Search Results

Search found 73679 results on 2948 pages for 'get http client info'.

Page 195/2948 | < Previous Page | 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200 201 202  | Next Page >

  • PHP/CGI: Portable and safe way to get PATH_INFO

    - by LiraNuna
    I'm seeking a portable way to receive the (handy) $_SERVER['PATH_INFO'] variable. After reading a while, it turns out PATH_INFO is originated from CGI/1.1, and my not always be present in all configuration. What is the best (mostly security-wise) way to get that variable - apart from extracting it manually (security concern).

    Read the article

  • using php Download File From a given URL by passing username and password for http authentication

    - by Acharya
    Hi all, I need to download a text file using php code. The file is having http authentication. What procedure I should use for this. Should I use fsocketopen or curl or Is there any other way to do this? I am using fsocketopen but it does not seem to work. $fp=fsockopen("www.example.com",80,$errno,$errorstr); $out = "GET abcdata/feed.txt HTTP/1.1\r\n"; $out .= "User: xyz \r\n"; $out .= "Password: xyz \r\n\r\n"; fwrite($fp, $out); while(!feof($fp)) { echo fgets($fp,1024); } fclose($fp); Here fgets is returning false. Any help!!!

    Read the article

  • Can't authenticate mobile client with node.js (using passport.js)

    - by Pazinio
    I'm trying to build some CRUD application with node.js as a back-end API (express) and web-app (backbone) and mobile client (native android) as front-ends.(I'm node.js beginner) My server solution is based on the following great tutorial 'easy-node-authentication'. In my android app I have managed to get the user Google-Token after I completed the authentication step with Google Plus SDK.(mobile to google-plus directly request). I'm trying to understand and find right and elegant way to re-use a given google-token and authenticate again my android user through Google-Plus account to ensure the mobile client holds real token, then add a new entry (id, token, email, name) to my users table DB within my node back-end. The question is: what should be my next step in case I want to keep my back-end without changes? should I send a GET request with the token as a cookie to /auth/google? maybe to /auth/google/callback? another URL? Does this make sense at all? Please note: I'm aware to the fact the mentioned above 'easy-node-auth' solution is based on sessions and cookies. having said that, i'm still trying to understand if there is a convenient way to integrate both (android and node) as it works good for my web-app and node. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • WCF publish/subscribe service, and ASP.NET MVC client

    - by d3j4vu
    I managed to develop a custom WCF service, using the publish / subscribe model, and hosted inside a managed windows service. Everything's working. I developed an interface as the service contract implementing a method definition marked as a non-one way operation contract (OperationContract(IsOneWay = false)]. This, to make possible returns an instance of a custom class derived from System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult. In the MVC app, event fires ok. It wraps inside an action method, (just the one defined in the interface), but, and this is my current problem, i believe that something relative to the execution context of the windows service (and the hosted wcf counterpart) blocks the execution of the action method in the MVC app. This is what i have until now (some pieces ripped off just to be more clear): /// Method definition for the contract's service. Maps to a MVC ActionMethod. [OperationContract(IsOneWay = false)] ActionResult Imagen(string data, CustomActionResult result); The class to hold an ActionResult derived class instance: public class ServiceEventArgsMvc : ServiceEventArgs { /// <summary> /// /// </summary> public CustomActionResult Result { get; set; } } And the code in the MVC client app: /// <summary> /// Just a simple class to hold an abstract ActionResult derived class instance. /// </summary> public ActionResult Image(string data, CustomActionResult result) { ViewData["data"] = data; return View(); } Ok. ActionMethod sucessfully executes...but when it's done (and usually expected obtain a reditection to a View named Image, like the action method), the WCF service throws a Timeout exception, making clear that he's still waiting for a response from the MVC client. The response never arrives, so the MVC app never finish his work (redirect to the "Image" view as expected). Any ideas?. Guess i'm missing something very simple, but i don't know what it could be. This is drivin' me nuts.

    Read the article

  • GUI for server-client program

    - by sksingh73
    I am making a server-client application in c++. In this i am also using shared memory & file read-write operations. my program is completely ready & i now wants to make a gui for it. someone suggested me to go for QT4, but when i tried it, i found i have to re-write 80% of the code because QT has got its own classes & variable. i don't want to do it. i want suggestions from you on this regard. my requirements for gui are very simple i.e there will be a main form, which will have two text boxes in which all messages being sent & received by client & server should be shown. there should be another lineedit box, through which i can send the messages to the other end server. I don't know how to make this gui. someone suggested tcl/tk, other suggested me use php/swig. i am not sure how to go about this. my only requirement is that i want to make this simple gui with minimum of changes in my code. THANX

    Read the article

  • Custom Response + HTTP status?

