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  • Can i change the view without changing the controller?

    - by Ian Boyd
    Pretend1 there is a place to type in a name:     Name: __________________ When the text box changes, the value is absorbed into the controller, who stores it in data model. Business rules require that a name be entered: if there is no text entered the TextBox should be colored something in the view to indicate baddness; otherwise it can be whatever color the view likes. The TextBox contains a String, the controller handles a String, and the model stores a String. Now lets say i want to improve the view. There is a new kind of text box2 that can be fed not only string-based keyboard input, but also an image. The view (currently) knows how to determine if the image is in the proper format to perform the processing required to extract text out of it. If there is text, then that text can be fed to the controller, who feeds it to the data model. But if the image is invalid, e.g.3 wrong file format invalid dimensions invalid bit depth unhandled or unknown encoding format missing or incorrectly located registration marks contents not recognizable the view can show something to the user that the image is bad. But the telling the user that something is bad is supposed to be the job of the controller. i'm, of course, not going to re-write the controller to handle Image based text-input (e.g. image based names). a. the code is binary locked inside a GUI widget4 b. there other views besides this one, i'm not going to impose a particular view onto the controller c. i just don't wanna. If i have to change things outside of this UI improvement, then i'll just leave the UI unimproved5 So what's the thinking on having different views for the same Model and Controller? Nitpicker's Corner 1 contrived hypothetical example 2 e.g. bar code, g-mask, ocr 3 contrived hypothetical reasons 4 or hardware of a USB bar-code scanner 5 forcing the user to continue to use a DateTimePicker rather than a TextBox

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  • Best Way to View Generated Source of Webpage?

    - by jeremy
    I'm looking for a tool that will give me the proper generated source including DOM changes made by AJAX requests for input into W3's validator. I've tried the following methods: Web Developer Toolbar - Generates invalid source according to the doc-type (e.g. it removes the self closing portion of tags). Loses the doctype portion of the page. Firebug - Fixes potential flaws in the source (e.g. unclosed tags). Also loses doctype portion of tags and injects the console which itself is invalid HTML. IE Developer Toolbar - Generates invalid source according to the doc-type (e.g. it makes all tags uppercase, against XHTML spec). Highlight + View Selection Source - Frequently difficult to get the entire page, also excludes doc-type. Is there any program or add-on out there that will give me the exact current version of the source, without fixing or changing it in some way? So far, Firebug seems the best, but I worry it may fix some of my mistakes. Solution It turns out there is no exact solution to what I wanted as Justin explained. The best solution seems to be to validate the source inside of Firebug's console, even though it will contain some errors caused by Firebug. I'd also like to thank Forgotten Semicolon for explaining why "View Generated Source" doesn't match the actual source. If I could mark 2 best answers, I would.

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  • mysql get table based on common column between two tables

    - by Zentdayn
    while trying to learn sql i came across "Learn SQL The Hard Way" and i started reading it. Everything was going fine then i thought ,as a way to practice, to make something like given example in the book (example consists in 3 tables pet,person,person_pet and the person_pet table 'links' pets to their owners). I made this: report table +----+-------------+ | id | content | +----+-------------+ | 1 | bank robbery| | 2 | invalid | | 3 | cat on tree | +----+-------------+ notes table +-----------+--------------------+ | report_id | content | +-----------+--------------------+ | 1 | they had guns | | 3 | cat was saved | +-----------+--------------------+ wanted result +-----------+--------------------+---------------+ | report_id | report_content | report_notes | +-----------+--------------------+---------------+ | 1 | bank robbery | they had guns | | 2 | invalid | null or '' | | 3 | cat on tree | cat was saved | +-----------+--------------------+---------------+ I tried a few combinations but no success. My first thought was SELECT report.id,report.content AS report_content,note.content AS note_content FROM report,note WHERE report.id = note.report_id but this only returns the ones that have a match (would not return the invalid report). after this i tried adding IF conditions but i just made it worse. My question is, is this something i will figure out after getting past basic sql or can this be done in simple way? Anyway i would appreciate any help, i pretty much lost with this. Thank you. EDIT: i have looked into related questions but havent yet found one that solves my problem. I probably need to look into other statements such as join or something to sort this out.

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  • jQuery validate problem

    - by tohop
    Hi there. I have a jquery dialog box that pops up and takes user data through a form. Once the user is finished s/he clicks the 'ok' button. This dialog box has a few 'tabs' such that when 'ok' is clicked, we want to validate all the data given in each tab. If anything is invalid, we take the user to that tab and tell them what's wrong. However, it takes 2 clicks of 'ok' to achieve this. Here is the offending jquery: if(errors){ // display the tab with the error jQuery('#recording_tabs > div').each( function(i){ alert('we are here'); if(jQuery(this).find('*').not('label').hasClass('invalid')){ jQuery('#recording_tabs').tabs('option','selected', i); return false;// prevent further processing } }); } So what happens in the above code is that when we click 'ok' we get a 'we are here' alert for each div (tab) and then nothing happens. Clicking 'ok' again gives us the 'we are here' alert up until we are taken to the tab with the errors. So obviously the first time round the inner if statement is false for each tab which probably means jQuery hasn't registered the 'invalid' classes in time. So I tried a blank each() statement just before the main one in the hope that it would fix the problem jQuery('#recording_tabs > div').each( function(i){} ); But I got the same result. Can anyone spot anything I am missing?

