint from boe100 's answer there I have a schema modeled pretty much on it, thusly: Symbol - char 6 //primary Date - date //primary Open - decimal 18, 4 High - decimal 18, 4 Low - decimal 18, 4 Close - decimal 18, 4 Volume - int Right now this table containing End Of Day( EOD) data will be about 3 million rows for 3 years. Later when I get/need more data it could be 20 million rows. The front end will be asking requests like "give me the top price gainers on date X over Y days". That request is one of the simpler ones, and as such is not too costly, time wise, I assume. But a request like " give me top volume gainers for the last 10 days, with the previous 100 days acting as baseline", could prove 10-100 times costlier. The result of such a request would be a float which signifies how many times the volume as grown etc. One option I have is adding a column for each such result. And if the user asks for volume gain in 10 days over 20 days, that would require another table. The total such tables could easily cross 100, specially if I start using other results as tables, like MACD-10, MACD-100. each of which will require its own column. Is this a feasible solution? Another option being that I keep the result in cached html files and present them to the user. I dont have much experience in web-development, so to me it looks messy; but I could be wrong ( ofc!) . Is that a option too? Let me add that I am/will be using mod_perl to present the response to the user. With much of the work on mysql database being done using perl. I would like to have a response time of 1-2 seconds.

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  • Why do my CouchDB databases grow so fast?

    - by konrad
    I was wondering why my CouchDB database was growing to fast so I wrote a little test script. This script changes an attributed of a CouchDB document 1200 times and takes the size of the database after each change. After performing these 1200 writing steps the database is doing a compaction step and the db size is measured again. In the end the script plots the databases size against the revision numbers. The benchmarking is run twice: The first time the default number of document revision (=1000) is used (_revs_limit). The second time the number of document revisions is set to 1. The first run produces the following plot The second run produces this plot For me this is quite an unexpected behavior. In the first run I would have expected a linear growth as every change produces a new revision. When the 1000 revisions are reached the size value should be constant as the older revisions are discarded. After the compaction the size should fall significantly. In the second run the first revision should result in certain database size that is then keeps during the following writing steps as every new revision leads to the deletion of the previous one. I could understand if there is a little bit of overhead needed to manage the changes but this growth behavior seems weird to me. Can anybody explain this phenomenon or correct my assumptions that lead to the wrong expectations?

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  • Ruby on Rails 2.3.5: Populating my prod and devel database with data (migration or fixture?)

    - by randombits
    I need to populate my production database app with data in particular tables. This is before anyone ever even touches the application. This data would also be required in development mode as it's required for testing against. Fixtures are normally the way to go for testing data, but what's the "best practice" for Ruby on Rails to ship this data to the live database also upon db creation? ultimately this is a two part question I suppose. 1) What's the best way to load test data into my database for development, this will be roughly 1,000 items. Is it through a migration or through fixtures? The reason this is a different answer than the question below is that in development, there's certain fields in the tables that I'd like to make random. In production, these fields would all start with the same value of 0. 2) What's the best way to bootstrap a production db with live data I need in it, is this also through a migration or fixture? I think the answer is to seed as described here: http://lptf.blogspot.com/2009/09/seed-data-in-rails-234.html but I need a way to seed for development and seed for production. Also, why bother using Fixtures if seeding is available? When does one seed and when does one use fixtures?

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  • Are MEF's ComposableParts contracts instance-based?

    - by Dave
    I didn't really know how to phrase the title of my questions, so my apologies in advance. I read through parts of the MEF documentation to try to find the answer to my question, but couldn't find it. I'm using ImportMany to allow MEF to create multiple instances of a specific plugin. That plugin Imports several parts, and within calls to a specific instance, it wants these Imports to be singletons. However, what I don't want is for all instances of this plugin to use the same singleton. For example, let's say my application ImportManys Blender appliances. Every time I ask for one, I want a different Blender. However, each Blender Imports a ControlPanel. I want each Blender to have its own ControlPanel. To make things a little more interesting, each Blender can load BlendPrograms, which are also contained within their own assemblies, and MEF takes care of this loading. A BlendProgram might need to access the ControlPanel to get the speed, but I want to ensure that it is accessing the correct ControlPanel (i.e. the one that is associated with the Blender that is associated with the program!) This diagram might clear things up a little bit: As the note shows, I believe that the confusion could come from an inherently-poor design. The BlendProgram shouldn't touch the ControlPanel directly, and instead perhaps the BlendProgram should get the speed via the Blender, which will then delegate the request to its ControlPanel. If this is the case, then I assume the BlendProgram needs to have a reference to a specific Blender. In order to do this, is the right way to leverage MEF and use an ImportingConstructor for BlendProgram, i.e. [ImportingConstructor] public class BlendProgram : IBlendProgram { public BlendProgram( Blender blender) {} } And if this is the case, how do I know that MEF will use the intended Blender plugin?

