Search Results

Search found 23274 results on 931 pages for 'on call'.

Page 198/931 | < Previous Page | 194 195 196 197 198 199 200 201 202 203 204 205  | Next Page >

  • Instance management with Dependency injection (DI)

    - by Sven
    Hello I'm trying to understand how DI exactly works. I'm currently using Windsor as DI container. I use this to load my services dynamically in code without direct reference. But I have change behaviour and want to know a bit more on the instance mgmt using DI. I have a web app projct, here is a WCF service using PerCall as instancemode. This means, new instance/call. In this WCF I call a service (loaded via DI) and this service calls another service (again loaded via DI). The WCF is a new instance in the appdomain, but what about the services. They are also new instances? Is this DI container shared among all WCF instances and are the services in this container also single instances? Can anyone clarify?

    Read the article

  • Calling SetWindowsHookEx inside VS2008 debugger always returns NULL

    - by SoMoS
    we're working on a .Net application that does a low level keyboard hook. When we call the SetWindowsHookEx running inside the debugger the call always fail. When running from the compiled executable everything works fine. If we attach to the processs the the SetWindowsHookEx has been called everything works too. I've read somewhere (I can not remember) that VS already does a low level keyboard hook but this shouldn't be a problem as there is the CallNextHook function. Someone knows what's happening? EDIT: The code is pretty straigfoward, the exception is thrown inside debugger but not outside. Public Sub New() m_callback = New NativeMethods.KeyboardHookDelegate(AddressOf KeyboardCallback) End Sub Public Sub Start() m_handle = NativeMethods.SetWindowsHookEx(NativeMethods.HookType.WH_KEYBOARD_LL, m_callback, Marshal.GetHINSTANCE(Reflection.Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().GetModules()(0)).ToInt32, 0) If m_handle = 0 Then Throw New Exception() End If End Sub

    Read the article

  • How to create JPA EntityMananger in Spring Context?

    - by HDave
    I have a JPA/Spring application that uses Hibernate as the JPA provider. In one portion of the code, I have to manually create a DAO in my application with the new operator rather than use Spring DI. When I do this, the @PersistenceContext annotation is not processed by Spring. In my code where I create the DAO I have an EntityManagerFactory which I used to set the entityManager as follows: @PersistenceUnit private EntityManagerFactory entityManagerFactory; MyDAO dao = new MyDAOImpl(); dao.setEntityManager(entityManagerFactory.createEntityManager()); The problem is that when I do this, I get a Hibernate error: Could not find UserTransaction in JNDI [java:comp/UserTransaction] It's as if the HibernateEntityManager never received all the settings I've configured in Spring: <bean id="myAppTestLocalEmf" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="myapp-core" /> <property name="persistenceUnitPostProcessors"> <bean class="com.myapp.core.persist.util.JtaPersistenceUnitPostProcessor"> <property name="jtaDataSource" ref="myappPersistTestJdbcDataSource" /> </bean> </property> <property name="jpaProperties"> <props> <prop key="hibernate.transaction.factory_class">org.hibernate.transaction.JTATransactionFactory</prop> <prop key="hibernate.transaction.manager_lookup_class">com.atomikos.icatch.jta.hibernate3.TransactionManagerLookup</prop> </props> </property> <property name="jpaVendorAdapter"> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.vendor.HibernateJpaVendorAdapter"> <property name="showSql" value="true" /> <!-- The following use the PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer but it doesn't work in Eclipse --> <property name="database" value="$DS{hibernate.database}" /> <property name="databasePlatform" value="$DS{hibernate.dialect}" /> I am not sure, but I think the issue might be that I am not creating the entity manager correctly with the plain vanilla createEntityManager() call rather than passing in a map of properties. I say this because when Spring's LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean proxy's the call to Hibernate's createEntityManager() all of the Spring configured options are missing. That is, there is no Map argument to the createEntityManager() call. Perhaps it is another problem entirely however....not sure!

    Read the article

  • WinAPI C - RunAsUser from REDMON_USER and REDMON_SESSIONID

    - by scriptmaster
    I installed a PostScript printer driver and have setup REDMON (redmonnt.dll) for redirecting postscript output to my program. In my rather simple c program I capture the data from STDIN and I am able to successfully save it into a .ps file. The file looks OK. However, I want to start gsview.exe for viewing the file. If I call ShellExecute it fails in Windows 7 because of permission issues. It seems that my program is called under a different user account (LOCAL SERVICE). So I am looking for a way to run gsview.exe under a specific username (the user who initiated the print job is available to me in a variable as REDMON_USER along with the SESSIONID as well. I am stuck (and my stack is overflowing =) What are the minimum WinAPI call I need to use to launch a program given a username and a sessionid? Any code examples in C/C++, .NET would be very helpful

    Read the article

  • One entityManger finds entity , the other does not.