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  • What is the nicest way to parse this in C++ ?

    - by ereOn
    Hi, In my program, I have a list of "server address" in the following format: host[:port] The brackets here, indicate that the port is optional. host can be a hostname, an IPv4 or IPv6 address. port, if present can be a numeric port number or a service string (like: "http" or "ssh"). If port is present and host is an IPv6 address, host must be in "bracket-enclosed" notation (Example: [::1]) Here are some valid examples: localhost localhost:11211 127.0.0.1:http [::1]:11211 ::1 [::1] And an invalid example: ::1:80 // Invalid: Is this the IPv6 address ::1:80 and a default port, or the IPv6 address ::1 and the port 80 ? ::1:http // This is not ambigous, but for simplicity sake, let's consider this is forbidden as well. My goal is to separate such entries in two parts (obviously host and port). I don't care if either the host or port are invalid as long as they don't contain a : (290.234.34.34.5 is ok for host, it will be rejected in the next process); I just want to separate the two parts, or if there is no port part, to know it somehow. I tried to do something with std::stringstream but everything I come up to seems hacky and not really elegant. How would you do this in C++ ? I don't mind answers in C but C++ is prefered. Any boost solution is welcome as well. Thank you.

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  • An array problem in C++

    - by manugupt1
    To access the array indice at the xth position we can use some sort of illustration as shown below #include<iostream> using namespace std; int main(){ float i[20]; for(int j=0;j<=20;j++) i[j]=0; } However the following piece of code does not work #include<iostream> using namespace std; float oldrand[55]; int jrand; void advance_random(){ int j1; float new_random; for(j1=0;j1<=23;j1++){ int temp = j1+30; new_random = (oldrand[j1]) - (oldrand[temp]); if(new_random <0.0) new_random = new_random+1; oldrand[j1] = new_random; } for(j1=24;j1<=54;j1++){ new_random[j1] = oldrand[j1] - oldrand[j1-23]; if(new_random[j1]<0.0) new_random[j1] = new_random + 1; oldrand[j1]=new_random; } } I recieve the following error ga.cpp:20: error: invalid types ‘float[int]’ for array subscript ga.cpp:21: error: invalid types ‘float[int]’ for array subscript ga.cpp:22: error: invalid types ‘float[int]’ for array subscript I am not able to find a mistake in my code please help me

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  • Extending a form field to add new validations.

    - by duallain
    I've written an app that uses forms to collect information that is then sent in an email. Many of these forms have a filefield used to attach files to the email. I'd like to validate two things, the size of the file (to ensure the emails are accepted by our mail server. I'd also like to check the file extension, to discourage attaching file types not useable for our users. (This is the python class I'm trying to extend) class FileField(Field): widget = FileInput default_error_messages = { 'invalid': _(u"No file was submitted. Check the encoding type on the form."), 'missing': _(u"No file was submitted."), 'empty': _(u"The submitted file is empty."), 'max_length': _(u'Ensure this filename has at most %(max)d characters (it has %(length)d).'), } def __init__(self, *args, **kwargs): self.max_length = kwargs.pop('max_length', None) super(FileField, self).__init__(*args, **kwargs) def clean(self, data, initial=None): super(FileField, self).clean(initial or data) if not self.required and data in EMPTY_VALUES: return None elif not data and initial: return initial # UploadedFile objects should have name and size attributes. try: file_name = data.name file_size = data.size except AttributeError: raise ValidationError(self.error_messages['invalid']) if self.max_length is not None and len(file_name) > self.max_length: error_values = {'max': self.max_length, 'length': len(file_name)} raise ValidationError(self.error_messages['max_length'] % error_values) if not file_name: raise ValidationError(self.error_messages['invalid']) if not file_size: raise ValidationError(self.error_messages['empty']) return data

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  • PHP Session doesn't get read in next page after login validation, Why?