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  • Generating SQL change scripts in SSMS 2008

    - by Munish Goyal
    I have gone through many related SO threads and got some basic info. Already generated DB diagram. After that i am unable to find a button/option to generate SQL scripts (create) for all the tables in diagram. "Generate script" button is disabled, even on clicking the table in diagram. However i enabled the auto-generate option in tools-designer. But what to do with previous diagrams. I just want an easy way to auto-generate such scripts (create/alter) and would be gud if i get auto-generated stored procs for insert/selects/update etc. EDIT: I could do generate scripts for DB objects. Now: 1. How to import DB diagram from another DB. 2. How to generate (and manage their change integrated with VS source control) routine stored-procs like insert, update and select. Ok let me ask another way, can experts guide on the usual flow of creating/altering tables (across releases), creating stored-procs (are stored-procs the best way to go ?) and their change-management using SSMS design tools and minimal effort ?

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  • Trying to convert existing production database table columns from enum to VARCHAR (Rails)

    - by dchua
    Hi everyone, I have a problem that needs me to convert my existing live production (I've duplicated the schema on my local development box, don't worry :)) table column types from enums to a string. Background: Basically, a previous developer left my codebase in absolute shit, migration versions are extremely out of date, and apparently he never used it after a certain point of time in development and now that I'm tasked with migrating a rails 1.2.6 app to 2.3.5, I can't get the tests to run properly on 2.3.5 because my table columns have ENUM column types and they convert to :string, :limit = 0 on my schema.rb which creates the problem of an invalid default value when doing a rake db:test:prepare, like in the case of: Mysql::Error: Invalid default value for 'own_vehicle': CREATE TABLE `lifestyles` (`id` int(11) DEFAULT NULL auto_increment PRIMARY KEY, `member_id` int(11) DEFAULT 0 NOT NULL, `own_vehicle` varchar(0) DEFAULT 'Y' NOT NULL, `hobbies` text, `sports` text, `AStar_activities` text, `how_know_IRC` varchar(100), `IRC_referral` varchar(200), `IRC_others` varchar(100), `IRC_rdrive` varchar(30)) ENGINE=InnoDB I'm thinking of writing a migration task that looks through all the database tables for columns with enum and replace it with VARCHAR and I'm wondering if this is the right way to approach this problem. I'm also not very sure how to write it such that it would loop through my database tables and replace all ENUM colum_types with a VARCHAR. References [1] https://rails.lighthouseapp.com/projects/8994/tickets/997-dbschemadump-saves-enum-columns-as-varchar0-on-mysql [2] http://dev.rubyonrails.org/ticket/2832

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  • why DataColumn AllowDbNull is true even if oracle db does not allow null

    - by matti
    Hi. I have column SomeId in table SomeLink. When I look with tOra or Sql Plus Worksheet both state: tOra: Column name Data type Default Null Comment SOMEID INTEGER {null} NOT NULL {null} Sql Plus: SOMEID NOT NULL NUMBER(38) I have authored a method that's intended to give default values to all NOT NULL fields that don't have values: public static void GetDefaultValuesForNonNullColumns(DataRow row) { foreach(DataColumn col in row.Table.Columns) { if (Convert.IsDBNull(row[col]) && !col.AllowDBNull) { if (ColumnIsNumeric(col.DataType)) row[col] = 0; else if (col.DataType == typeof(DateTime)) row[col] = DateTime.Now; else if (col.DataType == typeof(String)) row[col] = string.Empty; else if (col.DataType == typeof(Char)) row[col] = ' '; else throw new Exception(string.Format("Unsupported column type: {0}", col.DataType)); } } } When SOMEID is handled in loop the AllowDBNull = true. I really can't understand. The table is created in DataSet like this: _someLinkAdptr = _dbFactory.CreateDataAdapter(); _someLinkAdptr.SelectCommand = _dbFactory.CreateCommand(); _someLinkAdptr.SelectCommand.Connection = _cnctn; _someLinkAdptr.SelectCommand.CommandText = GetSomeLinkSelectTxtAndParams(_someLinkAdptr.SelectCommand, UndefinedValue.ToString(), UndefinedValue.ToString()); Select command returns no rows. The idea is that I can then use commandbuilder to get InsertCommand without building it myself. The row is added to dataset's table like this: private static void CreateDocLink(int anId, int anotherId) { DataRow row = _someDataSet.Tables["SomeLink"].NewRow(); row["AnId"] = anId; row["AnotherId"] = anotherId; Utility.GetDefaultValuesForNonNullColumns(row); _someDataSet.Tables["SomeLink"].Rows.Add(row); } When DataAdapter is updated to oracle db I get: ORA-01400: cannot insert NULL into (SOMESCHEMA.SOMELINK.SOMEID) Cheers & BR -Matti