    - by Cristian Boariu
    Hi, I have a rest interface for my project. For one class i have a POST method where you can post an xml and i RETURN a custom response like: <userInvitation>Invalid email</userInvitation> if the email from the xml which was posted, was incorrect + other custom messages i have defined for different situations. For all of these the HTTP STATUS is automatically put on 200 (OK). Is there any way to change it? Ps: I know that i can throw a web application like : throw new WebApplicationException(Response.Status.BAD_REQUEST); but in this case my custom response is no more included. So i just want to return my custom error + 400 as http response. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Pass object from webserver to client

    - by user362914
    I developed a C# web application that calls a web-service which returns a base64 encoded array (PDF file). I then convert that array into a UCOMIStream object (I know it is obsolete, but the DLL that I am using requires it as a parameter). I use the following code to do the conversion which works perfectly. I can pass this object to the DLL so that I can print the PDF. This works great on the Webserver, but the requirement is to print it locally. Byte[] bBuffer = statementOut.statementcycle.statementdata.content; int size = bBuffer.Length; IntPtr mem = Marshal.AllocHGlobal(size); Marshal.Copy(bBuffer, 0, mem, size); // Create an OLE Stream object. System.Runtime.InteropServices.UCOMIStream str; //obsolete but the createstreamonhglobal outputs it CreateStreamOnHGlobal(mem, true, out str); The DLL resides on the client so I am able to use ActiveX to create the object using javascript and/or VBscript;however, I have not been able to figure out how to get the stream object to the client to pass to the DLL. How can this be achieved?

    Read the article

  • Using jQuery, how do I way attach a string array as a http parameter to a http request?

    - by predhme
    I have a spring controller with a request mapping as follows @RequestMapping("/downloadSelected") public void downloadSelected(@RequestParam String[] ids) { // retrieve the file and write it to the http response outputstream } I have an html table of objects which for every row has a checkbox with the id of the object as the value. When they submit, I have a jQuery callback to serialize all ids. I want to stick those ids into an http request parameter called, "ids" so that I can grab them easily. I figured I could do the following var ids = $("#downloadall").serializeArray(); Then I would need to take each of the ids and add them to a request param called ids. But is there a "standard" way to do this? Like using jQuery?

    Read the article

  • Best way to keep a .net client app updated with status of another application

    - by rwmnau
    I have a Windows service that's running all the time, and takes some action every 15 minutes. I also have a client WinForms app that displays some information about what the service is doing. I'd like the forms application to keep itself updated with a recent status, but I'm not sure if polling every second is a good move performance-wise. When it starts, my Windows Service opens a WCF named pipe to receive queries (from my client form) Every second, a timer on the winform sends a query to the pipe, and then displays the results. If the pipe isn't there, the form displays that the service isn't running. Is that the best way to do this? If my service opens the pipe when it starts, will it always stay open (until I close it or my service stops)? In addition to polling the service, maybe there's some way for the service to notify any watching applications of certain events, like starting and stopping processing? That way, I could poll less, since I'd presumably know about big events already, and would only be polling for progress. Anything that I'm missing?

    Read the article

  • how can I reliably check that requests to my service file have come from my website?

    - by woot586
    I have a service.php class that I use to service AJAX calls from my website. To prevent other people accessing the service using PHP CURL I would normally check the request has come from mysite, and if they are not then just redirect to my home page e.g. if($_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'] != "http://www.mysite.com"){ header('location: http://www.mysite.com'); exit; } I read in the PHP holy bible: http://www.php.net/manual/en/reserved.variables.server.php that "Not all user agents will set this, and some provide the ability to modify HTTP_REFERER as a feature. In short, it cannot really be trusted." So if this method is not reliable, my question is how can I reliably check that requests to my service file have come from my website? Thanks for any help you can provide!

    Read the article

  • What is the best way to read GetResponseStream() ?

    - by Dev Dona
    What is the best way to read an HTTP response from GetResponseStream ? Currently I'm using the following approach. Using SReader As StreamReader = New StreamReader(HttpRes.GetResponseStream) SourceCode = SReader.ReadToEnd() End Using I'm not quite sure if this is the most effecient way to read an http response. I need the output as string, I've seen an article ( http://www.informit.com/guides/content.aspx?g=dotnet&seqNum=583 ) with a different approach but I'm not quite if it's a good one. And in my tests that code had some encoding issues with in different websites. How do you read web responses?