    - by NetStar
    I have a web site and when my users login it takes them to verify.php (where it connects to the DataBase and matches email and password to the user input and if OK puts client data into sessions and take the client to /memberarea/index.php ELSE back to login page with message "Invalid Email or password!") <?php ob_start(); session_start(); $email=$_POST['email']; $pass=md5($_POST['pass']); include("conn.php"); // connects to Database $sql="SELECT * FROM `user` WHERE email='$email' AND pass='$pass'"; $result=mysql_query($sql); $new=mysql_fetch_array($result); $_SESSION['fname']=$new['fname']; $_SESSION['lname']=$new['lname']; $_SESSION['email1']=$new['email1']; $_SESSION['passwrd']=$new['passwrd']; $no=mysql_num_rows($result); if ($no==1){ header('Location:memberarea/index.php'); }else { header("Location:login.php?m=$msg"); //msg="Invalid Login" } ?> then after email id and password is verified it takes them to ` /memberarea/index.php (This is where the problem happens.) where in index.php it checks if a session has been created in-order to block hackers to enter member area and sends them back to the login page. <? session_start(); isset($_SESSION['email'])` && `isset($_SESSION['passwrd'])` The problem is the client gets verified in verify.php (the code is above) In varify.php only after I put ob_start(); ontop of session_start(); It moves on to /memberarea/index.php , If I remove ob_start() It keeps the client on the verify.php page and displays error header is alredy SENT. after I put ob_start() it goes in to /memberarea/index.php but the session is blank, so it goes back to the login page and displays the error ($msg) "Invalid Login" which I programed to display. Can anyone tell me why the session cant pass values from verify.php to /memberarea/index.php

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  • How to create festival calendar in ASP.net

    - by Atul
    I want to make a festival calendar using asp.net from that I used two ajax calendar and one textbox it is a festival textbox where we enter festival which FromDate and ToDate respectively. I want to do this as following point If I enter in textbox Christmas and Choose Fromdate=25/12/2011 and ToDate=31/12/2011 then it will be valid If I choose fromDate=25/12/2011 and ToDate=24/12/2011 then it will invalid If I choose Fromdate=25/12/2011 and Todate=28/12/2011 then also it is invalid because it coming in between 25/12/2011 and 31/12/2011 If I Choose fromdate=1/1/2011 and ToDate=1/1/2011 then it is valid If I choose fromdate=21/12/2011 and 25/12/2011 then it is invalid because of already Christmas done in 1/1/2011 And all date should show in gridview like 25-dec-2011 format Here is my code: DateTime dt1 = Convert.ToDateTime(txt_fromdate.Text); DateTime dt2 = Convert.ToDateTime(txt_todate.Text); if (dt1 > dt2) { con.Open(); com = new SqlCommand("BTNN_MovieDB_Festival_Details_Insert", con); com.Parameters.Add("@fromdate", SqlDbType.VarChar).Value = dateformat_mmdd(txt_fromdate.Text.ToString().Trim()); com.Parameters.Add("@todate", SqlDbType.VarChar).Value = dateformat_mmdd(txt_todate.Text.ToString().Trim()); com.Parameters.Add("@return", SqlDbType.VarChar).Direction = ParameterDirection.ReturnValue; com.ExecuteNonQuery(); con.Close(); showdata(); } else if (dt1 < dt2) { lblerror.Text = "ToDate should be greater than FromDate"; }

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  • Validation errors prevent the property setter being called

    - by HA
    Hi, I am looking for a simple solution to the following problem: I am using a simple TextBox control with the Text property bound to a property in the code behind. Additionally I am using a validation rule to notify the user of malformed input. ... error display style here ... Now after entering valid data into the TextBox the user can hit a button to send the data. When clicking the button the data from the bound property UserName in the code behind is evaluated and sent. The problem is that a user can enter valid data into the TextBox and this will be set in the property UserName. If the user then decides to change the text in the TextBox and the data becomes invalid, the setter of the property UserName is not called after the failed validation. This means that the last valid data remains in the property UserName, while the TextBox display the invalid data with the error indicator. If the user then clicks on the button to send the data, the last valid data will be sent instead of the current TextBox content. I know I could deactivate the button if the data is invalid and in fact I do, but the method is called in the setter of UserName. And if that is not called after a failed validation the button stays enabled. So the question is: How do I enable calling of the property setter after a failed validation?

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  • My SMTP's outgoing mail gets bounced

    - by BloodPhilia
    I've got a ISPconfig 3 production server set up, running Ubuntu Server 9.04. My e-mail gets delivered ok to almost every other server I send mail to except for one (smtp.chello.nl which bounces my email). In my /var/log/mail.err I found the below error. Sep 23 08:59:33 <MYHOSTNAME> postfix/smtp[26944]: 3DB2B1456149: to=<<RECIPIENT>@chello.nl>, relay=smtp.chello.nl[213.46.255.2]:25, delay=2, delays=0.02/0.01/1.9/0.04, dsn=5.1.0, status=bounced (host smtp.chello.nl[213.46.255.2] said: 550 5.1.0 Dynamic/Generic hostnames are blocked. Please contact your Email Provider. Your IP was <MY IP>. Your hostname was ??. (in reply to MAIL FROM command)) What could be the cause of this? I did an SMTP check on mxtools.com and got the following: OK - Not an open relay OK - 0 seconds - Good on Connection time OK - 1.482 seconds - Good on Transaction time OK - 83.161.xx.xx resolves to a83-161-xx-xx.xxx.xxx.nl WARNING - Reverse DNS does not match SMTP Banner Update: My IP is static.