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  • Increment non unique field during SQL insert

    - by phill
    I'm not sure how to word this cause I am a little confused at the moment, so bare with me while I attempt to explain, I have a table with the following fields: OrderLineID, OrderID, OrderLine, and a few other unimportant ones. OrderLineID is the primary key and is always unique(which isn't a problem), OrderID is a foreign key that isn't unique(also not a problem), and OrderLine is a value that is not unique in the table, but should be unique for any OrderIDs that are the same...so if that didn't make sense, perhaps a picture OrderLineID, OrderID, OrderLine 1 1 1 2 1 2 3 1 3 4 2 1 5 2 2 For all OrderIDs there is a unique OrderLine. I am trying to create an insert statement that gets the max OrderLine value for a specific OrderId so I can increment it, but it's not working so well and I could use a little help. What I have right now is below, I build the sql statement in a program and replace OrderID # with an actual value. I am pretty sure the problem is with the nested select statement, and incrementing the result, but I can't find any examples that do this since my google skills are weak apparently.... INSERT INTO tblOrderLine (OrderID, OrderLine) VALUES (<OrderID #>, (SELECT MAX(OrderLine) FROM tblOrderLine WHERE orderID = <same OrderID #>)+1) any help would be nice.

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  • WPF View/ViewModels using Generics- how?

    - by Investor5555
    New to WPF, so please bear with me... Suppose I have 2 tables in SQL Thing OtherThing Both have the exact same fields: ID (int) Name (string) Description (string) IsActive (bit/bool) DateModified (DateTime) So, I want to create one Model (not two) and do something like this: BaseModel<T>() { public int ID {get;set;} ... } etc. (of course, using the INotifyPropertyChanged, just trying to keep the code simple). I want to be able to create a BaseView and BaseViewModel that would work with whatever model conforms to the Thing/OtherThing. I am really at a loss as to what to do here to make this generic, so I don't have to have a ThingView/ThingViewModel and a OtherThingView/OtherThingViewModel... It seems that this should be simple, but I cannot seem to figure it out. Does anyone have a code example where they could interchange various items from a dropdown list using one view, one ViewModel, and one base datamodel (and switching out the type from a dropdown)? For example, a combobox has 3 identical table structures for Thing OtherThing SomeThing and on selection changed, I want to pull the data from whatever table was selected, to be able to do standard CRUD operations on any of these 3 tables, without having to create concrete classes for each view/viewmodel.

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  • Diagnosing IIS Shutdowns

    - by Tom Ritter
    Symptoms: I attach a debugger, I wait a little while, it automatically detaches I watch the event log during normal operation - after a single request comes in, it waits a little bit, the shuts down Disagnosing. I've followed the following steps for logging shutdowns in IIS: http://weblogs.asp.net/scottgu/archive/2005/12/14/433194.aspx http://blogs.msdn.com/tess/archive/2006/08/02/asp-net-case-study-lost-session-variables-and-appdomain-recycles.aspx I know these are working because... What I see in the Event Logs when I change the web.config: The description for Event ID 0 from source ASP.NET 2.0.50727.0 cannot be found. Either the component that raises this event is not installed on your local computer or the installation is corrupted. You can install or repair the component on the local computer. If the event originated on another computer, the display information had to be saved with the event. The following information was included with the event: _shutdownMessage=IIS configuration change HostingEnvironment initiated shutdown CONFIG change CONFIG change HostingEnvironment caused shutdown _shutdownStack= at System.Environment.GetStackTrace(Exception e, Boolean needFileInfo) at System.Environment.get_StackTrace() at System.Web.Hosting.HostingEnvironment.InitiateShutdownInternal() at System.Web.Hosting.HostingEnvironment.InitiateShutdown() at System.Web.Hosting.PipelineRuntime.StopProcessing() the message resource is present but the message is not found in the string/message table But it doesn't help because the mysetery error doesn't tell me anything. I see the same thing as from before I added this extra logging: The description for Event ID 0 from source ASP.NET 2.0.50727.0 cannot be found. Either the component that raises this event is not installed on your local computer or the installation is corrupted. You can install or repair the component on the local computer. If the event originated on another computer, the display information had to be saved with the event. The following information was included with the event: _shutdownMessage=HostingEnvironment initiated shutdown HostingEnvironment caused shutdown _shutdownStack= at System.Environment.GetStackTrace(Exception e, Boolean needFileInfo) at System.Environment.get_StackTrace() at System.Web.Hosting.HostingEnvironment.InitiateShutdownInternal() at System.Web.Hosting.HostingEnvironment.InitiateShutdown() at System.Web.Hosting.PipelineRuntime.StopProcessing() the message resource is present but the message is not found in the string/message table Anyone have any ideas for more debugging?