    Read the article

  • Jquery - removing an image before the client browser attempts to download it

    - by ajbrun
    Hi there, I wonder if anyone could help me with a problem I've been having. I have a number of large images available, but due to space limitations, I can't create multiple copies of these at various sizes. I have used PHP GD functions to resize the images to the sizes I need and output them to the browser. This works, but obviously takes some processing time, which therefore impacts pages load times. I'm fine with this, but I only want to show the image once it's fully loaded, and have a loading gif in its place until that time. I'm using jquery to do this. The problem I'm having is making the page functional whether the client has javascript enabled or not. If JS is not enabled, I want standard img tags to be outputted, otherwise the images are removed and replaced with a loading gif until they have been fully loaded. The link below shows a simple non-javascript unfriendly example of a what I want to do (try turning JS off): http://jqueryfordesigners.com/demo/image-load-demo.php I've been testing the basics using the code below. The attr() function will be replaced with something like remove(). This is just a test to make something happen to the image before the browser tries to load it. $(document).ready(function() { $( "#Thumbnails .thumbnail img" ).attr('src', '#'); }); In IE, this works correctly - the image source is replaced with "#" BEFORE the client browser gets a chance to start downloading the image. In firefox however, it downloads the image, and THEN changes the source. It seems to me that firefox is loading the jquery onready event later than it should. As far as I know, this should be executed before the standard onload event and before anything has started loading. If it helps, I'm testing it with a good number of images on screen (81). Am I doing something wrong?

    Read the article

  • Execute client & server side code with one click?

    - by Abu Hamzah
    i am not sure if my design have flaw but would like to know what others have to say, i am in a situation where i am trying to acheive two things in one click. using : asp.net web form i have a web form with few textbox and a gridview control and a button. if i click on the button i am executing two things 1) asynchronously get data from server to client (working great) and able to display the data in the textboxes. 2) same click i want to bind the gridview. <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="cphMaster" runat="server"> <asp:Label runat="server" ID='Label1' >Id:</asp:Label> <asp:TextBox ID="txtId" runat='server'></asp:TextBox> <asp:Button ID="btnSubmit" OnClientClick="LoadDataById();" runat="server" Text="Submit" onclick="btnSubmit_Click" /> <br /> <br /> <asp:TextBox ID="txtName" runat='server'></asp:TextBox> <br /> <asp:TextBox ID="txtPurpose" runat='server'></asp:TextBox> <br /> <br /> <asp:GridView ID="GridView1" runat="server"> </asp:GridView> </asp:Content> server side protected void btnSubmit_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { GridView1.DataSource = laodData(int.Parse(txtId.Text)); GridView1.DataBind(); } Jquery: function LoadVisitBasicByVisitId() { ContactServiceProxy.invoke({ serviceMethod: "GetDataById", data: { request: request }, callback: function(response) { processCompletedContactStore(response); }, error: function(xhr, errorMsg, thrown) { postErrorAndUnBlockUI(xhr, errorMsg, thrown); } }); return false; } recap: 1) jquery script execute asynchronously to get data from server to client and display in the textboxes 2) server side code to bind the gridview.

    Read the article

  • .htaccess Problem

    - by ocergynohtna
    I'm having trouble with redirecting urls using the .htaccess file. This is how my htaccess file looks like: Redirect 301 /file-name/example.php http://www.mysite.com/file-name/example-001.php Redirect 301 /section-name/example.php http://www.my-site.com/section-name/example-002.php RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^www.mysite.com$ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://www.mysite.com/$1 [L,R=301] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteRule ^(.+)/(.*)$ hqtemplates/articles.php?file_name=$2 [L] php_value session.use_only_cookies 1 php_value session.use_trans_sid 0 Now the problem is that when I go to page: www.my-site.com/file-name/example.php instead of redirecting me to www.my-site.com/file-name/example-001.php it redirects me to www.my-site.com/file-name/example.php?file_name=example-001.php. For some reason it adds "?file_name=example-001.php" to the url. Anyone know's why this is happening and how to fix this?