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  • map subdomain to another subdomain via cname

    - by Stephen
    Question: I need to get DNS configured to point a subdomain from one domain (which I will generally not be controlling) to another subdomain on a different domain name. Testing this process using a simple CNAME entry keeps pointing to the primary domain and not the subdomain where it should be going. This is the scenario; (newdomain.com is in my control) cdn.xyz.com should display content from this subdomain subdomain.newdomain.com It is instead displaying content from newdomain.com (not the subdomain sub domain) cdn.xyz.com/page.htm displays content from newdomain.com/page.htm although what I need is it to display content from subdomain.newdomain.com/page.htm Other Background: setup is between two different servers with different IP ranges although DNS cluster is on between all servers the newdomain.com is set up with its own unique IP (which is on the A records for the subdomains, the subdomains work as expected/normal) the DNS entry is correct (cdn CNAME subdomain.newdomain.com.) ie the end period is included a DNS lookup on the CNAME externally reports back as subdomain.newdomain.com. as the record Does anyone know what DNS entries I am missing to get this working correctly ? Note: I do not want to just put a redirect between domains as I need the content of subdomain.newdomain.com/content.html to be visible via the URL of cdn.xyz.com/content.html also I can just use some redirects on newdomain.com to achieve what I am after but would prefer to just get the DNS correct. EDIT Current DNS cdn CNAME subdomain.newdomain.com. || CNAME entry for domain1 subdomain A XXX.XXX.XXX.XXX || A record entry for working subdomain pointing to unique IP What should happen is that cdn.domain1.com - subdomain.newdomain.com What is happening is cdn.domain1.com - newdomain.com (ie. the root not the subdomain) EDIT 2 Actually if its easier I am trying to emulate a simple cloud setup like Rackspace Containers (which I assume is similar to Buckets on AWS). although it is not for cloud storage Where a container has a url reference of hd62321678d323.rackspace.com (in truth they are much longer) so I can use a CNAME record of: cdn CNAME hd62321678d323.rackspace.com. so that http://cdn.mydomain.com/myfile.jpg displays content from http://hd62321678d323.rackspace.com/myfile.jpg

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  • Windows Vista DHCP bug, arp authorize, isc dhcp, workaround

    - by jinanwow
    I am trying to find a workaround for the Windows Vista Force Broadcast bug with ISC DHCP and a Cisco Router. The problem is not windows vista trying to obtain an IP address from us that works fine (with or without the flag enabled). THe problem is we are using a cisco router and the command 'arp authorized' to prevent users from using static IP addresses on the network. The problem is, if Windows Vista sets the boot flag to true the command 'arp authorized' will not work, as it looks for the IP address and destination MAC address in the DHCP Offer Packet to add it to its arp table. The machine will DHCP just fine, but since the ARP table is not aware of the machine, it is unable to access the internet. If I disable the broadcast flag in vista, the next time it DHCPs an arp entry gets created since the DHCP Offer is unicast instead of broadcast. The thing is, we can not tell 500 to 1000 people to edit their registry, so we need a workaround for this issue. I have not had much success in finding a workaround. The question is, is there a way to force or trick ISC DHCP into unicasting a responce back to the user. Either on the Cisco Side, ISC DHCP side or intercepting and rewriting the DHCP Discover UDP packet to turn off the flag before it reaches ISC DHCP?

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  • Managing scalability and availability with two servers running Apache Httpd, Apache Mina and MySQL

    - by celalo
    Hello, I am not a developer and I don't much experience with scalable server architectures. But I am in need of a highly available and scalable system for one of my projects. There is going to be two servers I am going to use for the time being. Both with 4 core CPUs and 8 GB RAM with RAID structures running CentOS 5.4. I will also have feature called "Failover IP" which enables to direct an IP address to another server within short time. The applications which will be run on the servers: There is going to be a Java application based on Apache Mina server for handling TCP requests from some hundreds of network devices where the devices are going to send request as much as one request per minute. Handling those requests, includes parsing the requests and inserting a few rows to the Database. Parsing requests before inserting data to the DB does take neglectable time. There is going to be MySQL server, as I stated above. Also there is going to be a PHP web application running on Apache Httpd Server which uses the same DB with the Java application. What I wish to have is to make use of those two servers at the most. I was imagining to have the servers identical, sharing the work load. MySQL could be a cluster maybe? And if some application fails or the whole machine goes down, the other will continue serving the requests seamlessly. Reminding that a "Failover IP" feature will be available for me to take advantage of. Also, It should be kept in mind that number of servers could increase in time, to meet the demand. What can you suggest? Which kind of tools I can make use of? Which kind of monitoring software (paid/unpaid) I have? Thanks in advance.