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  • Rolling back file moves, folder deletes and mysql queries

    - by Workoholic
    This has been bugging me all day and there is no end in sight. When the user of my php application adds a new update and something goes wrong, I need to be able to undo a complex batch of mixed commands. They can be mysql update and insert queries, file deletes and folder renaming and creations. I can track the status of all insert commands and undo them if an error is thrown. But how do I do this with the update statements? Is there a smart way (some design pattern?) to keep track of such changes both in the file structure and the database? My database tables are MyISAM. It would be easy to just convert everything to InnoDB, so that I can use transactions. That way I would only have to deal with the file and folder operations. Unfortunately, I cannot assume that all clients have InnoDB support. It would also require me to convert many tables in my database to InnoDB, which I am hesitant to do.

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  • MS Access 2003 - Failure to create MDE file: error VBA is corrupt?

    - by Justin
    Ok so this is a brand new snag I have run into. I am trying to launch a new MDE from my source MDB file, and it is locking up Access. So in my mdb, I am first compacting and repairing, and then selecting create a new mde (just as I have done many times before). It looks like it is starting the process, but never gets to where it compacts when it is done, and access is not responding. So after I force close the app, I look in the folder where I am trying to create the MDE to and I see there is a new access db1 file there. If I try to open that it gives me an error that says file not found, and then it says the Visual Basic for Applications is corrupt. The thing is, I just made a very simple adjustment to the code since last launching an mde, and after this I double and triple checked it...its not that because its just a simple open this form and close this one addition. I did however have my source mdb file on a disc that I copied to my laptop, and then tried to re link the tables to the network drive (had them linked to other tables on my local drive so that I could develop offline)?? PLEASE HELP!!!

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  • Many to many table design question

    - by user169867
    Originally I had 2 tables in my DB, [Property] and [Employee]. Each employee can have 1 "Home Property" so the employee table has a HomePropertyID FK field to Property. Later I needed to model the situation where despite having only 1 "Home Property" the employee did work at or cover for multiple properties. So I created an [Employee2Property] table that has EmployeeID and PropertyID FK fields to model this many 2 many relationship. Now I find that I need to create other many-to-many relationships between employees and properties. For example if there are multiple employees that are managers for a property or multiple employees that perform maintenance work at a property, etc. My questions are: 1) Should I create seperate many-to-many tables for each of these situations or should I just create 1 more table like [PropertyAssociatonType] that lists the types of associations an emploee can have with a property and just add a FK field to [Employee2Property] such a PropertyAssociationTypeID that explains what the association is? I'm curious about the pros/cons or if there's another better way. 2) Am I stupid and going about this all worng? Thanks for any suggestions :)

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  • LEFT OUTER JOIN with a WHERE clause

    - by Wesley
    I have two tables. indRailType contains a list of the names paired with an ID value that I use in other tables to indicate the rail type. WO_BreakerRail contains a date column and a rail code colume that corresponds to the same code in indRailType and some other data. There's a row in WO_BreakerRail for any activity on each rail type, for every date. So I could have 3 rows dated for 3/19/2010, each row indicates a different rail code, and what happened. When I use the following LEFT OUTER JOIN, I get a table with all the types of rail, with nulls in the rows where nothing happened on the 19th. Now, this is only working because I only have one date represented in my WO_BreakerRail table right now, the 19th. When I add more rows with different dates, things will go haywire. This is my SQL statement, which right now gives me exactly the results I want: SELECT WO_BreakerRail.ID, indRailType.RailType, WO_BreakerRail.CreatedPieces, WO_BreakerRail.OutsideSource, WO_BreakerRail.Charged, WO_BreakerRail.Rejected, WO_BreakerRail.RejectedToCrop FROM indRailType LEFT OUTER JOIN WO_BreakerRail ON indRailType.RailCode = WO_BreakerRail.RailCode Now, when I add in a WHERE WO_BreakerRail.Date = @Date clause I lose all the rows in the JOIN which nothing happened. I don't want that. From reading up, it sounds like a FULL OUTER JOIN is what I want, but SQL Server Compact Edition doesn't support FULL OUTER JOINs. Is there a way around this, or am I looking for something else entirely?

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