    - by Pitelk
    Hi all, I have a very strange behavior in my program. I have 2 classes (class LogIn and CreateGame) where i have injected an EntityManager in each using the annotation @PersistenceContext(unitName="myUnitPU") EntityManager entitymanger; In some point i remove an object called "user" from the database using entitymanger.remove(user) from a method in LogIn class. The business logic is that a user can host and join games ( in the same time) so removing the user all the entries in database about the games the user has created are removed and all the entries showing in which games the user has joined are removed also. After that, i call another function which checks if the user exists using a method in the LogIn class entitymanager.find(user) which surprisingly enough, finds the user. After that I call a method in CreateGame class which tries to find the user by using again entitymanger.find(user) the entitymanger in that class fails to find the user (which is the expected result as the user is removed and it's not in the database) So the question is : Why the entitymanager in one class finds the user (which is wrong) where the other doesn't find it? Does anyone has ever the same problem? PS : This "bug" occurs when the user has hosted a game which is joined by another user (lets call him Buser) and the Buser has made a game which is joined by the current user. GAME | HOST | CLIENTS game1 | user | userB game2 | userB | user where in this case by removing the user, the game1 is deleted and the user is removed from game2 so the result is GAME | HOST | CLIENTS game2 | userB | PS2 : The Beans are EJB3.0. The methods are called from a delegate class. The beans in the delegate class are instantiated using the InitialContext.lookup() method. Note that for logging in ,creating , joining games the appropriate delegate class calls the correspondent EJB which does the transactions. In the case of logOut, the delegate calls an EJB to logout the user but becuase other stuff must be done (as said above) this EJB calls other EJB (again using lookup() ) which has methods like removegame(), removeUserFromGame() etc. After those methods are executed the user is then logged out. Maybe it has something to do with the fact the the first entity manager is called by a delegate but the second from inside an EJb and thats why the one entitymanger can see the non-existent user while the other cannot? Also all the methods have TRANSACTIONTYPE.REQUIRED Thank you in advance

    Read the article

  • javax.sql.DataSource.getConnection() locks system

    - by Ryan Elkins
    I'm using the Apache Commons DBCP library for connection pooling in a desktop application. I've done this before and never had a problem but the latest application has started sometimes locking up on the call to getConnection() on my DataSource. The application just hangs after that call. I'm closing up my resources when I'm done with them. Is there any known reason why this might happen? I'm not even sure where to being troubleshooting this now that I've got it narrowed down to this method. It doesn't always hang - sometimes it happens fairly quickly, sometimes it takes a long time. Sometimes it doesn't happen at all, although lately I can get it to happen within a few minutes.

    Read the article

  • C#: Two forms, one is calling the other one

    - by Shaza
    Hey all, I have a problem like this, I have two Winforms, f1 and f2. f1 will start a loop on button click, this loop checks a condition and decide to call the other form which is f2 or not. The problem is, the loop may call f2 many times, so each time the other form f2 will be called the first form f1 should pause its execution. So, I solved it like this, I used backgroundWorker + AutoResetEvent. I placed the backgroundWorker in the first form and inside the DoWork event handler I called f2.Show() then I called WaitOne on the AutoResetEvent let it be A. In the other form "f2", on Exiting button I called Set on the same A. But, unfortunately f2 got freezed when clicking that button in f1, what should I change??

    Read the article

  • MS Office SharePoint Server 2007 UI language change

    - by Alexander
    There is an existing app in MOSS, which allows to create polls for a call center, operators fill them out as they call targeted customers. Then this Web app outputs the results of this poll. Is it possible to change the interface language of this existing web app? Operators don't understand English. If it's not about language packs, it would still be easier for me to embed new names and labels, rather than rewrite in a system I am not familiar with. Also, is it possible to change the authentication type from Windows authentication to regular username/password check (username and password will be stored in DB or somewhere only for this site) If it is possible, can you direct me to some kind of tutorial, help or manual which would show how to do it? On MSDN it's written that language can't be changed, but I'm not sure whether it's about the Web app language. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Accessing a master page from httphandler