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  • Creating a DNS Server

    - by c.adhityaa
    OK, I am a complete newbie to all this, so please bear with me. I want to create a DNS Server (like Google does - 8.8.8.8). I understand that a DNS Server is a Server that gives a IP on being given a hostname, ie. when I ask it what is the IP of google.com, it says "64.233.160.0". So, what I want to do is create a similar one that holds records of what translates to what. I thought of this since it looks to be similar to a webserver - ask for a page and it gives back the page. That is, when my machine has the IP xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx and people chose xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx as their Primary DNS Server, then when they ask "www.google.com", I sould be able to tell "64.233.160.0". So, how do I create this DNS Server that is accessible to everyone in the world ? It would be easier if we have something like EasyPHP which is the analogue to a webserver here. I am sorry if I have caused any trauma because this might seem rubbish to experts ;) Adhityaa

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  • Cisco: Site-to-site VPN with cisco 878 and ASA weirdness

    - by cpf
    I currently have 2 sites, both connected to each other through 2 firewalls / routers in a site-to-site VPN. Pinging from server to server (Using 2mb/2mb SDSL) through that VPN obviously works, however, at one site, we have another internet connection (7m/400k ADSL), and only the link between the two sites should be on the other connection. All pc's should go over the other connection for internet, just communication between servers & Communication between pc's and the server at the other side should go through there too. What is configured at the moment is the server is using the SDSL directly as default gateway. Since it's not intended to surf anything it is a safe config. PC's are configured on the ADSL as default gateway. Now I wanted to route through everything that uses the range used on the other site, it should be sent from the ADSL modem to the SDSL modem, which has the VPN connection. I figured I could use OSPF to do so, however, OSPF doesn't seem to "detect" the range of the external site. Also (due to bad ip subnetting thanks to the other administrator), the ip used internally as the server on the other site also exists on the internet (causing a lot of confusion), so rdp-ing from our server to the server of the other site works (somehow), but tracerouting on the SDSL router (which should actually, in my opinion, go over the VPN) actually goes all over the internet. My question(s): Why doesn't the SDSL router ping the external ip through VPN, but the server does? Why can't I route from the ADSL router to the SDSL over VPN? I would seriously appreciate some help, since I can't figure out why it does it like this.

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  • HA Proxy Stick-table and tcp-connection configuration

    - by Vladimir
    I am using HA Proxy HA-Proxy version 1.4.18 2011/09/16 I am trying to insert the following into /etc/init.d/haproxy.cfg file # Use General Purpose Couter (gpc) 0 in SC1 as a global abuse counter # Monitors the number of request sent by an IP over a period of 10 seconds stick-table type ip size 1m expire 10s store gpc0,http_req_rate(10s) tcp-request connection track-sc1 src tcp-request connection reject if { src_get_gpc0 gt 0 } # Table definition stick-table type ip size 100k expire 30s store conn_cur(3s) # Allow clean known IPs to bypass the filter tcp-request connection accept if { src -f /etc/haproxy/whitelist.lst } # Shut the new connection as long as the client has already 10 opened tcp-request connection reject if { src_conn_cur ge 10 } tcp-request connection track-sc1 src I get the following error: [ALERT] 256/113143 (4627) : parsing [/etc/haproxy/haproxy.cfg:36] : stick-table: unknown argument 'store'. [ALERT] 256/113143 (4627) : parsing [/etc/haproxy/haproxy.cfg:37] : unknown argument 'connection' after 'tcp-request' in proxy 'http_proxy' [ALERT] 256/113143 (4627) : parsing [/etc/haproxy/haproxy.cfg:38] : unknown argument 'connection' after 'tcp-request' in proxy 'http_proxy' [ALERT] 256/113143 (4627) : parsing [/etc/haproxy/haproxy.cfg:41] : stick-table: unknown argument 'store'. [ALERT] 256/113143 (4627) : parsing [/etc/haproxy/haproxy.cfg:43] : unknown argument 'connection' after 'tcp-request' in proxy 'http_proxy' [ALERT] 256/113143 (4627) : parsing [/etc/haproxy/haproxy.cfg:45] : unknown argument 'connection' after 'tcp-request' in proxy 'http_proxy' [ALERT] 256/113143 (4627) : parsing [/etc/haproxy/haproxy.cfg:46] : unknown argument 'connection' after 'tcp-request' in proxy 'http_proxy' [ALERT] 256/113143 (4627) : Error(s) found in configuration file : /etc/haproxy/haproxy.cfg [WARNING] 256/113143 (4627) : Proxy 'http_proxy': in multi-process mode, stats will be limited to process assigned to the current request. [ALERT] 256/113143 (4627) : Fatal errors found in configuration. [fail] Could you please tell me what is wrong with the code? Thanks!

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  • Getting SMB file shares working over a PPTP VPN