    Read the article

  • How to explain to client that you can't give them some of the source

    - by Bo
    We have a number of AS/Flex components that we've built over time and improved upon. They've been turned into components so they can be reused in different projects and save us time. So you can think of them as part of an in-house framework of sorts. We're now realizing that it doesn't make sense to release the source code for these components to the various clients as part of the project, because technically this code isn't really owned by the clients. So my question When a client comes to you, how do you explain to them that you can't give them the full source code for those components. The client doesn't understand the difference, he just expects you to give them all the code for the site that he paid you to do. He doesn't understand that this code has taken you a lot longer to write than what he's paying for his site. But since he doesn't understand, he would get turned off and thinks you're ripping him off or something. How do you handle this situation? What do you tell clients upfront? Do you advertise it on your site from the very beginning? How do you handle their objections so they still hire you? As a side question, how often do you give AS and Flex source code to your clients? In the case when the code doesn't have any in-house components that you reuse in several projects, and in the case when it does have in-house components.

    Read the article

  • Prototype or jQuery for DOM manipulation (client-side dynamic content)

    - by luiggitama
    I need to know which of these two JavaScript frameworks is better for client-side dynamic content modification for known DOM elements (by id), in terms of performance, memory usage, etc.: Prototype's $('id').update(content) jQuery's jQuery('#id').html(content) BTW, both libraries coexist with no conflict in my app, because I'm using RichFaces for JSF development, that's why I can use "jQuery" instead of "$". I have at least 20 updatable areas in my page, and for each one I prepare content (tables, option lists, etc.), based on some user-defined client-side criteria filtering or some AJAX event, etc., like this: var html = []; int idx = 0; ... html[idx++] = '<tr><td class="cell"><span class="link" title="View" onclick="myFunction('; html[idx++] = param; html[idx++] = ')"></span>'; html[idx++] = someText; html[idx++] = '</td></tr>'; ... So here comes the question, which is better to use: // Prototype's $('myId').update(html.join('')); // or jQuery's jQuery('#myId').html(html.join('')); Other needed functions are hide() and show(), which are present in both frameworks. Which is better? Also I'm needing to enable/disable form controls, and to read/set their values. Note that I know my updatable area's id (I don't need CSS selectors at this point). And I must tell that I'm saving these queried objects in some data structure for later use, so they are requested just once when the page is rendered, like this: MyData = {div1:jQuery('#id1'), div2:$('id2'), ...}; ... div1.update('content 1'); div2.html('content 2'); So, which is the best practice?

    Read the article

  • Setting cookie for site in http and https under different subdomains in PHP

    - by nilacqua
    Situation: 1. I'm trying run an https store(xcart) under one domain secure.mydomain and I want to have access to a cookie it sets in http www.mydomain 2. I'm Running PHP on apache(MAMP), testing in firefox with firecookie 3. The existing code sets cookies to .secure.mydomain. I'm not sure if this is xcart related, but setcookie is actually called using secure.mydomain. I'm not sure why the "." is appended. Problems: 1. When I try to use setcookie in https to use the domain .mydomain or just mydomain, no cookie is created, whether I'm running the store under http or https. The testing code I'm using is: setcookie('three', 'two', 0, "/", ".mydomain"); If I set the cookie to secure.mydomain or .secure.mydomain it does show up. Is there a reason the cookie isn't showing up?

    Read the article

  • Rails gives wrong headers after upgrade 2.3.5 -> 2.3.8

    - by macsniper
    I just upgraded from rails 2.3.5 to rails 2.3.8, but now my redirects are not working properly. I get the following as the response HTTP Headers: HTTP/1.1 302 Moved Temporarily Date: Wed, 02 Jun 2010 09:40:39 GMT Content-Length: 93 Content-Type: text/html whereas I got previous: HTTP/1.1 302 Moved Temporarily Connection: close Date: Wed, 02 Jun 2010 09:41:18 GMT Set-Cookie: _session_id=<correct id>; path=/ Status: 302 Found Location: <correct url> Cache-Control: no-cache Server: Mongrel 1.1.5 Content-Type: text/html; charset=utf-8 Content-Length: 93 Anyone knows how to fix this? Despite the fact that the redirect is not working, the login-cookie is not set too (but I think, this is both related somehow). I have already tried to override redirect_to in order to set response.headers['Location'] etc., but they did not appear in the response.

    Read the article

  • Facebook iframe app redirecting https to http, how?