    - by vondip
    Hi All, I am developing a small application in asp.net (writing in c#). In my application I am using jquery to perform asynchronous call to the server. I have an http handler that listens in to the requests and does what it needs to do. Problems start when in the handler I need to access information stored in the page , from where the asynchronous call started. When I try this: Page page = HttpContext.Current.Handler as Page; I don't get a page. How else can I access the page itself? Thank you

    Read the article

  • ajax request rely on the previous one

    - by Lynn
    I want to do something like this: $.ajax({ url: SOMEWHERE, ... success: function(data){ // do sth... var new_url = data.url; $.ajax({ url: new_url, success: function(data){ var another_url = data.url; // ajax call rely on the result of previous one $.ajax({ // do sth }) } }) }, fail: function(){ // do sth... // ajax call too $.ajax({ // config }) } }) the code looks like shit. I wonder how to make it looks pretty. Some best practice?

    Read the article

  • Linq to sql add/update in different methods with different datacontexts

    - by Kurresmack
    I have to methods, Add() and Update() which both create a datacontext and returns the object created/updated. In my unit test I call first Add(), do some stuff and then call Update(). The problem is that Update() fails with the exception: System.Data.Linq.DuplicateKeyException: Cannot add an entity with a key that is already in use.. I understand the issue but want to know what to do about it? I've read a bit about how to handle multiple datacontext objects and from what I've heard this way is OK. I understand that the entity is still attached to the datacontext in Add() but I need to find out how to solve this? Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • PInvoke or using /clr:pure to compile

    - by Yin Zhu
    I have a set of numerical libraries in C++ and I want to call them interactively in a interpretive language like F# or IronPython. So I have two choices now: Compile the library in native DLL and use PInvoke to call functions in it. Compile the C++ library to .Net dll using visual c++ (/clr:pure compile option). The advantage of 1 is that it is very fast, however there are more work in it, e.g. I cannot PInvoke double pointer (e.g. float **), I must write another wrapper in the C++ library to make the interface friendly to .Net. The advantage of 2 is that I don't need to do know Mashaling strings, arrays, etc. However, the .net dll is slower compared to the native one. What others factors should be considered when choosing between the two?

    Read the article

  • getting the name of the calling method

    - by zeocrash
    Basically i've got a web service that i'm trying to put some kind of usage logging in. To do this i've created a class with a logging method. I instatiate the class on the service and then call the logging method in each of the web methods. I'm trying to find a way of getting the name of the method that has called the loggong method Public sub tstmethod log_object.log_method end sub in this case the returned name i'm looking for is "tstmethod" Everywhere i've seen has said to either use Dim stackframe As New Diagnostics.StackFrame Return stackframe.GetMethod.Name.ToString Or to use Dim stackframe As New Diagnostics.StackFrame Return stackframe.GetMethod.DeclaringType.FullName which i call inside the logging method getmethod.name.tostring returns the name of the logging method getmethod.declaringtype.fullname returns the name of the logging class no matter what i do i cannot find a way of getting the name of the method that called the logging method in this case "tstmethod"

    Read the article

  • how to get the sql connection

    - by sweetsecret
    FS_Setting is a VB class which has all the details of the connections ie: Public Class FS_Setting Public Function Get_RS_Connection() As SqlConnection Try Get_RS_Connection = New SqlConnection("Data Source=***********;User ID=sa;Password=*****;database=*********") Catch ex As System.Exception Throw New System.Exception("Get_RS_Connection Error:" + ex.Message) End Try End Function I need to call the function Get_RS_Connection() in a different class instead of getting the connection all the way again and hard coding.... I want to call the above class where the SQL connection is declared Namespace FS_Library Public Class FS_Errorlog Inherits FS_BaseClass Try **cn = New SqlConnection("Data Source=***********;UserID=sa;Password=*****;database=*********")** cmd = New SqlCommand("dbo.FS_ErrorLog_ADD", cn) cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure cmd.CommandTimeout = Convert.ToInt32(ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings("Command_Timeout")) Me.AddParameter(cmd, "@p_tableKey", SqlDbType.Int, tableKey) Me.AddParameter(cmd, "@p_FunctionCode", SqlDbType.Int, FunctionCode) Me.AddParameter(cmd, "@p_TableAlias", SqlDbType.VarChar, TableAlias) Me.AddParameter(cmd, "@p_ValidationCode", SqlDbType.Int, ValidationCode) If Filename = "" Then Filename = "N/A" End If Me.AddParameter(cmd, "@p_FileName", SqlDbType.VarChar, Filename) Me.AddParameter(cmd, "@p_Message", SqlDbType.VarChar, Message) Me.AddParameter(cmd, "@p_CreateUser", SqlDbType.VarChar, userID) Me.AddParameter(cmd, "@p_UserActionID", SqlDbType.UniqueIdentifier, UserActionID) cn.Open()