    - by Ben Scott
    I'm having issues getting SMB file shares working over a PPTP VPN. The server setup consists of a security device (DrayTek V3300) which passes the PPTP authentication to a SBS2003 server running RRAS. The server is the DC and provides DNS and WINS, the single NIC's name server is set to the NIC's IP (192.168...), and DHCP on the DrayTek sets the server IP as the DNS. If I create a new VPN connection in Win7, leaving everything as default apart from the server, username, password and domain, I can: ping everything by IP address resolve IPs with nslookup using their fully-qualified name, as in nslookup fileserver.mydomain.local ping machines by fully-qualified name, as in ping fileserver.mydomain.local However if I try to access a file share: within Explorer, I get "Windows cannot access ..." with "Error code: 0x80004005 Unspecified Error", using net use z: \\fileserver.mydomain.local\share, I get "System error 53 has occurred. The network path was not found." If I add the machine name to my HOSTS file I can use the file share, which is my last-ditch workaround, but I have a number of VPN users and would rather a solution that doesn't involve me trying to hand-edit system files on computers half a country away. If I set the WINS server explicitly in the connection's IPv4 settings I don't have to use the FQN to ping the machine, but that doesn't change anything else. EDIT: The PC I'm having the issue on is running Win 7 Home Premium. After more testing I actually have two other PCs that work, one W7HP, one XP Home, and another Vista PC that doesn't work (not tested as much as the others), all four on the same internet connection (behind the same router). All of them were tested with a straight-forward, all defaults, new VPN configuration.

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  • iptables -P FORWARD DROP makes port forwarding slow

    - by Isaac
    I have three computers, linked like this: box1 (ubuntu) box2 router & gateway (debian) box3 (opensuse) [10.0.1.1] ---- [10.0.1.18,10.0.2.18,10.0.3.18] ---- [10.0.3.15] | box4, www [10.0.2.1] Among other things I want box2 to do nat and port forwarding, so that I can do ssh -p 2223 box2 to reach box3. For this I have the following iptables script: #!/bin/bash # flush iptables -F INPUT iptables -F FORWARD iptables -F OUTPUT iptables -t nat -F PREROUTING iptables -t nat -F POSTROUTING iptables -t nat -F OUTPUT # default default_action=DROP for chain in INPUT OUTPUT;do iptables -P $chain $default_action done iptables -P FORWARD DROP # allow ssh to local computer allowed_ssh_clients="10.0.1.1 10.0.3.15" for ip in $allowed_ssh_clients;do iptables -A OUTPUT -p tcp --sport 22 -d $ip -j ACCEPT iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport 22 -s $ip -j ACCEPT done # allow DNS iptables -A OUTPUT -p udp --dport 53 -m state \ --state NEW,ESTABLISHED,RELATED -j ACCEPT iptables -A INPUT -p udp --sport 53 -m state \ --state ESTABLISHED,RELATED -j ACCEPT # allow HTTP & HTTPS iptables -A OUTPUT -p tcp -m multiport --dports 80,443 -j ACCEPT iptables -A INPUT -p tcp -m multiport --sports 80,443 -j ACCEPT # # ROUTING # # allow routing echo 1 >/proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward # nat iptables -t nat -A POSTROUTING -o eth0 -j MASQUERADE # http iptables -A FORWARD -p tcp --dport 80 -j ACCEPT iptables -A FORWARD -p tcp --sport 80 -j ACCEPT # ssh redirect iptables -t nat -A PREROUTING -p tcp -i eth1 --dport 2223 -j DNAT \ --to-destination 10.0.3.15:22 iptables -A FORWARD -p tcp --sport 22 -j ACCEPT iptables -A FORWARD -p tcp --dport 22 -j ACCEPT iptables -A FORWARD -p tcp --sport 1024:65535 -j ACCEPT iptables -A FORWARD -p tcp --dport 1024:65535 -j ACCEPT iptables -I FORWARD -j LOG --log-prefix "iptables denied: " While this works, it takes about 10 seconds to get a password promt from my ssh command. Afterwards, the connection is as responsive as could be. If I change the default policy for my FORWARD chain to "ACCEPT", then the password promt is there imediatly. I have tried analysing the logs, but I can not spot a difference in the logs for ACCEPT/DROP in my FORWARD chain. Also I have tried allowing all the unprivileged ports, as box1 uses thoses for doing ssh to box2. Any hints? (If the whole setup seems strange to you - the point of the exercise is to understand iptables ;))

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  • DNS slow after losing DNS Server

    - by Tim
    We have set up a small Windows Server 2008 R2 network with a domain controller which is also acting as the DNS server for the network (we opted to install DNS when setting up the domain). This network isn't connected to the Internet in any way, so all machines have been configured to use the IP address of the domain controller as their primary DNS and no secondary DNS server has been configured. If we shut down or unplug the network cable from the domain controller, DNS lookups become quite slow and the performance of the network suffers. For example, running a ping command using a hostname takes around 5-6 seconds to resolve the name. I presume this is because it is looking for the DNS, then falling back to some other method of resolving the names as the DNS server is now gone. All the machines have static IP addresses so we are considering just putting all entries in the HOSTS file of each machine. However, it would be nice to have a centralised DNS in case we one day change the IP of one of the machines. Is there a better way to speed this up?