    - by Paul Whitrow
    I'm trying to get an app working within Facebook, but it seems that no matter what I try including forcing just https in the app settings (see screen shot), the iframe source (Facebooks canvas) seems to change the https address to http (301) which is then producing SEC7111: HTTPS security errors in IE? (sorry I can't post screen shots or extra links yet:( ) Header dump of page in question: Request URL:https://[hidden] Request Method:POST Status Code:301 Moved Permanently Request Headers (13) Form Data (1) Response Headersview source Connection:keep-alive Content-Encoding:gzip Content-Length:253 Content-Type:text/html; charset=iso-8859-1 Date:Mon, 01 Jul 2013 09:42:32 GMT Location:http://[hidden] Server:Apache/2.2.22 Vary:Accept-Encoding I'm getting so confused by this, and would welcome any help that the community could offer.

    Read the article

  • Sending a file from memory (rather than disk) over HTTP using libcurl

    - by cinek1lol
    Hi! I would like to send pictures via a program written in C + +. - OK WinExec("C:\\curl\\curl.exe -H Expect: -F \"fileupload=@C:\\curl\\ok.jpg\" -F \"xml=yes\" -# \"http://www.imageshack.us/index.php\" -o data.txt -A \"Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 5.1; en-US; rv:1.8.1.1) Gecko/20061204 Firefox/2.0.0.1\" -e \"http://www.imageshack.us\"", NULL); It works, but I would like to send the pictures from pre-loaded carrier to a variable char (you know what I mean? First off, I load the pictures into a variable and then send the variable), cause now I have to specify the path of the picture on a disk. I wanted to write this program in c++ by using the curl library, not through exe. extension. I have also found such a program (which has been modified by me a bit) #include <stdio.h> #include <string.h> #include <iostream> #include <curl/curl.h> #include <curl/types.h> #include <curl/easy.h> int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { CURL *curl; CURLcode res; struct curl_httppost *formpost=NULL; struct curl_httppost *lastptr=NULL; struct curl_slist *headerlist=NULL; static const char buf[] = "Expect:"; curl_global_init(CURL_GLOBAL_ALL); /* Fill in the file upload field */ curl_formadd(&formpost, &lastptr, CURLFORM_COPYNAME, "send", CURLFORM_FILE, "nowy.jpg", CURLFORM_END); curl_formadd(&formpost, &lastptr, CURLFORM_COPYNAME, "nowy.jpg", CURLFORM_COPYCONTENTS, "nowy.jpg", CURLFORM_END); curl_formadd(&formpost, &lastptr, CURLFORM_COPYNAME, "submit", CURLFORM_COPYCONTENTS, "send", CURLFORM_END); curl = curl_easy_init(); headerlist = curl_slist_append(headerlist, buf); if(curl) { curl_easy_setopt(curl, CURLOPT_URL, "http://www.imageshack.us/index.php"); if ( (argc == 2) && (!strcmp(argv[1], "xml=yes")) ) curl_easy_setopt(curl, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, headerlist); curl_easy_setopt(curl, CURLOPT_HTTPPOST, formpost); res = curl_easy_perform(curl); curl_easy_cleanup(curl); curl_formfree(formpost); curl_slist_free_all (headerlist); } system("pause"); return 0; }

    Read the article

  • Possible to use Javascript to access the client side's network(knowingly)

    - by Earlz
    I recently found an exploit in my router to basically give me root access. The catch? There is a nonce hidden form value that is randomly generated and must be sent in for it to work that makes it difficult to do "easily" So basically I'm wanting to do something like this in javascript: get http://192.168.1.254/blah use a regex or similar to extract the nonce value put the nonce value into a hidden field in the current page submit the form by POST to http://192.168.1.254/blah complete with the nonce value and other form values I want to send in. Is this at all possible using only HTML and Javascript? I'm open to things like "must save HTML file locally and then open", which I'm thinking is one way around the cross domain policy. But anyway, is this at all possible? I'm hoping for this to be able to run from at least Firefox and Chrome. The audience for this is those with some technical know how.

    Read the article

  • server not sending custom header values

    - by egza
    I'm using PHP 5.2.17 to get a remote page, the HTTP requests contains some cookie values but cookies are not delivered to the destination page. $url = 'http://somesite.com/'; $opts = array( 'http' => array ( 'header' => array("Cookie: field1=value1; field2=value2\r\n") ) ); $context = stream_context_create($opts); echo file_get_contents($url, false, $context); Can you help me find the problem? Note: I can't use curl. Thanks.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200 201 202  | Next Page >