    Read the article

  • implementing ioctl() commands in FreeBSD

    - by thecoffman
    I am adding some code to an existing FreeBSD device driver and I am trying to pass a char* from user space to the driver. I've implemented a custom ioctl() command using the _IOW macro like so: #define TIBLOOMFILTER _IOW(0,253,char*) My call looks something like this: int file_desc = open("/dev/ti0", O_RDWR); ioctl(file_desc, TIBLOOMFILTER, (*filter).getBitArray()); close(file_desc); When I call ioctl() I get: Inappropriate ioctl for device as an error message. Any guess as to what may be doing wrong? I've defined the same macro in my device driver, and added it to the case statement.

    Read the article

  • Copy / Move One SAP Client From One System to another System

    - by JonH
    We have one SAP system in the US (lets call it TKIJVPL1), this system has an SAP Client, client 241. We have another SAP system in Germany (lets call it Lockweiler). We need to move this client 241 from our TKIJVPL1 server to this new server. Can I simply use transaction SCC8? It says client export, but when I look at the options it says Source client : 241 (which is good), it says Profile Name SAP_ALL (which is also good as I need all data), but Target System all that is coming up is PL1 / QL1. What is the easiest way to export one client from one system to another system in SAP?

    Read the article

  • Using jquery to make a POST, how to properly supply 'data' parameter?

    - by user246114
    Hi, I'd like to make an ajax call as a POST, it's going to go to my servlet. I want to send parameterized data, like the following: var mydata = 'param0=some_text&param1=some_more_text'; I supply this as the 'data' parameter of my jquery ajax() call. So this should be inserted in the body of the POST, right? (I mean, not appended to my 'mysite/save' url?): $.ajax({ url: 'mysite/save', type: 'POST', data: mydata }); it appears to work correctly. In my servlet, I am just dumping all received parameters, and I see them all come through nicely: private void printParams(HttpServletRequest req) { Enumeration paramNames = req.getParameterNames(); while (paramNames.hasMoreElements()) { // print each param key/val here. } } also, I should url encode my data string manually before use, right? Like: var mydata = 'param0=' + urlencode('hi there!'); mydata += '&param1=' + urlencode('blah blah'); mydata += '%param2=' + urlencode('we get it'); Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Default value list for pipeline param in Powershell

    - by fatcat1111
    I have a Powershell script that reads values off of the pipeline: PARAM ( [Parameter(ValueFromPipeline = $true)] $s ) PROCESS { echo "* $s" } Works just fine: PS my.ps1 foo * foo I would like the script to have list of default values, as the most common usage will always use the same values and storing them in the default will be most convenient. I did the usual assignment: PARAM ( [Parameter(ValueFromPipeline = $true)] $s = 'bar' ) PROCESS { echo "* $s" } Again, works just fine: PS my.ps1 * bar PS my.ps1 foo * foo However when setting the default to be a list, I get back something entirely reasonable but not at all what I want: PARAM ( [Parameter(ValueFromPipeline = $true)] $s = @('bar', 'bat', 'boy') ) PROCESS { echo "* $s" } Result: PS my.ps1 * bar bat boy I expected: PS my.ps1 * bar * bat * boy How can I get one call in to the Process loop for each default value? (This is somewhat different than getting one call in to Process, and wrapping the current body of in a big foreach loop over $s).

    Read the article

  • hibernate update JPA foregin key

    - by cometta
    my jpa look like below public class TESTClass implements Serializable { ... private String name; @EmbeddedId protected IssTESTPK issTESTPK; @JoinColumns({@JoinColumn(name = "DIVISION_CODE", referencedColumnName = "DIVISION_CODE", nullable = false , insertable = false, updatable = false), @JoinColumn(name = "SURVEY_NUM", referencedColumnName = "SURVEY_NUM", nullable = false, insertable = false, updatable = false)}) @ManyToOne(optional = false) private IssDivision issDivision; } if i make change to 'name' and call merge, it able to update into database, but when i change issDivision, and call merge, it doesnt update database. how to solve this? does it related to because i'm using embededId (composite primary keys) ?