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  • Issues with doing a P2V on Exchange 2007

    - by PokermUNKEE
    I shutdown all Exchange services on the physical box and did a convert. Everything converted fine. Server booted up no issues and I could receive email from the outside world with no issues. But I am unable to send emails internally or externally. They just sit in the Outbox. I also disabled the DHCPClient service as I didn't want the server to get an IP address from DHCP when it first came online. It came online with no IP, then I used console to assign the correct static IP address (same one on the physical server) and rebooted. I ran the Exchange Troubleshooting Agent and it gave me the following errors: The value for the '\MSExchangeIS Mailbox\Messages Queued For Submission' counter on server exchange is greater than zero (average value is 8.8) and it appears that 'MSExchangeMailSubmission' is failing to submit messages to at least one computer with the Hub Transport server role installed over the last minute. Found 1 computers with the Hub Transport server role installed in the same Active Directory site as server exchange using local Active Directory site GUID 'ce8a4367-1bf6-4825-9cac-c4e2b115c450'. Check Local Active Directory Site Hub Transport Server Role Health (Mailflow_CheckLocalBhHealth1.1.1.1.1.1.1.1) I have one Exchange server with all the roles on it. Has anyone see this before when doing a convert? Please help :(

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  • Ipsec config problem // openswan

    - by user90696
    I try to configure Ipsec on server with openswan as client. But receive error - possible, it's auth error. What I wrote wrong in config ? Thank you for answers. #1: STATE_MAIN_I2: sent MI2, expecting MR2 003 "f-net" #1: received Vendor ID payload [Cisco-Unity] 003 "f-net" #1: received Vendor ID payload [Dead Peer Detection] 003 "f-net" #1: ignoring unknown Vendor ID payload [ca917959574c7d5aed4222a9df367018] 003 "f-net" #1: received Vendor ID payload [XAUTH] 108 "f-net" #1: STATE_MAIN_I3: sent MI3, expecting MR3 003 "f-net" #1: discarding duplicate packet; already STATE_MAIN_I3 010 "f-net" #1: STATE_MAIN_I3: retransmission; will wait 20s for response 003 "f-net" #1: discarding duplicate packet; already STATE_MAIN_I3 003 "f-net" #1: discarding duplicate packet; already STATE_MAIN_I3 003 "f-net" #1: discarding duplicate packet; already STATE_MAIN_I3 010 "f-net" #1: STATE_MAIN_I3: retransmission; will wait 40s for response 031 "f-net" #1: max number of retransmissions (2) reached STATE_MAIN_I3. Possible authentication failure: no acceptable response to our first encrypted message 000 "f-net" #1: starting keying attempt 2 of at most 3, but releasing whack other side - Cisco ASA. parameters for my connection on our Linux server : VPN Gateway 8.*.*.* (Cisco ) Phase 1 Exchange Type Main Mode Identification Type IP Address Local ID 4.*.*.* (our Linux server IP) Remote ID 8.*.*.* (VPN server IP) Authentication PSK Pre Shared Key Diffie-Hellman Key Group DH 5 (1536 bit) or DH 2 (1024 bit) Encryption Algorithm AES 256 HMAC Function SHA-1 Lifetime 86.400 seconds / no volume limit Phase 2 Security Protocol ESP Connection Mode Tunnel Encryption Algorithm AES 256 HMAC Function SHA-1 Lifetime 3600 seconds / 4.608.000 kilobytes DPD / IKE Keepalive 15 seconds PFS off Remote Network 192.168.100.0/24 Local Network 1 10.0.0.0/16 ............... Local Network 5 current openswan config : # config setup klipsdebug=all plutodebug="control parsing" protostack=netkey nat_traversal=no virtual_private=%v4:10.0.0.0/8,%v4:192.168.0.0/16,%v4:172.16.0.0/12 oe=off nhelpers=0 conn f-net type=tunnel keyexchange=ike authby=secret auth=esp esp=aes256-sha1 keyingtries=3 pfs=no aggrmode=no keylife=3600s ike=aes256-sha1-modp1024 # left=4.*.*.* leftsubnet=10.0.0.0/16 leftid=4.*.*.* leftnexthop=%defaultroute right=8.*.*.* rightsubnet=192.168.100.0/24 rightid=8.*.*.* rightnexthop=%defaultroute auto=add

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  • playsms sent sms to queue

    - by user512213
    i install playsms in my system as below mentioned way https://github.com/antonraharja/playSMS/wiki/Web-User-Interface-Installation i use kannel as a gateway and kannel running fine i get the following status while i check kannel status in browser. Kannel bearerbox version `1.4.3'. Build `Nov 24 2011 08:02:18', compiler `4.6.2'. System Linux, release 3.2.0-23-generic-pae, version #36-Ubuntu SMP Tue Apr 10 22:19:09 UTC 2012, machine i686. Hostname MSSRF-INCOIS, IP 127.0.1.1. Libxml version 2.7.8. Using OpenSSL 1.0.0e 6 Sep 2011. Compiled with MySQL 5.5.17, using MySQL 5.5.24. Using SQLite 3.7.9. Using native malloc. Status: running, uptime 0d 1h 8m 27s WDP: received 0 (0 queued), sent 0 (0 queued) SMS: received 0 (0 queued), sent 0 (0 queued), store size -1 SMS: inbound (0.00,0.00,0.00) msg/sec, outbound (0.00,0.00,0.00) msg/sec DLR: 0 queued, using internal storage Box connections: wapbox, IP 127.0.0.1 (on-line 0d 1h 8m 2s) wapbox, IP 127.0.0.1 (on-line 0d 0h 18m 11s) SMSC connections: unknown AT2[/dev/ttyS0] (online 4106s, rcvd 0, sent 0, failed 0, queued 0 msgs) But when i try to send sms in playsms means it shows "Your SMS has been delivered to queue " but sms not received .Any thing we missed out while configuration.any one advice me to proceed.