    Read the article

  • Zend AMF throwing InvocationTargetException

    - by Roopesh Shenoy
    Hi, I am trying to make a service call to a php function from flex, through Zend AMF. Most of the functions get called fine, but for one particular function, it throws the following exception: InvocationTargetException:There was an error while invoking the operation. Check your operation inputs or server code and try invoking the operation again. Reason: Fatal error: Call to a member function getInvokeArguments() on a non-object in D:\wamp\www\ZendFramework\library\Zend\Amf\Server.php on line 328 I am not able to debug through this - has anyone faced any issue like this before, or have any ideas how this can be debugged?

    Read the article

  • RaisePropertyChanged for Windows Phone

    - by chief7
    I'm starting to use the MVVMLight framework and have a question about binding to properties in the ViewModel. I found that I have to call the RaisePropertyChanged method in the setter for the property in order for the View to be updated. And I have to call RaisePropertyChanged from through the dispatcher otherwise I get a thread access error. public string Lat { get { return _lat; } set { _lat = value; Deployment.Current.Dispatcher.BeginInvoke(() => RaisePropertyChanged("Lat")); } } This works but its a lot of code to get auto binding properties. Is there a helper to handle this more cleanly?

    Read the article

  • WCF - WebReferences not working

    - by JMSA
    At the client end, I have generated a Proxy using SvcUtil.exe and it is working fine. Then I have added a WebReference to the client assembly and calling the same method. But it is not working. My program is running in console mode and the method is suppose to return a string. It is not returning the string. I just see a blank console window. No exception is thrown. And after setting a debug point on the method call I see that, program is halted on the method call for ever. What should I look for to solve the problem? I am using VS2005. And adding the webReference by right-clicking the client project and then clicking "Add Web Reference" pop-up menu.

    Read the article

  • Is it feasible to write a Firefox plugin to make use of ActiveX control on Windows?

    - by Gary B2312321321
    I use an ActiveX control called TAPIEx enabling TAPI phone system integration using MS Access 2000 (+Visual Basic). I want to turn this Access database into a web app with the clients running Firefox (all on internal network). Since Firefox doesnt support ActiveX is it feasible for me to write a Firefox plugin that in turn utilizes the ActiveX control? With regard to how plugins work - Would I be able to call 'functions' of the plugin from page script (eg dial call specifying phone number, check if calls in process)? Would adding these functions to the Firefox right click menu 'globally' inside Firefox be easier? Hope you guys can help. Note I'm not a fulltime programmer; I just need to know how steep the learning curve will be or even if my idea is possible! Ive now found a project to allow using activex controls in firefox that seems to be quite up to date at: http://code.google.com/p/ff-activex-host/

    Read the article

  • How to add custom hooks to controllers in ASP.NET MVC2

    - by Adrian
    Hi, I've just started a new project in ASP.net 4.0 with MVC 2. What I need to be able to do is have a custom hook at the start and end of each action of the controller. e.g. public void Index() { *** call to the start custom hook to externalfile.cs (is empty so does nothing) ViewData["welcomeMessage"] = "Hello World"; *** call to the end custom hook to externalfile.cs (changes "Hello World!" to "Hi World") return View(); } The View then see welcomeMessage as "Hi World" after being changed in the custom hook. The custom hook would need to be in an external file and not change the "core" compiled code. This causes a problem as with my limited knowledge ASP.net MVC has to be compiled. Does anyone have any advice on how this can be achieved? Thanks

    Read the article

  • TypeError: unbound method make_request() must be called with XX instance, but how?

    - by Dave
    Running the code below I get E TypeError: unbound method make_request() must be called with A instance as first argument (got str instance instead) I dont want to set make_request method as static, I want to call it from an instance of an object. The example http://pytest.org/latest/fixture.html#fixture-function # content of ./test_smtpsimple.py import pytest @pytest.fixture def smtp(): import smtplib return smtplib.SMTP("merlinux.eu") def test_ehlo(smtp): response, msg = smtp.ehlo() assert response == 250 assert "merlinux" in msg assert 0 # for demo purposes My code """ """ import pytest class A(object): """ """ def __init__(self, name ): """ """ self._prop1 = [name] @property def prop1(self): return self._prop1 @prop1.setter def prop1(self, arguments): self._prop1 = arguments def make_request(self, sex): return 'result' def __call__(self): return self @pytest.fixture() def myfixture(): """ """ A('BigDave') return A def test_validateA(myfixture): result = myfixture.make_request('male') assert result =='result'

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 194 195 196 197 198 199 200 201 202 203 204 205  | Next Page >