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  • Squid configuration for proxy server

    - by Ian Rob
    I have a server with 10 ip's that I want to give access to some friends via authentication but I'm stuck on squid's config file. Let's say I have these ip's available on my server: 212.77.23.10 212.77.1.10 68.44.82.112 And I want to allocate each one of them to a different user like so: 212.77.23.10 goes to user manilodisan using password 123456 212.77.1.10 goes to user manilodisan1 using password 123456 68.44.82.112 goes to user manilodisan2 using password 123456 I managed to add the passwords and authentication works ok but how do I do to restrict one user to one of the available ip's? I have a basic setup from different bits I found over the internet but nothing seems to work. Here's my squid.conf (all comments are removed to make it lighter): acl ip1 myip 212.77.23.10 acl ip2 myip 212.77.1.10 tcp_outgoing_address 212.77.23.10 ip1 tcp_outgoing_address 212.77.1.10 ip2 http_port 8888 visible_hostname weezie auth_param basic program /usr/lib/squid/ncsa_auth /etc/squid/squid-passwd acl ncsa_users proxy_auth REQUIRED http_access allow ncsa_users acl all src 0.0.0.0/0.0.0.0 acl manager proto cache_object acl localhost src 127.0.0.1/255.255.255.255 acl to_localhost dst 127.0.0.0/8 acl SSL_ports port 443 # https acl SSL_ports port 563 # snews acl SSL_ports port 873 # rsync acl Safe_ports port 80 # http acl Safe_ports port 21 # ftp acl Safe_ports port 443 # https acl Safe_ports port 70 # gopher acl Safe_ports port 210 # wais acl Safe_ports port 1025-65535 # unregistered ports acl Safe_ports port 280 # http-mgmt acl Safe_ports port 488 # gss-http acl Safe_ports port 591 # filemaker acl Safe_ports port 777 # multiling http acl Safe_ports port 631 # cups acl Safe_ports port 873 # rsync acl Safe_ports port 901 # SWAT acl purge method PURGE acl CONNECT method CONNECT http_access allow manager localhost http_access deny manager http_access allow purge localhost http_access deny purge http_access deny !Safe_ports http_access deny CONNECT !SSL_ports http_access allow localhost http_access deny all icp_access allow all hierarchy_stoplist cgi-bin ? access_log /var/log/squid/access.log squid acl QUERY urlpath_regex cgi-bin \? cache deny QUERY refresh_pattern ^ftp: 1440 20% 10080 refresh_pattern ^gopher: 1440 0% 1440 refresh_pattern . 0 20% 4320 acl apache rep_header Server ^Apache broken_vary_encoding allow apache extension_methods REPORT MERGE MKACTIVITY CHECKOUT hosts_file /etc/hosts forwarded_for off coredump_dir /var/spool/squid

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  • VLAN support on Juniper EX - 2200 switches

    - by liv2hak
    I have 6 Juniper switches (EX - 2200) connected to each other as shown in the network topology below. I have two PC's that I am using PC1 - (used for configuring the 6 switches via minicom) PC2 - to monitor the traffic between the switches via the Ports that are marked with arrows in the diagram. STEP 1: I create a new vlan On Switch 3 (SW3) that includes Port 12 and Port 22. I also assign l3-interface to the vlan (vlan_2) with ip address - 192.168.1.7. Now I plug-in Port 0 of Switch 3 on PC2. Now I try pinging 192.168.1.7 from PC2 (192.168.1.10) I want to know what will happen? My postulation is that I will not be able to ping SW3 from PC2.This is because SW3 (Port 12 and Port 22) is a part of a vlan_2 and vlan_2 logically breaks up broadcast domains and so 192.168.1.7 will not be reachable from 192.168.1.10. Now I have an l3-interface on SW1 with IP 192.168.1.1 using default vlan( vlan-id 0). Similarly I have enabled IP on SW2 - 192.168.1.2 SW3 - 192.168.1.3 SW4 - 192.168.1.4 SW5 - 192.168.1.5 SW6 - 192.168.1.6 all using default vlan. Now I plug in Port 12 of SW3 (blue cable) into the PC2. I try to ping 192.168.1.1 from PC2. What will happen at this stage.? My postulation is that I will be able to ping switch 1.Is this correct? Also another question is that can a single port on a Switch be added multiple VLANS? I am a beginner at network configuration? Any help would be highly appreciated. (Please ignore the CISCO symbol on the switches in the diagram.All swithes are Junper EX 22-00.)

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